Respiratory Care
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Respiratory Care is an essential healthcare course that introduces students to the principles, practices, and technologies involved in the assessment and treatment of patients with cardiopulmonary disorders. This course covers the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system, pathophysiology of common respiratory diseases, and various diagnostic and therapeutic techniques such as oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, airway management, and pulmonary rehabilitation. Through both theoretical study and hands-on training, students learn to effectively support physicians and care for diverse patient populations, preparing them for roles as respiratory therapists and allied health professionals in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations Assessment of Respiratory Disease 6th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Q1) The interviewing technique called silence is used:
A) to prompt the patient to ask a question.
B)after a direct question.
C)after an open-ended question.
D)to allow the patient to review his/her history.
Answer: C
Q2) The direct question interview format is used to:
1) speed up the interview.
2) let the patient fully explain his/her situation.
3) help the respiratory therapist show empathy.
4) gather specific information.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Q1) Your patient has come into the emergency department with a complaint of centrally located constant pain. What is his most likely problem?
A) Pleurisy
B)Myocardial ischemia
C)Pneumothorax
D)Fractured rib
Answer: B
Q2) Tachypnea may be the result of:
1) hypoxemia.
2) hypothermia.
3) fever.
4) sedation.
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Q1) Your patient has obstructive lung disease. In response to this, which of the following are typically found?
1) Decreased lung compliance
2) Increased ventilatory rate
3) Increased tidal volume
4) Decreased ventilator rate
A)3, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2
D)1, 3, 4
Answer: A
Q2) The FEF 25%-75% is used to evaluate:
A) flow in large airways.
B)restrictive lung disease.
C)maximum breathing effort.
D)flow in medium-size to small airways.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Q1) All of the following will be seen in the arterial blood gas values of a patient with acute ventilatory failure EXCEPT:
A) an acidic pH.
B)a near-normal bicarbonate level.
C)an alkaline pH.
D)a high carbon dioxide level.
Q2) Common causes of metabolic acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diabetic ketoacidosis.
B)shallow breathing from a sedative overdose.
C)lactic acidosis.
D)renal (kidney) failure.
Q3) Which of the following would be a normal person's venous oxygen pressure (PaO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 35 to 45 mm Hg
B)45 to 80 mm Hg
C)80 to 100 mm Hg
D)100 to 120 mm Hg
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6
Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Q1) Polycythemia:
1) is a condition of too many red blood cells.
2) is a condition of too few red blood cells.
3) is caused by lack of iron in the diet.
4) is the body's response to chronic hypoxemia.
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 4
D)2, 4
Q2) Your patient has a chronic respiratory disorder and vasoconstriction of her pulmonary vascular system. What is the chief control over this vasoconstriction?
A) Low PAO<sub>2</sub>
B)Low PaO<sub>2</sub>
C)High PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D)High pH
Q3) A condition that will cause anemic hypoxia is:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B)decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C)polycythemia.
D)carbon monoxide poisoning.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Q1) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be identified by which of the following?
1) There is no P wave.
2) The QRS is wide.
3) The QRS looks normal.
4) The heart rate is altered.
A)1
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following are found when a patient has sinus arrhythmia?
1) Rate decreases during expiration
2) Rate decreases during inspiration
3) Rate varies by more than 10% from beat to beat
4) Rate increases during inspiration
A)3
B)2, 3
C)1, 4
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Q1) Your patient has had a ventilation-perfusion scan. What would be identified from the ventilation scan?
A) Location of a lung abscess
B)Alveolar consolidation
C)Location of a pulmonary embolism
D)Location of an airway obstruction
Q2) A PET/CT scan can provide all of the following:
1) Early detection of cancer metastasis
2) Accurate staging of cancer
3) Radiation treatment of the cancer
4) Activation of chemotherapy drugs within the tumor
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) For most chest x-ray studies, what is usually done?
A) There is a full exhalation.
B)There is a full inspiration.
C)Separate inspiratory and expiratory films are taken.
D)The patient is told to pant to provide a middle lung volume.
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Q1) Your patient has pneumonia and a right pleural effusion. If the pleural exudate fluid is infected, it will show:
1) a low protein level.
2) a high white blood cell count.
3) bacteria.
4) many red blood cells.
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A 14-year-old patient has had a serious asthma attack. Her white blood cell count can be expected to show:
A) decreased neutrophils.
B)decreased erythrocytes.
C)increased eosinophils.
D)increased monocytes.
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Care Practitioner
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Q1) A TDP can be started after:
A) the nurse finishes his/her assessment.
B)the treatment is selected.
C)a physician's order for the TDP is received.
D)the patient's insurance carrier is contacted.
Q2) According to the oxygen therapy protocol, what should be done with a patient who has severe trauma when hypoxemia is suspected?
A) Begin hyperinflation therapy.
B)Initiate supplemental oxygen.
C)Begin mechanical ventilation.
D)Notify the physician.
Q3) When performing a therapist-driven protocol (TDP), the severity assessment refers to:
A) the frequency of performing a treatment modality.
B)how sick the patient is.
C)the Department of Homeland Security's threat level.
D)how urgently the physician wants the patient treated.
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Page 11
Skills,
Treatment
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Q1) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, all of the following would be found in the O area EXCEPT:
A) hemodynamic data.
B)patient's admission complaint.
C)blood pressure.
D)sputum production.
Q2) All of the following blocks of information will be found in a patient's source-oriented record EXCEPT:
A) laboratory reports.
B)history.
C)police record.
D)admission information.
Q3) A patient who had pneumonia, and her family, are suing the hospital, physician, and respiratory therapist. How can the patient's medical care and treatment be proved?
A) Care is documented in the chart.
B)The patient's testimony
C)The physician's testimony
D)The respiratory therapist's testimony
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Chapter 11: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd:
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Q1) A patient with emphysema will often have the following clinical manifestations:
1) Polycythemia
2) Barrel chest
3) Pursed-lip breathing
4) Normal percussion note
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following are associated with chronic bronchitis?
1) Cyanosis
2) Purulent sputum
3) Right heart failure
4) Elevated CO<sub>2</sub> level
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 12: Asthma
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Q1) As a respiratory therapist, you are performing a chest assessment. What findings would be common in a patient during an asthma attack?
1) Inverse I:E ratio
2) Decreased vocal fremitus
3) Increased vesicular breath sounds
4) Hyperresonant percussion note
A)1, 4
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Pulsus paradoxus would be manifested as:
A) a greater than 40 mm Hg difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
B)inspiratory systolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.
C)inspiratory diastolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.
D)systolic and diastolic blood pressure reading being reversed.
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14
Chapter 13: Bronchiectasis
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Q1) Which form of bronchiectasis causes the greatest amount of damage to the tracheobronchial tree?
A) Triphasic
B)Varicose
C)Cystic
D)Fusiform
Q2) Rigid and dilated bronchi are the key anatomic alterations found in which type of bronchiectasis?
A) Varicose
B)Cystic
C)Emphysematous
D)Cylindrical
Q3) The preferred radiographic method to evaluate a patient's bronchiectasis is:
A) posterior-anterior radiograph (x-ray).
B)anterior-posterior radiograph (x-ray).
C)computed tomography (CT).
D)bronchogram.
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Chapter 14: Cystic Fibrosis
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Q1) During the advanced stages of cystic fibrosis, the anatomic alterations cause the patient to have:
A) a primarily restrictive lung disease.
B)a primarily obstructive lung disease.
C)equal parts restrictive and obstructive lung disease.
D)normal airways with emphysema.
Q2) Cystic fibrosis patients can have all of the following EXCEPT:
A) malnutrition.
B)meconium ileus (bowel obstruction).
C)excessive, viscous pulmonary secretions.
D)tendency for status asthmaticus.
Q3) All of the following pulmonary function findings would be expected in a patient with moderate to severe cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) increased FVC.
B)increased RV.
C)decreased PEFR.
D)decreased FEF 50%.
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16
Chapter 15: Pneumonia
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Q1) The most commonly prescribed therapeutic agent used against Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) is:
A) methicillin (Staphcillin).
B)flouroquinolone (Ofloxacin).
C)virazole (Ribavirin).
D)metronidazole (Flagyl).
Q2) If a patient has pneumonia, which of the following can increase the risk of life-threatening illness or death?
1) Weakened immune system
2) COPD
3) Marfan's syndrome
4) Heart disease
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 4
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17
Chapter 16: Lung Abscess
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Q1) While performing an assessment of your female patient, a pleural friction rub is heard. What does this indicate?
A) Her secretions are becoming thinner.
B)She has atelectasis.
C)An abscess is near the pleural surface.
D)She has a pneumothorax.
Q2) When a lung abscess is seen on a chest radiograph, a distinguishing factor is the: A) solid mass.
B)air bronchograms.
C)consolidation of the affected segment or lobe.
D)air-fluid level in the cavity.
Q3) Your patient's lung infection is caused by Klebsiella. What would be appropriate to treat it?
A) Penicillin G
B)Ribavirin (Virazole)
C)The cephalosporin agent cefotaxime.
D)Isoniazid (INH)
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18
Chapter 17: Tuberculosis
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Q1) When a person has TB spread through the body, it is found in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) upper lobes.
B)kidneys.
C)brain.
D)lower lobes.
Q2) A patient who has an uncontrolled tuberculosis infection will show all of the following signs EXCEPT:
A) weight loss.
B)high fever.
C)bloody sputum.
D)night sweats.
Q3) A negative tuberculin test would be demonstrated by an induration (wheal) of what size?
A) 4 mm or less
B)6 mm or less
C)8 mm or greater
D)10 mm or greater
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Chapter 18: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Q1) The drug of choice for the treatment of fungal lung diseases is:
A) penicillin (Penicillin G).
B)tetracycline.
C)amphotericin B (Fungizone).
D)ketoconazole (Nizoral).
Q2) Anatomic alterations found in the lungs of patients with a fungal infection include:
1) fibrosis of lung parenchyma.
2) alveolar-capillary destruction.
3) hyperinflation.
4) mucosal edema.
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 4
Q3) All of the following are identified as opportunistic yeast pathogens EXCEPT:
A) Candida albicans.
B)Cryptococcus neoformans.
C)Aspergillus.
D)Mycoplasma.
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Edema
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Q1) The major pathologic or structural changes seen in the lungs with pulmonary edema include:
1) atelectasis.
2) bronchospasm.
3) high surface tension of alveolar fluids.
4) alveolar flooding.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient with pulmonary edema is cyanotic and complaining of difficulty breathing. What should be recommended by the respiratory therapist?
A) Provide supplemental oxygen.
B)Begin mechanical ventilation.
C)Have the patient use pursed-lip breathing.
D)Begin bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy.
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Embolism
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Q1) A pulmonary embolism causes which of the following major pathologic and structural changes in the lungs?
1) Alveolar consolidation
2) Mucosal edema
3) Alveolar atelectasis
4) Pleural friction rub
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The sudden onset of which of the following signs and symptoms indicate a pulmonary embolism:
1) wheezing.
2) coughing out blood-streaked sputum.
3) cyanosis.
4) sudden shortness of breath.
A)3, 4
B)1, 2
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 21: Flail Chest
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Q1) Your flail chest patient requires supplemental oxygen. What is the usual cause of hypoxemia in a flail chest patient?
A) Myocardial contusion
B)Hemorrhage
C)Pulmonary edema
D)Alveolar atelectasis
Q2) While assessing a patient who was involved in a serious car crash and hit his steering wheel, you notice that his left anterior chest wall caves in during inspiration. What could cause this?
A) Singultus
B)Flail chest segment
C)Pneumothorax
D)Cardiac tamponade
Q3) Causes of a flail chest include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) blast injury.
B)motor vehicle accident.
C)split sternum for open heart surgery.
D)fall from high altitude.
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23
Chapter 22: Pneumothorax
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Q1) Which of the following chest assessment findings would be expected in a patient with a tension pneumothorax?
A) Tracheal shift toward the pneumothorax
B)Dull percussion note
C)Tracheal shift away from the pneumothorax
D)Hyperresonant breath sounds
Q2) If the a patient has a pneumothorax, all of the following chest radiograph findings would be expected EXCEPT:
A) elevated hemidiaphragm.
B)lung collapse.
C)depressed hemidiaphragm.
D)atelectasis.
Q3) An iatrogenic pneumothorax may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
B)pleural biopsy.
C)subclavian vein cannulation.
D)endotracheal intubation.
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Chapter 23: Effusion and Empyema
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Q1) Which of the following are major causes of an exudative pleural effusion?
1) Empyema
2) Chylothorax
3) Pancreatitis
4) Peritoneal dialysis
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient has a pleural effusion from an unknown cause. A fluid sample has been taken for analysis. To help identify the cause of the effusion, all of the following tests should be performed EXCEPT:
A) specific gravity.
B)biochemical makeup.
C)cytologic examination.
D)check for bacteria.
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25
Chapter 24: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) The major pathologic and structural changes of the lungs found with kyphoscoliosis include:
1) mediastinal shift.
2) elevated diaphragms.
3) lung compression.
4) mucus accumulation.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which age group is most likely to develop idiopathic scoliosis?
A) Infants
B)Juveniles
C)Adolescents
D)Adults
Q3) Posterior curvature of the spine best describes:
A) kyphoscoliosis.
B)spina bifida.
C)scoliosis.
D)kyphosis.
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Chapter 25: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) Chest radiograph findings in a patient with ILD can include:
1) pleural effusion.
2) honeycombing.
3) cavity formation.
4) granulomas.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient with mild to moderate ILD has hypoxemia and will be given oxygen therapy. All of the following are possible causes of hypoxemia EXCEPT:
A) hypoventilation.
B)capillary shunting.
C)alveolar thickening.
D)fibrosis.
Q3) Generally, a patient with ILD will have a lung compliance that is:
A) higher than normal.
B)normal.
C)less than normal.
D)variable based on the etiology.
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Chapter 26: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) Malignant tumors:
1) invade surrounding tissues.
2) grow slowly.
3) cause necrosis.
4) push aside surrounding tissue.
A)1
B)4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3
Q2) Your patient has metastatic lung cancer that has been identified in several other locations. What is the best way to treat her?
A) Radiation therapy
B)Surgical removal of all known tumors
C)Chemotherapy
D)Needle aspiration of the tumors
Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) smoking tobacco.
B)smoking marijuana.
C)inhaling asbestos.
D)inhaling radon gas.
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Chapter 27: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Your patient has a prolonged case of ARDS. What will happen to his alveolar cells?
A) Multiplication of the type I cells
B)Influx of macrophages
C)Hyperplasia and swelling of the type II cells
D)Development of emphysema
Q2) The physician has decided to implement permissive hypercapnia with an ARDS patient receiving mechanical ventilation. What should be the pH goal with the patient?
A) <7.2
B)=7.2
C)7.35-7.45
D)>7.45
Q3) A chest radiograph finding indicative of ARDS is:
A) "ground-glass" appearance.
B)pleural effusion.
C)lung hyperinflation.
D)tracheal deviation.
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Chapter 28: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Q1) Under microscopic inspection, the skeletal muscle nerves of a Guillain-Barré patient show all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Hypertrophy
B)Edema
C)Inflammation
D)Demyelination
Q2) Your Guillain-Barré syndrome patient has autonomic nervous system dysfunction and should be monitored for all of the following:
1) tachycardia.
2) hypotension.
3) bradycardia.
4) fever.
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
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Chapter 29: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) If a patient with myasthenia gravis is given the drug edrophonium (Tensilon), what will happen?
A) Heart rate will increase.
B)Strength will improve for a short time.
C)There will be a long-term improvement in strength.
D)The patient will weaken for a short time.
Q2) Myasthenia gravis:
1) interferes with acetylcholine transmission.
2) causes weakness of voluntary muscles.
3) is an ascending paralysis starting in the legs.
4) is usually preceded by a viral infection.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q3) In a myasthenia gravis patient, what happens after a rest period?
A) There is no clinical change.
B)Strength decreases.
C)Muscle strength improves.
D)Ascending paralysis descends.
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Chapter 30: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) Signs and symptoms associated with obstructive sleep apnea include:
1) insomnia.
2) excessive daytime sleepiness.
3) hypothyroidism.
4) metabolic alkalosis.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A CPAP titration polysomnogram is performed to:
A) find the maximum CPAP level for the functional residual capacity.
B)determine the lowest possible CPAP level.
C)find the CPAP level to maintain an open airway.
D)determine the pressure needed for negative-pressure ventilation.
Q3) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is useful in the management of the patient with obstructive sleep apnea because it:
A) pushes air into and out of the lungs like a mechanical ventilator.
B)prevents airway collapse.
C)stretches the J receptors in the chest wall to stimulate breathing.
D)delivers a tidal volume breath to the patient.
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Chapter 31: Newborn and Early Childhood Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) Apnea of prematurity could be defined as:
1) respiratory pause causing bradycardia.
2) cycles of short breathing pauses followed by faster breathing.
3) no breathing for >20 seconds.
4) sudden apnea and death (crib death).
A)4
B)2
C)1, 3
D)3, 4
Q2) When a neonate has PPHN, what structure(s) does the blood flow through to bypass the lungs?
1) Ductus venosus
2) Foramen ovale
3) Hypogastric arteries
4) Ductus arteriosus
A)2
B)1, 3
C)2, 4
D)1, 2, 4
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Chapter 32: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) A neonate with MAS has hypoxemia. Which of the following can be a pulmonary effect of this?
A) Status asthmaticus
B)Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
C)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
D)Pulmonary fibrosis
Q2) If mechanical ventilation is needed to support a neonate with MAS, which of the following settings is especially important?
A) High positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) level
B)Long exhalation time
C)High humidity level
D)Give no more than 50% oxygen
Q3) Indications that a newborn has aspirated meconium include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) high Apgar score.
B)meconium in amniotic fluid.
C)newborn is not actively breathing.
D)meconium staining on skin.
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Chapter 33: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) Initially, TTN will have a clinical presentation similar to:
A) the early stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
B)the late stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
C)bronchial pneumonia.
D)meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS).
Q2) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with TTN include:
1) decreased removal of fluid by pulmonary lymphatics.
2) air trapping.
3) pleural effusion.
4) atelectasis.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q3) In the first few hours after birth, TTN manifests itself clinically as:
A) a restrictive pulmonary disorder.
B)an obstructive pulmonary disorder.
C)equally restrictive and obstructive disorder.
D)obstructive initially and restrictive later.
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Chapter 34: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Which of the following are associated with an increased risk of developing RDS?
1) Low birth weight infant
2) Prenatal asphyxia
3) Maternal bleeding
4) Second-born twin
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) What special environmental concerns are there with a neonate with RDS in order to avoid compromising its oxygenation?
A) Keep a normal body temperature
B)Shine bilirubin lights on the neonate
C)Keep the infant cool
D)Humidify the inhaled oxygen
Q3) The neonate with RDS would have a phosphatidylglycerol (PG) level that is A) present.
B)absent.
C)above normal.
D)below normal.
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Chapter 35: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) What pulmonary condition can be identified by a change in the point of maximum impulse (PMI)?
A) Pneumothorax
B)PIE
C)Pneumomediastinum
D)Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
Q2) When trapped gas causes alveolar overdistention and rupture, does where the gas initially go?
1) Both pleural spaces
2) Tissue sheaths surrounding airways and capillaries
3) Interlobular septa containing pulmonary veins
4) Pericardial sac
A)2, 3
B)1, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
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Chapter 36: Respiratory Syncytial Virus Infection
Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis
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Q1) Your patient with RSV is hypoxemic. What could cause this?
1) Atelectasis
2) Excessive airway fluid
3) Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
4) Consolidation
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following characteristics would make an adult at increased risk for a severe case of RSV?
1) Compromised immune system
2) History of asthma
3) Under 30 years of age
4) More than 65 years of age
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 4
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Chapter 37: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) All of the following methods or goals with mechanical ventilation have been used to help prevent the development of BPD, EXCEPT:
A) keep the PaCO<sub>2</sub> above 55 mm Hg.
B)low tidal volumes.
C)prevent the infant from triggering the ventilator.
D)high ventilator respiratory rate.
Q2) Which of the following "new" BPD criteria would indicate a severe case of the condition?
1) Needs > 30% oxygen upon discharge
2) Needs nasal CPAP at discharge
3) Breathing room air upon discharge
4) Needed supplemental oxygen for 35 days
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)2, 3, 4
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Chapter 38: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with CDH include:
1) fewer bronchial generations.
2) complete lung collapse.
3) atelectasis.
4) mediastinal shift.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient has a left-sided CDH. How would this manifest itself clinically?
A) A restrictive pulmonary disorder
B)An obstructive pulmonary disorder
C)Equally restrictive and obstructive disorder
D)A restrictive cardiac disorder
Q3) All of the following anatomic alterations may be found in a patient with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), EXCEPT:
A) lungs are compressed.
B)atelectasis.
C)hyperinflation.
D)complete lung collapse.
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Chapter 39: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) What is the main clinical risk facing a patient with epiglottitis?
A) Secretions blocking the trachea
B)The epiglottis will bleed.
C)Laryngeal inlet covered by the epiglottis
D)The vocal cords will spasm and close.
Q2) In evaluating a 16- month-old boy you find him to be in mild respiratory distress, without a fever, but with a barking-type cough. A lateral neck x-ray taken in the Emergency Department shows a "steeple point" narrowing of the trachea. Based on this information, what do you think is the boy's probable diagnosis?
A) Acute bronchitis
B)Epiglottitis
C)Bronchiolitis
D)LTB
Q3) The medication racemic epinephrine (Micro-Nefrin, Vaponefrin) is given to a patient with LTB because it:
A) is an effective bronchodilator.
B)causes mucosal vasoconstriction.
C)causes bradycardia.
D)has an appealing taste and smell.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Near Drowning
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Q1) The pulmonary effects of a near-drowning victim inhaling water include:
1) alveolar consolidation.
2) bronchospasm.
3) production of frothy, white secretions.
4) pleural effusion.
A)2, 3
B)1, 2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A wet drowning victim will have the following pulmonary function test finding:
A) increased Vt.
B)increased DLCO.
C)decreased VC.
D)increased TLC.
Q3) After an extended time underwater, a near drowning victim will most likely show: A) tachypnea.
B)normal respiratory rate.
C)bradypnea.
D)apnea.
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Chapter 41: Smoke Inhalation and Thermal Injuries
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Q1) The long term effects of a smoke inhalation injury are:
A) obstructive lung disease.
B)restrictive lung disease.
C)obstructive and restrictive lung disease.
D)neither, there is normally complete healing.
Q2) A patient who inhaled low water solubility gases (hydrogen chloride and phosgene) will have effects in what area(s)?
A) Distal airways and alveoli
B)Pulmonary vascular bed
C)Upper airway
D)Pulmonary lymphatic system
Q3) A throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, and impaired judgment are common clinical manifestations when the blood COHb is at what level?
A) 0% to 10%
B)10% 20%
C)20% to 30%
D)30% to 50%
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Chapter 42: Postoperative Atelectasis
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Q1) After surgery, your patient must lie supine in bed. Because of this, atelectasis is thought to have developed. What chest radiograph finding would confirm this?
A) Depression of the hemidiaphragms
B)Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE)
C)Increased density in both upper lobe areas
D)Increased density in both posterior lower lobe areas
Q2) Examples of the types of surgical procedures that often result in atelectasis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Open heart surgery
B)Craniotomy
C)Gallbladder removal
D)Splenectomy
Q3) Your patient has a tumor blocking the left mainstem bronchus. What additional factor would favor the development of atelectasis?
A) Breathing a nitric oxide mix (iNO)
B)Breathing a helium/oxygen mix (heliox)
C)Breathing a high percentage of oxygen
D)Breathing a low percentage of oxygen
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