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This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles and practices of research design and analysis across various disciplines. Students will explore different research methodologies, including qualitative, quantitative, and mixed methods approaches, and learn how to formulate research questions, develop hypotheses, and select appropriate methods for data collection and analysis. Topics include experimental and non-experimental designs, sampling strategies, reliability and validity, ethical considerations, and techniques for interpreting and presenting research findings. By the end of the course, students will be able to design robust research studies, critically evaluate existing research, and apply analytical tools to draw meaningful conclusions from data.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Research 8th Edition by Neil J. Salkind
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hannah assigns children to different teaching method groups and tests their math performance after six weeks. This is an example of what type of research?
A) descriptive
B) historical
C) experimental
D) uncontrolled
Answer: C
Q2) How many steps are included in the research process?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 9
Answer: C
Q3) How are research questions most often described?
A) arising within a laboratory setting
B) posed after important factors are identified
C) may arise from our everyday life experiences
D) always answered if we follow a scientific method of inquiry
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a null hypothesis?
A) There is a relationship between the season of the year and a person's affect.
B) H<sub>o</sub>: X<sub>A</sub> X<sub>B</sub>
C) There is a difference in symptoms between Group A and Group B.
D) H<sub>o</sub>: µ<sub>A</sub> = µ<sub>B</sub>
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is another term for dependent variable?
A) interacting variable
B) predictor variable
C) criterion variable
D) restricting variable
Answer: C
Q3) Factorial designs are experiments that can best be defined by which of these statements?
A) have one independent variable
B) have one dependent variable
C) have more than one independent variable
D) are tested on math problems
Answer: C
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Q1) Which is NOT a hint to help you write your literature review?
A) create a unified theme
B) use a system to organize your materials
C) make sure it is testable
D) work from an outline
Answer: C
Q2) A research abstract contains which of the following?
A) a one-paragraph summary of a journal article
B) a list of sources from an online index
C) a complicated idea
D) a type of painting
Answer: A
Q3) What are the most important primary sources of information about a topic?
A) newspapers
B) magazines
C) journals
D) books
Answer: C
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Q1) Discuss the primary shortcomings of the Tuskegee Syphilis Study and what ethical guidelines are in place now to prevent such ethical lapses in the future. Is it enough?
Q2) What does the ethical principle of "sharing benefits" mean?
A) all participants in the same study should receive an equal share of the benefits or subject payments
B) all those who belong to the population being studied will share equally from the benefits the study produces
C) the results of studies must be shared with the public so society may benefit from the increased knowledge
D) all groups involved in a study should eventually be given an opportunity to receive any treatments that were found to be effective in the study
Q3) Forcing someone to participate in a study is an example of what ethical issue/concern?
A) protection from harm
B) maintenance of privacy
C) informed consent
D) coercion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does increasing the number of people in a sample decrease the sampling error?
Q2) What does generalizability refers to?
A) results that may be applied to different populations in different settings
B) results that apply only to the sample studied
C) convenience sampling
D) using a table of random numbers
Q3) Sampling error can be defined by which of the following statements?
A) increased by increasing sample size
B) larger as the diversity of sample values becomes smaller
C) can be minimized by using simple random sampling
D) becomes equal to zero over many samples
Q4) Why is generalizability the key to a successful study?
Q5) A table of random numbers _________________________________.
A) is used in nonprobability sampling methods
B) can be used to create a stratified sample
C) works well with convenience sampling
D) is a list of ordered numbers from which the researcher closes his eyes and randomly points until he obtains the desired number for his sample
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Q6) Explain how to use a table of random numbers.
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Q1) Two trained professionals observe the behavior of children in a classroom. They each rate observed behaviors using the same form and the number of items that were rated the same is
Calculated. This is an example of which type of reliability?
A) parallel reliability
B) test-retest reliability
C) inter-rater reliability
D) none of the above
Q2) _________________ describes a measure used to compare two different tests with the same group of participants to see how closely correlated the two sets of scores are with each other.
A) inter-rater reliability
B) test-retest reliability
C) parallel-forms reliability
D) internal consistency
Q3) What is the difference between reliability and validity?
Q4) Why is the ratio level of measurement considered the most precise?
Q5) Name four ways to increase reliability.
Q6) Why are repeated scores on most variables always different from one another?
Q7) What is the difference between continuous and discrete variables?
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Q1) Which type of test assumes that a person's responses reveal a (perhaps unconscious) world view which can be interpreted by an expert?
A) Likert scales
B) Thurstone scales
C) achievement tests
D) projective tests
Q2) What makes a good questionnaire?
Q3) What is the computed number for the proportion of test takers who get an item correct?
A) item analysis
B) discrimination index
C) difficulty index
D) attitude index
Q4) Which of the following would be considered a poor questionnaire question?
A) Do you ever cheat on exams?
B) Do you often feel anxious about taking a test?
C) Your boss says he will give you a raise, but you don't believe him, do you?
D) How often do you use cigarettes?
Q5) What are the five basic assumptions when using a questionnaire?
Q6) What are some reasons why we use tests?
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a step in data collection?
A) the collection of data
B) the designation of a coding strategy
C) the construction of a data collection form
D) the selection of a sample
Q2) What is a measure of central tendency?
Q3) When comparing the following two distributions, which of the following statements is true? Data Set #1: 10, 15, 20, 25, 30
Data Set #2: 16, 18, 20, 22, 24
A) Data Set #1 has a smaller mean than Data Set #2.
B) Data Set #1 has a larger standard deviation than Data Set #2.
C) Both data sets have the same range.
D) The mean is larger than the median in both data sets.
Q4) Why is the sum of the deviation about the mean always 0?
Q5) What is the difference between the mean, median, and mode?
Q6) What measure would be used to compute the average gender of subjects?
A) mean
B) mode
C) median
D) standard deviation

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Q1) Why would you do a meta-analytic study?
Q2) The critical value decreases when_______________________________.
A) the sample size increases
B) the sample size decreases
C) the sample is heterogeneous
D) the sample is homogeneous
Q3) What is the difference between statistical significance and meaningfulness? Which is more important?
Q4) Explain what t<sub>120 </sub>= 2.00, p < .05 means.
Q5) The first step for conducting a meta-analysis is ____________.
A) decide on an appropriate statistical software package
B) develop a system to code the various dimensions of the study
C) collect as many studies as possible or at least a representative group
D) determine the most appropriate type of descriptive or correlational technique to examine the outcomes of the studies as a whole
Q6) What is the difference between descriptive and inferential statistics?
Q7) What are the steps involved in testing a hypothesis?
Q8) What factors decrease the likelihood of making a Type II error?
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Q1) Which technique establishes validity in survey research?
A) choosing large sample sizes
B) interviewing respondents twice
C) using the proper statistical tests
D) peer interview
Q2) "At what age did you start smoking?" is an example of:
A) A conventional question.
B) An open-ended question.
C) A structured question.
D) Interviewer bias subtly changing the response.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended interview question?
A) Why did you vote for Gerald Ford?
B) Did you vote for Gerald Ford?
C) What were the reasons for your decision?
D) What were the strengths of Gerald Ford's presidency?
Q4) What would a correlation of 0.70 be considered?
A) moderate
B) weak
C) strong
D) very strong
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Q1) What is the first step in conducting historical research?
A) evaluating authenticity and accuracy of evidence
B) formulating a hypothesis
C) defining a topic or problem
D) integrating data
Q2) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of ethnographic research?
A) Ethnographers tend to examine the group or phenomenon as a whole, rather than the sum of its parts.
B) Ethnographers often use participant observation.
C) Ethnographers develop a research question prior to initiating their research methods just as empirical researchers do.
D) Ethnography is typically very time-consuming.
Q3) What is another term for accuracy?
A) authenticity
B) secondary
C) internal criticism
D) validity
Q4) Why is it important to understand the history of a phenomenon?
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Q5) Describe the difference between direct and participant observation.
Q6) What are the differences between primary and secondary sources?
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Q1) What term is synonymous with internal validity?
A) generalizability
B) accuracy
C) reliability
D) control
Q2) Which of the following threats to external validity happens when subjects receive unintended treatments?
A) reactive arrangements
B) multiple treatment interference
C) experimenter effects
D) pretest sensitization
Q3) Susan has twelve subjects drop out of her study. Which threat to internal validity must she consider?
A) mortality
B) history
C) selection
D) randomization
Q4) Choose one threat to internal validity, define and describe it then discuss what a researcher can do to avoid or minimize it.
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Q1) The term nonequivalent in "nonequivalent control group design" refers to the nonequivalence of __________________________.
A) sample size
B) pretesting procedures
C) groups before the experiment begins
D) groups after the experiment has ended
Q2) If it is not possible to randomize or administer a pretest, what is the best choice of design?
A) Analysis of Covariance (ANCOVA)
B) static group design
C) nonequivalent control group design
D) Solomon four-group design
Q3) Single-subject designs have roots in which of the following views of development?
A) Piagetian
B) behavioral
C) organismic
D) social learning
Q4) What is the difference between ABA and ABAB design?
Q5) Discuss differences between longitudinal and cross sectional methods.
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Q1) When selecting a dependent variable, you should consider all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the measure has been used before.
B) the validity of the measure has been established.
C) the measure comes with testing forms.
D) norms are available, when applicable.
Q2) In a research proposal, which comes last?
A) introduction
B) literature review
C) implications and limitations
D) method
Q3) Which of the following elements are NOT used in the example showing how to estimate the time it will take to complete the research?
A) better than planned
B) just as planned
C) not as well as planned
D) not well at all
Q4) What should you look for when evaluating the method section of a research paper?
Q5) What is an effective way of judging how much time your proposal will take?
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Q6) What should you look for when evaluating the hypothesis of a research paper?
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Q1) In what order are multiple authors listed on a manuscript?
A) alphabetically
B) order of contribution
C) alphabetically by institution
D) ranked by number of publications
Q2) Which section of the manuscript contains information on the instrumentation used?
A) introduction
B) method
C) results
D) discussion
Q3) List the parts of a prepared manuscript, in order.
Q4) How many words in length should your abstract be?
A) 50
B) 120
C) 300
D) There is no limit.
Q5) What information is usually included in a discussion section?
Q6) What are some subsections that may be found in the methods section?
Q7) What are the differences between the results and discussion sections?
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