Reproductive Health Nursing Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care and management of individuals and families across the reproductive lifespan. This course covers the principles of reproductive anatomy and physiology, family planning, preconception and prenatal care, safe childbirth practices, postpartum care, and the management of reproductive health issues. Students will examine factors affecting reproductive health, including cultural, ethical, and legal considerations, and develop skills to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate nursing care for diverse populations. Emphasis is placed on health education, counseling, disease prevention, and promotion of sexual and reproductive well-being within the context of holistic nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168 Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements highlights the nurse's role as a researcher?
A) Reading peer-reviewed journal articles
B) Working as a member of the interdisciplinary team to provide patient care
C) Helping patient to obtain home care postdischarge from the hospital
D) Delegating tasks to unlicensed personnel to allow for more teaching time with patients
Answer: A
Q2) In consideration of the historic evolution of maternity care, which treatment options were used over the past century? (Select all that apply.)
A) During the nineteenth century, women of privilege were delivered by midwives in a hospital setting.
B) Granny midwives received their training through a period of apprenticeship.
C) The recognition of improved obstetric outcomes was related to increased usage of hygienic practices.
D) A shift to hospital-based births occurred as a result of medical equipment designed to facilitate birth.
E) The use of chloroform by midwives led to decreased pain during birth.
Answer: B, C, D
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Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2150
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning a teaching session for staff on ethical theories. Which situation best reflects the Deontologic theory?
A) Approving a physician-assisted suicide
B) Supporting the transplantation of fetal tissue and organs
C) Using experimental medications for the treatment of AIDS
D) Initiating resuscitative measures on a 90-year-old patient with terminal cancer
Answer: D
Q2) A patient arrives to the clinic 2 hours late for her prenatal appointment. This is the third time she has been late. What is the nurse's best action in response to this patient's tardiness?
A) Ask the patient if she has a way to tell the time.
B) Ask the patient if she is deliberately being late for her appointments.
C) Determine if the patient wants this baby and if this is her way of acting out.
D) Determine if the patient arrives after the start time for other types of appointments.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2151
Sample Questions
Q1) If a woman's menstrual cycle began on June 2, on which date should ovulation mostly likely have occurred?
A) June 10
B) June 16
C) June 29
D) July 5
Answer: B
Q2) Which hormonal effect is noted during the menstrual cycle?
A) Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion rise during the ovulatory phase.
B) A negative feedback mechanism is exhibited by the anterior pituitary gland and ovaries.
C) The posterior pituitary gland secretes LH.
D) Estrogen secretion enhances FSH secretion.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2152
Sample Questions
Q1) People who have two copies of the same abnormal autosomal dominant gene are generally
A) mildly affected with the disorder.
B) infertile and unable to transmit the gene.
C) carriers of the trait but not affected with the disorder.
D) more severely affected by the disorder than people with one copy of the gene.
Q2) The clinic nurse is reviewing charts on prenatal patients. Which patient histories indicate that a referral to a genetic counselor is warranted? (Select all that apply.)
A) A father who is aged 35
B) A patient having a first baby at age 30
C) A family history of unexplained stillbirths
D) A patient with a family history of birth defects
E) A patient who is a carrier of an X-linked disorder
Q3) Which information should the nurse include when discussing the prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders with an expectant couple?
A) The diagnosis may be slow and could be inconclusive.
B) A comprehensive evaluation will result in an accurate diagnosis.
C) Common disorders can be quickly diagnosed through blood tests.
D) Diagnosis can be obtained promptly through most hospital laboratories.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2153
Sample Questions
Q1) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vernix caseosa
B) Lanugo
C) Port wine stain
D) Brown fat
E) Eyebrows or head hair
Q2) One of the assessments performed in the birth room is checking the umbilical cord for blood vessels. Which finding is considered to be within normal limits?
A) One artery and one vein
B) Two veins and one artery
C) Two arteries and one vein
D) Two arteries and two veins
Q3) A pregnant patient asks the nurse how her baby gets oxygen to breathe. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Oxygen-rich blood is delivered through the umbilical vein to the baby."
B) "Take lots of deep breaths because the baby gets all of its oxygen from you."
C) "You don't need to be concerned about your baby getting enough oxygen."
D) "The baby's lungs are not mature enough to actually breathe, so don't worry."
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2154
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these findings would indicate a potential complication related to renal function during pregnancy?
A) Increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
B) Increase in serum creatinine level
C) Decrease in blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Mild proteinuria
Q2) An expected change during pregnancy is a darkly pigmented vertical midabdominal line. The nurse recognizes this alteration as A) epulis.
B) linea nigra.
C) melasma.
D) striae gravidarum.
Q3) Which situation best describes a man trying on fathering behaviors?
A) Reading books on newborn care
B) Spending more time with his siblings
C) Coaching a little league baseball team
D) Exhibiting physical symptoms related to pregnancy
Q4) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2155
Sample Questions
Q1) Which advice to the patient is one of the most effective methods for preventing venous stasis?
A) Sit with the legs crossed.
B) Rest often with the feet elevated.
C) Sleep with the foot of the bed elevated.
D) Wear elastic stockings in the afternoon.
Q2) Calculate the estimated date of birth (EDD) in October using Nägele's rule for a patient whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on January 1. Record your answer as a whole number. _______
Q3) The prenatal nurse educator is teaching couples the technique of applying sacral pressure during labor. Which should be included in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) The technique can be combined with heat to the area.
B) A jiggling motion should be used while applying the pressure.
C) Tennis balls may be used to apply the pressure to the sacral area.
D) The pressure against the sacrum should be intermittent during the contraction.
E) The hand may be moved slowly or remain positioned directly over the sacrum.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2156
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient postdelivery is concerned about getting back to her prepregnancy weight as soon as possible. She had only gained 15 lb during her pregnancy. Which assessment factor would be of concern at her 6-week postpartum checkup?
A) Patient has lost 30 lb during the 6-week period prior to her scheduled checkup. B) Patient states that she is eating healthy and limiting intake of processed foods. C) Patient relates increased consumption of fruits and vegetables in her diet postbirth. D) Patient has resumed her usual exercise pattern of walking around the neighborhood for 10 minutes each night.
Q2) Changes in the diet of the pregnant patient who has phenylketonuria would include
A) adding foods high in vitamin C.
B) eliminating drinks containing aspartame.
C) restricting protein intake to <20 g a day.
D) increasing caloric intake to at least 1800 cal/day.
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2157
Sample Questions
Q1) What point in the pregnancy is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) No difference in accuracy among the trimesters
Q2) A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) based on genetic family history. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Prostaglandin suppository
C) RhoGAM if the patient is Rh-negative
D) Betamethasone
Q3) Which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing is most important to expectant parents?
A) Safety of the fetus
B) Duration of the test
C) Cost of the procedure
D) Physical discomfort caused by the procedure
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Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2158
Sample Questions
Q1) A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on which of the following?
A) Hemorrhage is the primary concern.
B) She will be unable to conceive in the future.
C) Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment.
D) A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception.
Q2) Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
A) Cardiomyopathy
B) Mitral valve prolapse
C) Rheumatic heart disease
D) Congenital heart disease
Q3) Which factor is most important in diminishing maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes?
A) Evaluation of retinopathy by an ophthalmologist
B) The patient's stable emotional and psychological status
C) Degree of glycemic control before and during the pregnancy
D) Total protein excretion and creatinine clearance within normal limits
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Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2159
Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) should the nurse expect to assess in affected neonates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hydrocephaly
B) Low activity
C) Epicanthal folds
D) Short palpebral fissures
E) Flat midface, with a low nasal bridge
Q2) Which of the following is an example of healthy grieving?
A) The mother exhibits an absence of crying or expression of feelings.
B) The parents do not mention the baby in conversation with family members.
C) The mother asks that the baby be taken away from the delivery area quickly.
D) While holding the baby, the mother says to her husband, "He has your eyes and nose."
Q3) Which action is the most appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected defect at birth?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
C) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
D) Explain the defect and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2160
Sample Questions
Q1) The examiner indicates to the labor nurse that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position. To facilitate the labor process, how will the nurse position the laboring patient?
A) On her back
B) On her left side
C) On her right side
D) On her hands and knees
Q2) Which physiologic event is the key indicator of the commencement of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
Q3) A laboring patient states to the nurse, "I have to push!" What is the next nursing action?
A) Contact the health care provider.
B) Examine the patient's cervix for dilation.
C) Review with her how to bear down with contractions.
D) Ask her partner to support her head with each push.
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14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a patient for a cesarean birth scheduled to be performed under general anesthesia. Which should the nurse plan to administer, if ordered by the health care provider, to prevent aspiration of gastric contents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Citric acid (Bicitra)
B) Ranitidine (Zantac)
C) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
D) Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
E) Promethazine (Phenergan)
Q2) The health care provider's prescription reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 25 mg IV stat. The medication vial reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 50 mg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer to one decimal point. _____ mL
Q3) The nurse is administering fentanyl (Sublimaze) to a patient in labor. The health care provider's prescription reads fentanyl (Sublimaze), 100 mcg IV stat. The medication vial reads fentanyl (Sublimaze), 50 mcg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ mL
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2162
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that fetal scalp stimulation may be prescribed to evaluate the response of the fetus to tactile stimulation. Which conditions contraindicate the use of fetal scalp stimulation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Post-term fetus
B) Maternal fever
C) Placenta previa
D) Induction of labor
E) Prolonged rupture of membranes
Q2) In which situation would a baseline fetal heart rate of 160 to 170 bpm be considered a normal finding?
A) The fetus is at 30 weeks of gestation.
B) The mother has a history of fast labors.
C) The mother has been given an epidural block.
D) The mother has mild preeclampsia but is not in labor.
Q3) When a pattern of variable decelerations occur, the nurse should immediately
A) administer OS1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/minute.
B) place a wedge under the right hip.
C) increase the IV fluids to 150 mL/hour.
D) position patient in a knee-chest position.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to perform Leopold's maneuvers. Please select the rationale for the consistent use of these maneuvers by obstetric providers?
A) To determine the status of the membranes
B) To determine cervical dilation and effacement
C) To determine the best location to assess the fetal heart rate
D) To determine whether the fetus is in the posterior position
Q2) A patient who is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion for the augmentation of labor is experiencing a contraction pattern of more than eight contractions in a 10-minute period. Which intervention would be a priority?
A) Increase rate of Pitocin infusion to help spread out contraction pattern.
B) Place oxygen on patient at 8 to 10 L/minute via face mask and turn patient to left side.
C) Stop Pitocin infusion.
D) Call physician to obtain an order for initiation of magnesium sulfate.
Q3) A maternal indication for the use of vacuum extraction is
A) a wide pelvic outlet.
B) maternal exhaustion.
C) a history of rapid deliveries.
D) failure to progress past 0 station.
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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2164
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient is most at risk for a uterine rupture?
A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision
B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth
C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births
D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant
Q2) A patient with polyhydramnios is admitted to a labor-birth-recovery-postpartum (LDRP) suite. Her membranes rupture and the fluid is clear and odorless; however, the fetal heart monitor indicates bradycardia and variable decelerations. Which action should be taken next?
A) Perform Leopold maneuvers.
B) Perform a vaginal examination.
C) Apply warm saline soaks to the vagina.
D) Place the patient in a high Fowler position.
Q3) Which factor should alert the nurse to the potential for a prolapsed umbilical cord?
A) Oligohydramnios
B) Pregnancy at 38 weeks of gestation
C) Presenting part at a station of -3
D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2165
Sample Questions
Q1) A new father calls the nurse's station stating that his wife, who delivered last week, is happy one minute and crying the next. He states, "She was never like this before the baby was born." How should the nurse best respond?
A) Reassure him that this behavior is normal.
B) Advise him to get immediate psychological help for her.
C) Tell him to ignore the mood swings because they will go away.
D) Instruct him in the signs, symptoms, and duration of postpartum blues.
Q2) Which description best explains the term reciprocal attachment behavior?
A) Behavior during the sensitive period when the infant is in the quiet alert stage
B) Positive feedback that the infant exhibits toward parents during the attachment process
C) Unidirectional behavior exhibited by the infant, initiated and enhanced by eye contact
D) Behavior by the infant during the sensitive period to elicit feelings of "falling in love" from the parents
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by a postpartum patient indicates that further teaching regarding thrombus formation is unnecessary?
A) "I'll keep my legs elevated with pillows."
B) "I'll sit in my rocking chair most of the time."
C) "I'll stay in bed for the first 3 days after my baby is born."
D) "I'll put my support stockings on every morning before rising."
Q2) To evaluate the desired response of methylergonovine (Methergine), the nurse would assess the patient's
A) uterine tone.
B) pain level.
C) blood pressure.
D) last voiding.
Q3) The nurse should expect medical intervention for subinvolution to include
A) oral fluids to 3000 mL/day.
B) intravenous fluid and blood replacement.
C) oxytocin intravenous infusion for 8 hours.
D) oral methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) for 48 hours.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning to conduct the initial assessment of a full-term newborn. Included in the plan is providing a neutral thermal environment. To accomplish this plan, what is the desired environmental temperature to conduct the assessment?
A) 24 to 27°C (75.2 to 80.6°F)
B) 28 to 31.5°C (82.4 to 88.7°F)
C) 32 to 33.5°C (89.6 to 92.3°F)
D) 34 to 37.5°C (93.2 to 99.5°F)
Q2) During the first few minutes after birth, which physiologic change occurs in the newborn as a response to vascular pressure changes in increased oxygen levels?
A) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B) Decreased systemic resistance
C) Decreased pressure in the left heart
D) Dilation of pulmonary vessels
Q3) Which infant has the lowest risk of developing high levels of bilirubin?
A) The infant who developed a cephalohematoma
B) The infant who was bruised during a difficult birth
C) The infant who uses brown fat to maintain temperature
D) The infant who is breastfed during the first hour of life
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To differentiate between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma in a newborn, the nurse would consider the following clinical information. (Select all that apply.)
A) These are both normal presentations because of the birth process and will resolve within 24 to 48 hours.
B) Cephalohematoma manifests as a localized area of swelling as compared with caput succedaneum, which appears as a general swelling of the head.
C) A cephalohematoma can develop several hours or days after the birth event, whereas caput succedaneum is noted shortly before or immediately after the birth event.
D) Edema that crosses suture lines is observed with caput succedaneum.
E) With a cephalohematoma, bleeding occurs between the bone and skull.
Q2) Which clinical findings are early signs of hypoglycemia in the newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Jitteriness
B) Poor feeding
C) Respiratory difficulty
D) An increase in temperature
E) A capillary refill of 2 seconds
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22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching new parents how to avoid and treat newborn diaper rash. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Keep the diaper area clean and dry.
B) Do not use talc-based powders in the diaper area.
C) Cleanse the diaper area with a scrubbing motion.
D) Apply a thick layer of zinc oxide to prevent further outbreaks.
E) Remove the diaper and expose the perineum to warm air if a rash develops.
Q2) Most newborns receive a prophylactic injection of vitamin K soon after birth. Which site is optimal for the newborn?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Gluteal muscle
C) Rectus femoris muscle
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
Q3) Which intervention should be included in the home care of a high-risk infant?
A) Feeding the infant on a strict schedule
B) Keeping the infant in the supine or prone position
C) Providing continued respiratory support and oxygen
D) Cleaning the umbilical cord several times daily with alcohol
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2170
Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse explain mild supply and demand when responding to the question, "Will I produce enough milk for my baby as she grows and needs more milk at each feeding?"
A) Early addition of baby food will meet the infant's needs.
B) The breast milk will gradually become richer to supply additional calories.
C) As the infant requires more milk, feedings can be supplemented with cow's milk.
D) The mother's milk supply will increase as the infant demands more at each feeding.
Q2) A mother is attempting to breastfeed her infant in the hospital setting. The infant is sleepy and displays some audible swallowing, the maternal nipples are flat, and the breasts are soft. The nurse has attempted to teach the mother positioning on one side, and now the mother wants to place the infant to the breast on the other side. Based on LATCH scores, what score would the nurse assign to this feeding session?
A) 10 and document findings in the chart.
B) 6 and further teach and assist the mother in feeding activities.
C) 5 and tell the mother to discontinue feeding attempts at this time because the infant is too sleepy.
D) 8 and no further assistance is needed for feeding.
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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational
Age and Development
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because late preterm infants are more stable than early preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these infants are at increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Cardiac distress
E) Problems with thermoregulation
Q2) A characteristic of a post-term infant who weighs 7 lb, 12 oz, and who lost weight in utero, is
A) soft and supple skin.
B) a hematocrit level of 55%.
C) lack of subcutaneous fat.
D) an abundance of vernix caseosa.
Q3) Following a traumatic birth of a 10-lb infant, the nurse should evaluate
A) gestational age status.
B) flexion of both upper extremities.
C) infant's percentile on growth chart.
D) blood sugar to detect hyperglycemia.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
Q2) In an infant with cyanotic cardiac anomaly, the nurse should expect to see
A) feedings taken eagerly.
B) a consistent and rapid weight gain.
C) a decrease in the heart rate with activity.
D) little to no improvement in color with oxygen administration.
Q3) The nurse notes that the infant has been feeding poorly over the last 24 hours. The nurse should immediately assess for other signs of A) hyperglycemia.
B) neonatal infection.
C) hemolytic anemia.
D) increased bilirubin levels.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Family Planning
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major difference between the diaphragm and the cervical cap is that the diaphragm
A) is more effective.
B) requires spermicide.
C) applies pressure on the urethra.
D) has no contribution to toxic shock syndrome.
Q2) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?
A) Requires extensive education to use
B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use
C) Costs the least
D) Is permanent
Q3) When instructing a patient in the use of spermicidal foam or gel, it is important to include the information that
A) effectiveness is about 85%.
B) douching should be avoided for at least 6 hours.
C) it should be inserted 1 to 2 hours before intercourse.
D) one application is effective for several hours.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2174
Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived.
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
Q2) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q3) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is
A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 49, confides in the nurse that she has started experiencing pain with intercourse. The patient asks, "Is there anything I can do about this?" The nurse's best response is
A) "No, it is part of the aging process."
B) "Water-soluble vaginal lubricants may provide relief."
C) "You need to be evaluated for a sexually transmitted disease."
D) "You may have vaginal scar tissue that is producing the discomfort."
Q2) Which are the most common sites of breast cancer metastasis?
A) Kidneys
B) Bones and liver
C) Heart and blood vessels
D) Skin
Q3) Which patient is most likely to develop osteoporosis?
A) A 50-year-old patient on estrogen therapy
B) A 55-year-old patient with a sedentary lifestyle
C) A 65-year-old patient who walks 2 miles each day
D) A 60-year-old patient who takes supplemental calcium
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