Reproductive Health Nursing Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing explores the principles and practices involved in promoting and maintaining the reproductive health of individuals and families across the lifespan. The course covers topics such as human reproductive anatomy and physiology, family planning, preconception care, pregnancy, childbirth, postpartum, and neonatal care, as well as reproductive tract infections, sexually transmitted infections, infertility, menopause, and ethical and legal aspects related to reproductive healthcare. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based nursing interventions, cultural competency, patient education, and advocacy to support the diverse reproductive health needs of communities.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care in Canada 1st Edition by Shannon E. Perry
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55 Chapters
1438 Verified Questions
1438 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1703 Page 2
Chapter 1: Contemporary Perinatal Nursing in Canada
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33731
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a doula?
A) Advanced practice labour and delivery nurse
B) A trained and experienced female labour attendant
C) Clinical nurse specialist in neonatal and postpartum care
D) Leader of a multidisciplinary, intrapartum health care team
Answer: B
Q2) Which trend has a positive impact on the infant mortality rate?
A) Delayed second-stage pushing is now discouraged in labour.
B) Episiotomy rates are increasing.
C) Midwives perform more episiotomies than physicians.
D) Newborn infants remain with the mother and are encouraged to breastfeed.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the term used to describe legal and professional responsibility for maintaining standards of practice?
A) Collegiality
B) Ethics
C) Evaluation
D) Accountability
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Family and Culture
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33732
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be aware that the criteria used to make decisions and solve problems within families are based primarily on which of the following?
A) Rituals and customs
B) Values and beliefs
C) Boundaries and channels
D) Socialization processes
Answer: B
Q2) Which term describes the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society?
A) Acculturation
B) Assimilation
C) Ethnocentrism
D) Cultural relativism
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Community Care
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33733
Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation would be considered safe by a nurse who is making a home visit?
A) A group of teens is sitting on the stairs in front of the patient's apartment.
B) Parking is only possible 3 blocks from the patient's house.
C) The family dog is on a chain in the front yard.
D) The door of the home is open when the nurse arrives.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is implementing which level of health promotion when providing various methods of health screening for early detection of disease?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Primordial
Answer: B
Q3) Which health care service represents an example of tertiary level prevention?
A) Stress management seminars
B) Childbirth education classes for single parents
C) A breast self-examination (BSE) pamphlet and teaching
D) A premenstrual syndrome (PMS) support group
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Health Promotion
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should nurses be aware of concerning the use and abuse of legal drugs or substances?
A) Although cigarette smoking causes a number of health problems, it has little direct effect on maternity-related health.
B) About 25% of women ages 18 to 24 report frequent excessive alcohol consumption.
C) Coffee is a stimulant that can interrupt body functions and has been related to birth defects.
D) Prescription psychotherapeutic drugs taken by the mother do not affect the fetus; otherwise, they would not have been prescribed.
Q2) The use of which of the following during pregnancy causes vasoconstriction and decreased placental perfusion,resulting in maternal and neonatal complications?
A) Alcohol
B) Caffeine
C) Tobacco
D) Vitamin A
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Chapter 5: Health Assessment
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33735
Sample Questions
Q1) As a girl progresses through development,she may be at risk for a number of age-related conditions.While preparing a 21-year-old patient for her first adult physical examination and Papanicolaou (Pap)test,the nurse is aware of excessive shyness.The young woman states that she will not remove her bra because "there is something wrong with my breasts; one is way bigger." What is the best response by the nurse in this situation?
A) "Please reschedule your appointment until you are more prepared."
B) "It is okay; the provider will not do a breast examination."
C) "I will explain normal growth and breast development to you."
D) "That is unfortunate; this must be very stressful for you."
Q2) Diethylstilbestrol (DES)was used between 1938 and 1971 for pregnant women in order to increase their chances of having a successful pregnancy.Which of the following groups has an increased risk of noncancerous epididymal cysts?
A) DES sons
B) DES daughters
C) DES granddaughters
D) Women who took DES while pregnant
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Reproductive Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33736
Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses should be aware of which of the following statements in relation to endometriosis?
A) It is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial tissue inside the uterus.
B) It is found more often in Black women than in White or Asian women.
C) It may worsen with repeated cycles or remain asymptomatic and disappear after menopause.
D) It is unlikely to affect sexual intercourse or fertility.
Q2) Which of the following should the nurse explain when providing education regarding breast care and fibrocystic changes in breasts?
A) Fibrocystic changes are a disease of the milk ducts and glands in the breasts.
B) Fibrocystic changes are a premalignant disorder characterized by lumps found in the breast tissue.
C) Fibrocystic changes describe lumpiness with pain and tenderness in the breast tissue of healthy women during menstrual cycles.
D) Fibrocystic changes include lumpiness accompanied by tenderness after menses.
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8
Chapter 7: Infertility, contraception, and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33737
Sample Questions
Q1) A couple is trying to cope with an infertility problem.They want to know what they can do to preserve their emotional equilibrium.What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
A) "Tell your friends and family so they can help you."
B) "Talk only to other friends who are infertile because only they can help."
C) "Get involved with a support group. I'll give you some names."
D) "Start adoption proceedings immediately because it is a lengthy process."
Q2) A couple comes in for an infertility workup,having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years.The woman,37,has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy.The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and underwent a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago.The man has had two normal semen analyses,but the sperm seem to be clumped together.What additional test is needed?
A) Testicular biopsy
B) Antisperm antibodies
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level
D) Examination for testicular infection
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9
Chapter 8: Preconception, genetics, conception, and Fetal Development
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33738
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman's cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly.The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development.Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "We don't really know when such defects occur."
B) "It depends on what caused the defect."
C) "They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development."
D) "They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development."
Q2) Which of the following is a key finding from the Human Genome Project?
A) Approximately 20,000 to 25,000 genes make up the genome.
B) All human beings are 95.9% identical at the DNA level.
C) Human genes produce only one protein per gene; other mammals produce three proteins per gene.
D) Single gene testing will become a standardized test for all pregnant patients in the future.
Q3) What should the nurse be aware of with regard to chromosome abnormalities?
A) They occur in approximately 10% of newborns.
B) Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss.
C) Down syndrome is a result of an abnormal chromosome structure.
D) Unbalanced translocation results in a mild abnormality that the child will outgrow.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about a condition of pregnancy is accurate?
A) Insufficient salivation (ptyalism) is caused by increases in estrogen.
B) Acid indigestion (pyrosis) begins early but declines throughout pregnancy.
C) Hyperthyroidism often develops (temporarily) because hormone production increases.
D) Nausea and vomiting rarely have harmful effects on the fetus and may be beneficial.
Q2) The nurse caring for the pregnant patient must understand that the hormone essential for maintaining pregnancy is which of the following?
A) Estrogen
B) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
C) Oxytocin
D) Progesterone
Q3) What is the term given to a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses)reaching the stage of fetal viability?
A) Primipara
B) Primigravida
C) Multipara
D) Nulligravida
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Chapter 10: Nursing Care During Pregnancy
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33740
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman at 10 weeks of gestation jogs three or four times per week.She is concerned about the effect of exercise on the fetus.How should the nurse respond?
A) "You don't need to modify your exercising at any time during your pregnancy."
B) "Stop exercising, because it will harm the fetus."
C) "You may find that you need to modify your exercise later in your pregnancy."
D) "Jogging is too hard on your joints; switch to walking now."
Q2) What represents a typical progression through the phases of a woman's establishing a relationship with the fetus?
A) Accepts the fetus as distinct from herself-accepts the biological fact of pregnancy-has a feeling of caring and responsibility
B) Fantasizes about the child's gender and personality-views the child as part of herself-becomes introspective
C) Views the child as part of herself-has feelings of well-being-accepts the biological fact of pregnancy
D) "I am pregnant."- "I am going to have a baby."-"I am going to be a mother."
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33741
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman's diet consists almost entirely of whole-grain breads and cereals,fruits,and vegetables.The nurse would be most concerned about this woman's intake of which of the following?
A) Calcium
B) Protein
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Folic acid
Q2) A 22-year-old woman pregnant with a single fetus has a preconception body mass index (BMI)of 24.When she was seen in the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation,she had gained 2 kg since conception.How would the nurse interpret this?
A) This weight gain indicates gestational hypertension.
B) This weight gain indicates that the woman's infant is at risk for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
C) This weight gain cannot be evaluated until the woman has been observed for several more weeks.
D) The woman's weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy.
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Chapter 12: Pregnancy Risk Factors and Assessment:
Maternal and Fetal
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33742
Sample Questions
Q1) A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant,although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life.She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day,but she tells you that she is trying to cut down.Her laboratory data are within normal limits.What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time?
A) Ultrasound examination
B) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening (MSAFP)
C) Amniocentesis
D) Nonstress test (NST)
Q2) In the first trimester,ultrasonography can be used to gain information on which of the following?
A) Amniotic fluid volume
B) The presence and location of an intrauterine contraceptive device
C) Placental location and maturity
D) Cervical length
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14
Chapter 13: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has been on magnesium sulphate for 20 hours for treatment of pre-eclampsia.She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago.What uterine findings would you expect to assess in this patient?
A) Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period
B) A fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus
C) Scant lochia flow
D) A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow
Q2) What is occurring when some of the umbilical vessels cross the cervical os below the presenting part?
A) Placenta previa
B) Vasa previa
C) Severe abruptio placentae
D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation ( DIC )
Q3) A woman with pre-eclampsia has a seizure.What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A) Ensure a patent airway.
B) Suction the mouth to prevent aspiration.
C) Administer oxygen by mask.
D) Stay with the patient to provide emotional support.
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15
Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Pre-Existing Conditions
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33744
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common neurological disorder accompanying pregnancy?
A) Eclampsia
B) Bell's palsy
C) Epilepsy
D) Multiple sclerosis
Q2) What normal fasting glucose level should the nurse recommend for a woman with pregestational diabetes?
A) 2.5-3.5 mmol/L
B) 3.8-5.2 mmol/L
C) 5.5-7.7 mmol/L
D) 5.0-6.6 mmol/L
Q3) While providing care in an obstetrical setting,the nurse should understand that postpartum care of the woman with cardiac disease should include which of the following?
A) It should be the same as that for any pregnant woman.
B) It includes rest, stool softeners, and monitoring of the effect of activity.
C) It includes ambulating frequently, alternating with active range of motion.
D) It includes limiting visits with the infant to once per day.
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Chapter 15: Labour and Birth Processes
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33745
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be a sign that precedes labour?
A) Lightening
B) Exhaustion
C) Weight gain
D) Decreased fetal movement
Q2) Which basic type of pelvis includes the correct description and percentage of occurrence in women?
A) Gynecoid: classic female; heart shaped; 75%
B) Android: resembling the male; wider oval; 15%
C) Anthropoid: resembling the ape; narrower; 10%
D) Platypelloid: flattened, wide, shallow; 3%
Q3) What should the nurse teach the woman about her position during labour?
A) The supine position commonly used in North America increases blood flow.
B) The "all fours" position, on her hands and knees, is hard on her back.
C) Frequent changes in position will help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort.
D) In a sitting or squatting position her abdominal muscles will have to work harder.
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Chapter 16: Comfort Measures for Labour
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman in labour has just received an epidural block.What is the most important nursing intervention?
A) Limit parenteral fluids.
B) Monitor the fetus for possible tachycardia.
C) Monitor the maternal blood pressure for possible hypotension.
D) Monitor the maternal pulse for possible bradycardia.
Q2) Nurses should be aware of which of the following differences that experience can make in relation to labour pain?
A) Sensory pain for nulliparous women often is greater than for multiparous women during early labour.
B) Affective pain for nulliparous women usually is less than that for multiparous women throughout the first stage of labour.
C) Women with a history of substance use experience more pain during labour.
D) Multiparous women have more fatigue from labour and thus experience more pain.
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Chapter 17: Fetal Health Surveillance During Labour
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the response that best indicates the priority of actions that should be taken.
A) Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination.
B) Reposition the mother, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask.
C) Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluid, and notify the care provider.
D) Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask.
Q2) Perinatal nurses are legally responsible for which of the following?
A) Correctly interpreting fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions, and documenting the outcomes
B) Greeting the patient on arrival, assessing her, and starting an intravenous (IV) line
C) Applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the care provider
D) Making sure that the woman is comfortable and orientated to the unit
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Chapter 18: Nursing Care During Labour and Birth
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33748
Sample Questions
Q1) Although it is common practice in Canada for the father of the baby to be present at the birth,in many societies this is not the case.When implementing care,the nurse would anticipate that a woman from which ethnic group would likely have the father of the baby in attendance?
A) Laotian (Hmong)
B) Chinese
C) Islamic
D) Filipino
Q2) Why would the nurse expect to administer an oxytocic to a woman after expulsion of her placenta?
A) Relieve pain.
B) Stimulate uterine contraction.
C) Prevent infection.
D) Facilitate rest and relaxation.
Q3) Which of the following cannot be identified by Leopold manoeuvres?
A) Gender of the fetus
B) Point of maximal intensity
C) Fetal lie and attitude
D) Degree of the presenting part's descent into the pelvis
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Labour and Birth at Risk
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33749
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse be aware of in the use of tocolytic therapy to suppress uterine activity?
A) The drugs can be given efficaciously up to the designated beginning of term at 37 weeks.
B) There are no important maternal (as opposed to fetal) contraindications.
C) Its most important function is to afford the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids.
D) If the patient develops pulmonary edema while on tocolytics, intravenous (IV) fluids should be given.
Q2) Which of the following should the nurse be aware of with regard to induction of labour?
A) It can be achieved by external and internal version techniques.
B) It is also known as a trial of labour (TOL).
C) It is always done for medical reasons.
D) It is rated for viability by a Bishop score.
Q3) What assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation?
A) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
B) Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus
C) Preterm labour and birth
D) Postterm gestation
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Chapter 20: Maternal Physiological Changes
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman gave birth to a 3100 g infant girl 1 hour ago.The birth was vaginal,and the estimated blood loss (EBL)was approximately 1500 mL.Which of the following would the nurse be concerned about?
A) Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120, respirations 20, blood pressure (BP) 90/50
B) Temperature 37.4°C, heart rate 88, respirations 36, BP 126/68
C) Temperature 38°C, heart rate 80, respirations 16, BP 110/80
D) Temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 60, respirations 18, BP 140/90
Q2) The nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by which of the following?
A) Overproduction of colostrum
B) Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts
C) Hyperplasia of mammary tissue
D) Congestion of veins and lymphatics
Q3) Which woman is most likely to experience strong afterpains?
A) A woman who experienced oligohydramnios
B) A woman who gave birth to twins
C) A woman who is bottle-feeding her infant
D) A woman whose infant weighed 5 pounds, 3 ounces
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Chapter 21: Nursing Care During the Fourth Trimester
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old multiparous woman gave birth to an infant boy 1 day ago.Today her husband brings a large container of brown seaweed soup to the hospital.When the nurse enters the room,the husband asks for help with warming the soup so that his wife can eat it.What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
A) "Didn't you like your lunch?"
B) "Does your doctor know that you are planning to eat that?"
C) "What is that anyway?"
D) "I'll warm the soup in the microwave for you."
Q2) A hospital has a number of different perineal pads available for use.A nurse is observed soaking several of them and writing down what she sees.What does this activity indicate that the nurse is doing?
A) Improving the accuracy of blood loss estimation, which usually is a subjective assessment
B) Determining which pad is best
C) Demonstrating that other nurses usually underestimate blood loss
D) Indicating to the nurse supervisor that one of them needs some time off
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Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many first-time parents do not plan on their parents' help immediately after the newborn arrives.What statement by the nurse is the most appropriate when counselling new parents about the involvement of grandparents?
A) "You should tell your parents to leave you alone."
B) "Grandparents can help you with parenting skills and also help preserve family traditions."
C) "Grandparent involvement can be very disruptive to the family."
D) "They are getting old. You should let them be involved while they can."
Q2) New parents express concern that,because of the mother's emergency Caesarean birth under general anaesthesia,they did not have the opportunity to hold and bond with their daughter immediately after her birth.What should the nurse's response convey to the parents?
A) Attachment is a process that occurs over time and does not require early contact.
B) The time immediately after birth is a critical period for people.
C) Early contact is essential for optimum parent-infant relationships.
D) They should just be happy that the infant is healthy.
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24
Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most appropriate statement that the nurse can make to bereaved parents?
A) "You have an angel in heaven."
B) "I understand how you must feel."
C) "You're young and can have other children."
D) "I'm sorry."
Q2) What should the nurse know to provide adequate postpartum care to the patient experiencing postpartum depression ( PPD )without psychotic features?
A) PPD means that the woman is experiencing the baby blues. In addition, she has a visit with a counsellor or psychologist.
B) PPD is more common among older, White women because they have higher expectations.
C) PPD is distinguished by irritability, severe anxiety, and panic attacks.
D) PPD will disappear on its own without outside help.
Q3) What infection is contracted mostly by first-time mothers who are breastfeeding?
A) Endometritis
B) Wound infections
C) Mastitis
D) Urinary tract infections
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Physiological Adaptations of the Newborn
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn,the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms,his fingers fan out and form a C with the thumb and forefinger,and he has a slight tremor.How would the nurse document this positive finding?
A) Tonic neck reflex
B) Glabellar (Myerson) reflex
C) Babinski reflex
D) Moro reflex
Q2) Part of the health assessment of a newborn is observing the infant's breathing pattern.What is a full-term newborn's predominant breathing pattern?
A) Abdominal with synchronous chest movements
B) Chest breathing with nasal flaring
C) Diaphragmatic with chest retraction
D) Deep with a regular rhythm
Q3) What is the most critical physiological change required of the newborn?
A) Closure of fetal shunts in the circulatory system
B) Full function of the immune defence system at birth
C) Maintenance of a stable temperature
D) Initiation and maintenance of respirations
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Nursing Care of the Newborn
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing to administer a hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn,what should the nurse know?
A) Obtain a syringe with a 25-gauge, 16-mm (5/8-inch) needle.
B) Confirm that the newborn's mother has been infected with the hepatitis B virus.
C) Assess the dorsogluteal muscle as the preferred site for injection.
D) Confirm that the newborn is at least 24 hours old.
Q2) Which principle applies to a newborn bath?
A) Cleanse eyes from outer canthus to inner.
B) Complete the bath from clean to dirty.
C) Finish the bath with fresh water and cleaning the infant's face.
D) Wash genitals first, then diaper and continue the bath.
Q3) An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago and the nurse is assessing the Apgar score.When is the Apgar score performed?
A) It is performed only if the newborn is in obvious distress.
B) It is performed once by the obstetrician, just after the birth.
C) It is performed at least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
D) It is performed every 15 minutes during the newborn's first hour after birth.
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Chapter 26: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible.The nurse can facilitate the infant's correct latch-on by helping the woman hold the infant in which position?
A) With his arms folded together over his chest
B) Curled up in a fetal position
C) With his head cupped in her hand
D) With his head and body in alignment
Q2) According to demographic research,which woman would be least likely to breastfeed and thus most likely to need education on the benefits and proper techniques of breastfeeding?
A) A woman who is 30 to 35 years of age, white, and employed part-time outside the home
B) A woman who is younger than 25 years of age, of Latin-American descent, and unemployed
C) A woman who is younger than 25 years of age, African-Canadian, and employed full-time outside the home
D) A woman who is 35 years of age or older, white, and employed full-time at home
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Chapter 27: Infants With Gestational Age-Related Problems
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse practising in the perinatal setting should promote kangaroo care,regardless of an infant's gestational age.What should the nurse know about this intervention?
A) It is adopted from classical British nursing traditions.
B) It helps infants with motor and central nervous system impairment.
C) It enhances their temperature regulation.
D) It gets infants ready for breastfeeding.
Q2) The nurse knows that the most common time frame for the development of necrotizing enterocolitis ( NEC )in the term infant is which of the following?
A) 1 to 3 days of age
B) 4 to 10 days of age
C) 14 to 21 days of age
D) 1 to 2 months of age
Q3) The nurse knows that infants of mothers with diabetes (IDMs)are at higher risk for developing which of the following?
A) Anemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Respiratory distress syndrome
D) Sepsis
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Problems
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For infants of mothers who used heroin during their pregnancy,which statement is true?
A) They have an increased incidence of IUGR.
B) They have a higher-than-average birth weight.
C) They have more risk of congenital anomalies.
D) They have a decreased risk of SIDS.
Q2) A pregnant woman presents in labour at term,having had no prenatal care.After birth,her infant is noted to be small for gestational age,with small eyes and a thin upper lip.The infant also is microcephalic.On the basis of her infant's physical findings,this woman should be questioned about her use of which substance during pregnancy?
A) Alcohol
B) Cocaine
C) Heroin
D) Marijuana
Q3) What is the most important nursing action for preventing neonatal infection?
A) Good hand washing
B) Isolation of infected infants
C) Separate gown technique
D) Standard precautions
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Contemporary Pediatric Nursing in Canada
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the leading cause of death from unintentional injury in children?
A) Poisoning
B) Drowning
C) Motor vehicle-related fatalities
D) Fire- and burn-related fatalities
Q2) What do morbidity statistics describe?
A) The number of individuals who have died over a specific period
B) The prevalence of a specific illness in the population at a particular time
C) The number of disease cases that is higher than expected in a given community
D) Disease occurring regularly within a geographic location
Q3) Which of the following statements is most descriptive of critical thinking?
A) It is a simple developmental process.
B) It is purposeful and goal-directed.
C) It is based on deliberate and irrational thought.
D) It assists individuals in guessing what is most appropriate.
Q4) Which statement best describes morbidity in childhood?
A) Morbidity does not vary with age.
B) Morbidity is not distributed randomly.
C) Little can be done to improve morbidity.
D) Unintentional injuries do not have an effect on morbidity.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Community-Based Nursing Care of the Child and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term best describes the identification of the distribution and causes of disease,injury,or illness?
A) Nursing process
B) Epidemiological process
C) Community-based statistics
D) Mortality and morbidity statistics
Q2) One of the community nurses at the health department is trying to identify how many new cases of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome have occurred in her city this past year.Which term best describes this measurement?
A) Mortality
B) Morbidity
C) Incidence
D) Prevalence
Q3) Demography is the study of population characteristics.Which demographic characteristic is associated with an increased risk for hemophilia?
A) Age
B) Race and ethnicity
C) Gender
D) Socioeconomic status
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Chapter 31: Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
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Q1) The birth order of children affects their personalities.What is considered to be a characteristic of children who are the youngest in their family?
A) They are more dependent than firstborn children.
B) They are more outgoing than firstborn children.
C) They identify more with parents than with peers.
D) They are subject to greater parental expectations.
Q2) Which type of family is made up entirely of members related by blood?
A) Consanguineous
B) Affinal
C) Family of origin
D) Household
Q3) When assessing a family,the nurse determines that the parents exert little or no control over their children.What is this parenting style called?
A) Permissive
B) Dictatorial
C) Democratic
D) Authoritarian
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Chapter 32: Social, cultural, and Religious Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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Q1) In the ASKED Model of Cultural Competence,what does "A" represent?
A) Action
B) Acceptance
C) Awareness
D) Affection
Q2) When minority groups migrate to another country,what is the involuntary process involving a certain degree of cultural or ethnic blending?
A) Acculturation
B) Ethnocentrism
C) Cultural shock
D) Cultural sensitivity
Q3) A nurse observes that the families who do not show up for scheduled clinic appointments are usually from minority cultural groups.The best explanation for this behaviour is that these families often differ from the dominant culture in which of the following ways?
A) Lack of education
B) Avoidance of health care
C) Forgetfulness
D) Perception of time
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Chapter 33: Developmental Influences on Child Health Promotion
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Q1) Which function is a major component of play at all ages?
A) Creativity
B) Socialization
C) Intellectual development
D) Sensorimotor activity
Q2) Three children playing a board game is an example of which of the following types of play?
A) Solitary
B) Parallel
C) Associative
D) Cooperative
Q3) Which coping strategy is the least appropriate for a child to use?
A) Learn problem-solving.
B) Listen to music.
C) Have parents solve their problems.
D) Use relaxation techniques.
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Chapter 34: Communication, history, physical, and Developmental Assessment
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Q1) Which one of the following is an appropriate approach to performing a physical assessment on a toddler?
A) Always proceed in a head-to-toe direction.
B) Perform traumatic procedures first.
C) Use minimum physical contact initially.
D) Demonstrate use of equipment.
Q2) How should the nurse assess a child's capillary filling time?
A) Inspect the chest.
B) Auscultate the heart.
C) Palpate the apical pulse.
D) Palpate the skin to produce a slight blanching.
Q3) Which of the following statements describes the emerging illocutionary stage?
A) The child is reflexive to stimuli.
B) The child shows increasing purpose in action.
C) The child communicates intentionally with signals and gestures.
D) The child communicates intentionally with vocalizations and verbalizations.
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36
Chapter 35: Pain Assessment and Management
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Q1) Which statement is true about non-pharmacological strategies for pain management?
A) They may reduce pain perception.
B) They make pharmacological strategies unnecessary.
C) They usually take too long to implement.
D) They trick children into believing they do not have pain.
Q2) A lumbar puncture is needed on a school-age child.Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to apply to provide analgesia during this procedure?
A) Tetracaine-adrenaline-cocaine ( TAC ) 15 minutes before procedure
B) Transdermal fentanyl ( Duragesic ) patch immediately before procedure
C) Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics ( EMLA ) 1 hour before procedure
D) EMLA 30 minutes before procedure
Q3) Kyle,age 6 months,is brought to the clinic.His parent says,"I think he hurts.He cries and rolls his head from side to side a lot." This most likely suggests which feature of pain?
A) Type
B) Severity
C) Duration
D) Location
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Page 37
Chapter 36: The Infant and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best play activity for a 6-month-old infant to provide tactile stimulation?
A) Allow the infant to splash in the bath.
B) Give the infant various coloured blocks.
C) Play a music box, CDs, or MP3 player.
D) Use an infant swing or stroller.
Q2) Which statement best describes the infant's physical development?
A) The anterior fontanel closes by age 6 to 10 months.
B) Binocularity is well established by age 8 months.
C) Birth weight doubles by age 6 months and triples by 1 year.
D) Maternal iron stores persist during the first 12 months of life.
Q3) What is an appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation?
A) Playing peek-a-boo
B) Playing pat-a-cake
C) Imitating animal sounds
D) Showing how to clap hands
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Chapter 37: The Toddler and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says "no" to everything and has rapid mood swings.If he is scolded,he shows anger and then immediately wants to be held.What is the best interpretation of this behaviour?
A) This is normal behaviour for his age.
B) This is unusual behaviour for his age.
C) He is not effectively coping with stress.
D) He is showing he needs more attention.
Q2) Which statement is correct about toilet training?
A) Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.
B) Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet.
C) Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child.
D) Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.
Q3) What is the most fatal type of burn for the toddler age group?
A) Flame burn from playing with matches
B) Scald burn from high-temperature tap water
C) Hot object burn from cigarettes or irons
D) Electric burn from electrical outlets
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Chapter 38: The Preschooler and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of fine motor development,what is a 3-year-old child expected to do?
A) Tie shoelaces.
B) Use scissors or a pencil very well.
C) Draw a person with seven to nine parts.
D) Copy (draw) a circle.
Q2) To prevent varicella,what may be given to high-risk children after exposure to chickenpox?
A) Acyclovir
B) Vitamin A
C) Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
D) Varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG)
Q3) A 4-year-old boy is hospitalized with a serious bacterial infection.He tells the nurse that he is sick because he was "bad." What is the best way for the nurse to interpret this comment?
A) It is a sign of stress.
B) It is a common belief at this age.
C) It is suggestive of maladaptation.
D) It is suggestive of excessive discipline at home.
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Chapter 39: The School-Age Child and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Turner's syndrome is suspected in an adolescent girl with short stature.The nurse knows that this is caused by which of the following?
A) Absence of one of the X chromosomes
B) Presence of an incomplete Y chromosome
C) Precocious puberty in an otherwise healthy child
D) Excess production of both androgens and estrogens
Q2) An 8-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has cancer because God is punishing her for "being bad." She shares her concern that,if she dies,she will go to hell.How should the nurse interpret this concern?
A) Such a belief that is common at this age.
B) Such a belief forms the basis for most religions.
C) It is suggestive of excessive family pressure.
D) It is suggestive of the failure to develop a conscience.
Q3) The nurse expects a child with post-traumatic stress disorder ( PTSD )to be in the intense arousal response for what duration of time?
A) 2 hours
B) 2 days
C) 2 weeks
D) 2 months
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Page 41
Chapter 40: The Adolescent and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matt,age 14 years,seems to be always eating,although his weight is appropriate for his height.What is the best explanation for this assessment?
A) This is normal because of the increase in his body mass.
B) This is abnormal and suggestive of future obesity.
C) His caloric intake has to be excessive to indicate problems.
D) He is substituting food for unfilled needs.
Q2) What is the weight loss of anorexia nervosa often triggered by?
A) Sexual abuse
B) School failure
C) Independence from family
D) Traumatic interpersonal conflict
Q3) Which statement is true about smokeless tobacco?
A) It is not addicting.
B) It is proven to be carcinogenic.
C) It is easy to stop using.
D) It is a safe alternative to cigarette smoking.
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42
Chapter 41: Chronic Illness, disability, and End-Of-Life Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lindsey,age 5 years,will be starting kindergarten next month.She has cerebral palsy,and it has been determined that she needs to be in a special education classroom.Her parents are tearful when telling the nurse about this and state that they did not realize her disability was so severe.What is the best way for the nurse to interpret this situation?
A) This is a sign that parents are in denial.
B) This is a normal, anticipated time of parental stress.
C) The parents need to learn more about cerebral palsy.
D) The parents are used to having expectations that are too high.
Q2) A school-age child is diagnosed with a life-threatening illness.The parents want to protect their child from knowing the seriousness of the illness.What should the nurse explain to the parents?
A) This denial will help the child cope effectively.
B) This attitude is helpful to give parents time to cope.
C) Terminally ill children know when they are seriously ill.
D) Terminally ill children usually choose not to discuss the seriousness of their illness.
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Chapter 42: Cognitive and Sensory Impairment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young child who has an intelligence quotient (IQ)of 45 is which of the following?
A) Within the lower limits of the range of normal intelligence
B) Mildly cognitively impaired but educable
C) Moderately cognitively impaired but trainable
D) Severely cognitively impaired and completely dependent on others for care
Q2) Which of the following should be included in the care of a child with Down syndrome?
A) Delay feeding solid foods until the tongue thrust has stopped.
B) Modify diet as necessary to minimize the diarrhea that often occurs.
C) Provide calories appropriate to the child's age.
D) Use a cool-mist vaporizer to keep mucous membranes moist.
Q3) Which term refers to the ability to see objects clearly at close range but not at a distance?
A) Myopia
B) Amblyopia
C) Cataract
D) Glaucoma
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44
Chapter 43: Family-Centred Home Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A family wants to begin oral feeding of their 4-year-old son,who is ventilator dependent and currently tube fed.They ask the home health nurse to feed him baby food orally.The nurse recognizes a high risk of aspiration and an already compromised respiratory status.What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Refuse to feed him orally because the risk is too high.
B) Explain the risks involved and let the family decide what should be done.
C) Feed him orally because the family has the right to make this decision for their child.
D) Acknowledge their request, explain the risks, and explore with the family the available options.
Q2) What is one important thing home care nurses should do when communicating with other professionals?
A) Ask others what they want to know.
B) Share everything known about the family.
C) Restrict communication to clinically relevant information.
D) Recognize that confidentiality is not possible.
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Chapter 44: Reaction to Illness and Hospitalization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matthew,age 18 months,has just been admitted with croup.His parent is tearful and tells the nurse,"This is all my fault.I should have taken him to the doctor sooner so he wouldn't have to be here." What is the appropriate response for this parent who is experiencing guilt?
A) Clarify the misconception about the illness.
B) Explain to the parent that the illness is not serious.
C) Encourage the parent to maintain a sense of control.
D) Assess further why the parent has excessive guilt feelings.
Q2) A 10-year-old girl needs to have another intravenous (IV)line started.She keeps telling the nurse,"Wait a minute," and,"I'm not ready." What should the nurse recognize about this behaviour?
A) This is normal behaviour for a school-age child.
B) This behaviour is usually not seen past the preschool years.
C) The child thinks the nurse is punishing her.
D) The child has successfully manipulated the nurse in the past.
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46
Chapter 45: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frequent urine testing for specific gravity and glucose are required on a 6-month-old infant.What is the most appropriate way to collect small amounts of urine for these tests?
A) Apply a urine-collection bag to perineal area.
B) Tape a small medicine cup to the inside of the diaper.
C) Aspirate urine from cotton balls inside the diaper with a syringe.
D) Aspirate urine from a superabsorbent disposable diaper with a syringe.
Q2) A 2-year-old child comes to the emergency department with dehydration and hypovolemic shock.What statement best explains why an intraosseous infusion is started?
A) It is less painful for small children.
B) Rapid venous access is not possible.
C) Antibiotics must be started immediately.
D) Long-term central venous access is not possible.
Q3) An 8-month-old infant is restrained to prevent interference with the intravenous infusion.What should the nurse do?
A) Remove the restraints once a day to allow movement.
B) Keep the restraints on constantly.
C) Keep the restraints secure so infant remains supine.
D) Remove restraints whenever possible.
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Chapter 46: Respiratory Dysfunction
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of a toddler yells to the nurse,"Help! He is choking to death on his food." What finding causes the nurse to determine that lifesaving measures are necessary?
A) Gagging
B) Coughing
C) Pulse over 100 beats/min
D) Inability to speak
Q2) Which intervention should be used when providing care to a child diagnosed with Avian influenza?
A) A clear liquid diet for hydration
B) Aspirin to control fever
C) Amantadine hydrochloride to reduce symptoms
D) Antibiotics to prevent bacterial infection
Q3) What is the earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s)of cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A) Meconium ileus
B) History of poor intestinal absorption
C) Foul-smelling, frothy, greasy stools
D) Recurrent pneumonia and lung infections
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Chapter 47: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of hernia has an impaired blood supply to the herniated organ?
A) Hiatal hernia
B) Incarcerated hernia
C) Omphalocele
D) Strangulated hernia
Q2) Which statement is true about hepatitis B?
A) Hepatitis B cannot exist in a carrier state.
B) Immunity to hepatitis B does not occur after one attack.
C) Hepatitis B can be transferred to an infant from a breastfeeding mother.
D) The principal mode of transmission for hepatitis B is the fecal-oral route.
Q3) Which statement best describes hepatitis A?
A) The incubation period is 6 weeks to 6 months.
B) The principal mode of transmission is through the parenteral route.
C) The onset is usually rapid and acute.
D) There is a persistent carrier state.
Q4) What is the earliest clinical manifestation of biliary atresia?
A) Jaundice
B) Vomiting
C) Hepatomegaly
D) Absence of stooling
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common,serious complication of rheumatic fever?
A) Seizures
B) Cardiac arrhythmias
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Cardiac valve damage
Q2) What is one important thing the nurse should do when removing chest tubes from a child?
A) Explain that it is not painful.
B) Explain that only a Band-Aid will be needed.
C) Administer analgesics before the procedure.
D) Expect bright red drainage for several hours after removal.
Q3) Which one of the following is best described as the heart's inability to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures?
A) Pulmonary congestion
B) Congenital heart defect
C) Heart failure
D) Systemic venous congestion
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Chapter 49: Hematological and Immunological Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is recommending how to prevent iron-deficiency anemia in a healthy term breastfed infant.What should she tell the parents?
A) Iron (ferrous sulphate) drops after age 1 month.
B) Iron-fortified commercial formula can be used by age 4 to 6 months.
C) Iron-fortified infant cereal can be used by age 2 months.
D) Iron-fortified infant cereal can be used at approximately 6 months of age.
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately describes most cases of hemophilia?
A) Autosomal dominant disorder causing deficiency in a factor involved in the blood-clotting reaction
B) X-linked recessive inherited disorder causing deficiency of platelets and prolonged bleeding
C) X-linked recessive inherited disorder in which a blood-clotting factor is deficient
D) Y-linked recessive inherited disorder in which the red blood cells become moon-shaped
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Chapter 50: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor predisposes the urinary tract to infection?
A) Increased fluid intake
B) A short urethra in young girls
C) Prostatic secretions in males
D) Frequent emptying of the bladder
Q2) The nurse closely monitors the temperature of a child with nephrosis to detect an early sign of which of the following?
A) Infection
B) Hypertension
C) Encephalopathy
D) Edema
Q3) What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with acute glomerulonephritis?
A) Risk for injury related to malignant process and treatment
B) Deficient fluid volume related to excessive losses
C) Excess fluid volume related to decreased plasma filtration
D) Excess fluid volume related to fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces
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Chapter 51: Cerebral Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment of brain tumours in children consists of which one of the following therapies?
A) Radiation
B) Bone marrow transplantation
C) Myelography
D) Stem cell transplantation
Q2) What type of seizure may be difficult to detect?
A) Absence seizure
B) Generalized seizure
C) Simple partial seizure
D) Complex partial seizure
Q3) An infant with hydrocephalus is hospitalized for surgical placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt.What intervention should be included in the child's postoperative care?
A) Monitor for abdominal distension.
B) Pump the shunt reservoir to maintain patency.
C) Administer sedation to decrease irritability.
D) Maintain Trendelenburg position to decrease pressure on the shunt.
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Chapter 52: Endocrine Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common clinical manifestation of juvenile hypothyroidism?
A) Insomnia
B) Diarrhea
C) Dry skin
D) Accelerated growth
Q2) At what age is sexual development in boys and girls considered to be precocious?
A) Boys, 11 years; girls, 9 years
B) Boys, 12 years; girls, 10 years
C) Boys, 9 years; girls, 8 years
D) Boys, 10 years; girls, 9.5 years
Q3) A parent asks the nurse why self-monitoring of blood glucose is being recommended for her child with diabetes.What knowledge should form the basis of the nurse's explanation?
A) It is a less expensive method of testing.
B) It is not as accurate as laboratory testing.
C) Children are better able to manage the diabetes.
D) The parents are better able to manage the disease.
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Chapter 53: Integumentary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the only symptom of pediculosis capitis (head lice)?
A) Itching
B) Vesicles
C) Scalp rash
D) Localized inflammatory response
Q2) What is the most immediate threat to life in children with thermal injuries?
A) Shock
B) Anemia
C) Local infection
D) Systemic sepsis
Q3) Which of the following best describes a full-thickness (third-degree)burn?
A) Erythema and pain
B) Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
C) Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
D) Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone
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55
Chapter 54: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an important nursing consideration when caring for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis ( JIA )?
A) Apply ice packs to relieve stiffness and pain.
B) Administer acetaminophen to reduce inflammation.
C) Teach the child and family the correct administration of medications.
D) Encourage range-of-motion exercises during periods of inflammation.
Q2) What term is used to describe a fracture that does not produce a break in the skin?
A) Simple
B) Compound
C) Complicated
D) Comminuted
Q3) What term is used to describe an abnormally increased convex angulation in the curvature of the thoracic spine?
A) Scoliosis
B) Ankylosis
C) Lordosis
D) Kyphosis
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Chapter 55: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33785
Sample Questions
Q1) What clinical manifestation is suggestive of spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffmann disease)in an infant?
A) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
B) Hypertonicity
C) Lying in the frog position
D) Motor deficits on one side of body
Q2) The nurse is caring for a neonate born with a myelomeningocele.Surgery to repair the defect is scheduled for the next day.What is the most appropriate way to position and feed this neonate?
A) Left lateral and tube feed
B) Prone, turn head to side, and nipple feed
C) Supine in infant carrier and nipple feed
D) Supine, with defect supported with rolled blankets, and nipple feed
Q3) A 14-year-old girl is in the intensive care unit after a spinal cord injury 2 days ago.Which of the following should be included in nursing care for this child?
A) Avoiding the use of diazepam.
B) Administering corticosteroids.
C) Minimizing environmental stimuli.
D) Discussing long-term care issues with the family.
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