Reproductive Health Nursing Question
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Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to equip nursing students with the knowledge and skills necessary to provide effective, evidence-based care in the field of reproductive health. The course covers a wide range of topics including human reproductive anatomy and physiology, contraception, fertility, prenatal and postnatal care, common reproductive health disorders, sexually transmitted infections, and family planning. Emphasis is placed on holistic, patient-centered care that considers the physical, emotional, social, and cultural aspects of reproductive health. Students will also explore ethical and legal issues, current trends, and health education strategies to promote reproductive wellness across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as a priority for a patient in active labor?
A) Risk for anxiety related to upcoming birth
B) Risk for imbalanced nutrition related to NPO status
C) Risk for altered family processes related to new addition to the family
D) Risk for injury (maternal) related to altered sensations and positional or physical changes
Answer: D
Q2) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the professional nurse?
A) Administering oral analgesics
B) Requesting diagnostic studies
C) Teaching the patient perineal care
D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Answer: C
Q3) Which patient could safely be cared for by a certified nurse-midwife?
A) Gravida 3, para 2, with no complications
B) Gravida 1, para 0, with mild hypertension
C) Gravida 2, para 1, with insulin-dependent diabetes
D) Gravida 1, para 0, with borderline pelvic measurements
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the principles of family-centered care with a primiparous patient. Which patient statement will the nurse need to correct?
A) "Remaining focused on my family will help benefit me and my baby."
B) "Most of the time, childbirth is uncomplicated and a healthy event for the family."
C) "Because childbirth is normal, after my baby's birth our family dynamics will not change."
D) "With correct information, I am able to make decisions regarding my health care while I am pregnant."
Answer: C
Q2) Which step of the nursing process is being used when the nurse decides whether an ethical dilemma exists?
A) Analysis
B) Planning
C) Evaluation
D) Assessment
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinic nurse is reviewing breastfeeding with a pregnant patient. Which hormone will the nurse explain is responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?
A) Pitocin
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
Answer: B
Q2) A newly pregnant patient asks the nurse, "What is a false pelvis?" Which statement by the nurse will best explain this anatomy to the patient?
A) It is the total anterior portion of the pelvis.
B) It is considered to be the lower portion of the pelvis.
C) It provides support for the internal organs and the upper part of the body.
D) It is the narrowest part of the pelvis through which a fetus will pass during birth.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old patient has an amniocentesis performed to identify whether her baby has a chromosomal defect. Which statement indicates that the patient understands the situation?
A) "The doctor will tell me if I should have an abortion when the test results come back."
B) "When all the lab results come back, my husband and I will make a decision about the pregnancy."
C) "My mother must not find out about all this testing. If she does, she will think I'm having an abortion."
D) "I know there are support groups for parents who have a baby with birth defects, but we have plenty of insurance to cover what we need."
Q2) A patient presents with curly hair and blue eyes. These findings are consistent with A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) dominant alleles.
D) recessive traits.
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6
Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expectant father asks the nurse, "Which part of the mature sperm contains the male chromosome?" What is the correct response by the nurse?
A) X-bearing sperm
B) The tail of the sperm
C) The head of the sperm
D) The middle portion of the sperm
Q2) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vernix caseosa
B) Lanugo
C) Port wine stain
D) Brown fat
E) Eyebrows or head hair
Q3) One of the assessments performed in the birth room is checking the umbilical cord for blood vessels. Which finding is considered to be within normal limits?
A) One artery and one vein
B) Two veins and one artery
C) Two arteries and one vein
D) Two arteries and two veins
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient relates a story of how her boyfriend is feeling her aches and pains associated with her pregnancy. She is concerned that her boyfriend is making fun of her concerns. How would you respond to this patient statement?
A) Tell her not to worry because it is natural for her boyfriend to make her feel better by identifying with her pregnancy.
B) Refer the patient to a psychologist for counseling to deal with this problem because it is clearly upsetting her.
C) Explain that her boyfriend may be experiencing couvade syndrome and that this is a normal finding seen with male partners.
D) Ask the patient specifically to define her concerns related to her relationship with her boyfriend and suggest methods to stop this type of behavior by her significant other.
Q2) Which physiologic finding is consistent with normal pregnancy?
A) Systemic vascular resistance increases as blood pressure decreases.
B) Cardiac output increases during pregnancy.
C) Blood pressure remains consistent independent of position changes.
D) Maternal vasoconstriction occurs in response to increased metabolism.
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8
Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gravida 1 patient at 32 weeks of gestation reports that she has severe lower back pain. What should the nurse's assessment include?
A) Palpation of the lumbar spine
B) Exercise pattern and duration
C) Observation of posture and body mechanics
D) Ability to sleep for at least 6 hours uninterrupted
Q2) A relaxation technique that can be used during the childbirth experience to decrease maternal pain perception is
A) using increased environmental stimulation as a method of distraction.
B) restricting family and friends from visiting during the labor period to keep the patient focused on breathing techniques.
C) medicating the patient frequently to reduce pain perception.
D) assisting the patient in breathing methods aimed at taking control of pain perception based on the contraction pattern.
Q3) Calculate the estimated date of birth (EDD) in October using Nägele's rule for a patient whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on January 1. Record your answer as a whole number. _______
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9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is meeting with a patient with an elevated BMI regarding an optimal diet for pregnancy. Which major source of nutrients should be a significant component of this patient's diet?
A) Fats
B) Fiber
C) Simple sugars
D) Complex carbohydrates
Q2) The nurse is reviewing a list of foods high in folic acid with a patient who is considering becoming pregnant. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when the patient states she will include which list of foods in her diet?
A) Peaches, yogurt, and tofu
B) Strawberries, milk, and tuna
C) Asparagus, lemonade, and chicken breast
D) Spinach, orange juice, and fortified bran flakes
Q3) When should iron supplementation during a normal pregnancy begin?
A) Before pregnancy
B) In the first trimester
C) In the third trimester
D) In the second trimester
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a patient hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Determine if a metabolic disorder exists.
B) Identify the sex of the fetus.
C) Identify abnormal fetal cells.
D) Determine fetal lung maturity.
Q2) Which factors should be considered a contraindication for transcervical chorionic villus sampling?
A) Rh-negative mother
B) Gestation less than 15 weeks
C) Maternal age younger than 35 years
D) Positive for group B Streptococcus
Q3) The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine whether the fetus has which condition?
A) Hemophilia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) A neural tube defect
D) Abnormal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
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Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the A) fetus is Rh-negative.
B) fetus is Rh-positive.
C) father is Rh-positive.
D) father and fetus are both Rh-negative.
Q2) The nurse is monitoring a patient with severe preeclampsia who is on IV magnesium sulfate. Which signs of magnesium toxicity should the nurse monitor for? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cool, clammy skin
B) Altered sensorium
C) Pulse oximeter reading of 95%
D) Respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths per minute
E) Absence of deep tendon reflexes
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the instructions given to a patient at 24 weeks' gestation for a glucose challenge test (GCT). The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she makes which statement?
A) "I have to fast the night before the test."
B) "I will drink a sugary solution containing 100 g of glucose."
C) "I will have blood drawn at 1 hour after I drink the glucose solution."
D) "I should keep track of my baby's movements between now and the test."
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Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has delivered twins. The first twin was stillborn, and the second is in the intensive care nursery, recovering quickly from respiratory distress. The patient is crying softly and says, "I wish my baby could have lived." What is the most therapeutic response?
A) "How soon do you plan to have another baby?"
B) "Don't be sad. At least you have one healthy baby."
C) "I have a friend who lost a twin and she's doing just fine now."
D) "I am so sorry about your loss. Would you like to talk about it?"
Q2) Which complication of adolescent pregnancy should the nurse plan to monitor?
A) Anemia
B) Placenta previa
C) Abruptio placenta
D) Incompetent cervix
Q3) Which factor is a major barrier to health care for adolescent mothers?
A) Health care workers have a positive attitude.
B) The hospital or clinic is within walking distance of the girl's home.
C) Seeing a different nurse and/or health care provider at every visit.
D) The institution is open days, evenings, and Saturday by special arrangement.
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding should the nurse expect to assess in the third stage of labor that indicates the placenta has separated from the uterine wall? (Select all that apply.)
A) A gush of blood appears.
B) The uterus rises upward in the abdomen.
C) The fundus descends below the umbilicus.
D) The cord descends further from the vagina.
E) The uterus becomes boggy and soft, with an elongated shape.
Q2) Which assessment finding would cause a concern for a patient who had delivered vaginally?
A) Estimated blood loss (EBL) of 500 mL during the birth process
B) White blood cell count of 28,000 mm3 postbirth
C) Patient complains of fingers tingling
D) Patient complains of thirst
Q3) Which mechanism of labor occurs when the largest diameter of the fetal presenting part passes the pelvic inlet?
A) Extension
B) Engagement
C) Internal rotation
D) External rotation
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are preparing a patient for epidural placement by a nurse anesthetist in the LDR. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administer a bolus of 500 to 1000 mL of D5 normal saline prior to catheter placement.
B) Have ephedrine available at bedside during catheter placement.
C) Monitor blood pressure of patient frequently during catheter insertion and for the first 15 minutes of epidural administration.
D) Insert a Foley catheter prior to epidural catheter placement.
E) Monitor the patient for hypertension in response to epidural insertion.
Q2) Excessive anxiety during labor heightens the patient's sensitivity to pain by increasing
A) muscle tension.
B) the pain threshold.
C) blood flow to the uterus.
D) rest time between contractions.
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15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medications could potentially cause hyperstimulation of the uterus during labor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Dinoprostone (Cervidil)
D) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)
Q2) Decelerations that mirror the contractions are present with each contraction on the monitor strip of a multipara who received epidural anesthesia 20 minutes ago. The nurse should
A) maintain the normal assessment routine.
B) administer OS1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/minute by face mask.
C) increase the IV flow rate from 125 to 150 mL/hour.
D) assess the maternal blood pressure for a systolic pressure below 100 mm Hg.
Q3) Which of the following is the priority intervention for the patient in a left side-lying position whose monitor strip shows a deceleration that extends beyond the end of the contraction?
A) Administer OS1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/minute.
B) Decrease the IV rate to 100 mL/hour.
C) Reposition the ultrasound transducer.
D) Perform a vaginal exam to assess for cord prolapse.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to A) reduce heat loss from evaporation.
B) stimulate crying and lung expansion.
C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.
D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.
Q2) Which breech presentation should the nurse recognize as being favorable for an external cephalic version?
A) 36-week gestation with low-lying placenta
B) 38-week gestation with one previous cesarean
C) 37-week gestation with fetal weight of 7 lb
D) 40-week gestation with several uterine fibroids
Q3) Which nursing diagnosis would take priority in the care of a primipara patient with no visible support person in attendance? The patient has entered the second stage of labor after a first stage of labor lasting 4 hours.
A) Fluid volume deficit (FVD) related to fluid loss during labor and birth process
B) Fatigue related to length of labor requiring increased energy expenditure
C) Acute pain related to increased intensity of contractions
D) Anxiety related to imminent birth process
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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the course of the birth process, the physician suspects that a shoulder dystocia is occurring and asks the nurse for assistance. Which priority action should be taken in response to this request?
A) Put pressure on the fundus.
B) Ask the physician if he or she would like you to prepare for a surgical method of birth.
C) Tell the patient not to push until you prepare the vacuum extraction device for physician.
D) Reposition the patient to facilitate birth.
Q2) Which patient is most at risk for a uterine rupture?
A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision
B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth
C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births
D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant
Q3) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient who delivered by the vaginal route 12 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the health care provider?
A) Pulse rate of 50
B) Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F)
C) Firm fundus, but excessive lochia
D) Lightheaded when moving from a lying to standing position
Q2) Which fundal assessment finding at 12 hours after birth requires further assessment?
A) The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
B) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.
C) The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus.
D) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.
Q3) Which measure is optimal in order to prevent abdominal distention following a cesarean birth?
A) Rectal suppositories
B) Carbonated beverages
C) Early and frequent ambulation
D) Tightening and relaxing abdominal muscles
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse understands that late postpartum hemorrhage may be prevented by
A) manually removing the placenta.
B) inspecting the placenta after birth.
C) administering broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D) pulling on the umbilical cord to hasten the birth of the placenta.
Q2) The visiting nurse must be aware that women who have had a postpartum hemorrhage are subject to a variety of complications after discharge from the hospital. These include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Anemia
B) Dehydration
C) Exhaustion
D) Postpartum infection
E) Failure to attach to her infant
Q3) If a late postpartum hemorrhage is documented on a patient who delivered 3 days ago, the nurse recognizes that this hemorrhage occurred
A) on the first postpartum day.
B) during recovery phase of labor.
C) during the third stage of labor.
D) on the second postpartum day.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn is admitted to the special care nursery with hypothermia. Which complication should the nurse monitor for closely?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
Q2) Which action by the nurse can result in hyperthermia in the newborn?
A) Placing a cap on the newborn
B) Wrapping the newborn in a warm blanket
C) Placing the newborn in a skin to skin position with the mother
D) Placing the newborn in the radiant warmer without attaching the skin probe
Q3) A reported hematocrit level for a newborn delivered by vaginal birth is 75%. Based on this lab value, which complication is the newborn least likely to develop?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Respiratory distress
C) Infection
D) Jaundice
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21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant at term was born at 0105 hours. The nurse is developing a plan of care for the newborn. During which time range will the nurse plan on performing the assessment to determine a Ballard score?
A) 0115 to 0130
B) 0200 to 0600
C) 1400 to 1800
D) 2000 to 2300
Q2) Which assessment finding of a newborn requires prompt action by the nurse?
A) Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute
B) Cyanosis of the extremities
C) Pause in breathing lasting 20 seconds
D) Pause in breathing for 15 seconds followed by rapid respirations
Q3) The nurse is assessing a newborn delivered 24 hours ago for jaundice. What is the best way to evaluate for this finding?
A) Depress the tip of the nose.
B) Stroke the outer aspect of the foot.
C) Place a finger in the palm of the hand.
D) Rotate the hips in an upward and outward direction.
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22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information should the nurse teach to new parents regarding the use of a bulb syringe?
A) Use it only once per day.
B) Suction the back of the throat vigorously.
C) Insert the syringe into the sides of the mouth.
D) Always suction the mouth before suctioning the nose.
Q2) Which infant should be seen immediately by a health care provider?
A) A 1-week-old infant with a diaper rash
B) A 1-month-old infant with an axillary temperature of 37.7°C (99.8°F)
C) A 3-week-old breast-fed infant who has had two loose stools
D) A 2-week-old infant with nasal congestion and respirations of 64 breaths per minute
Q3) Most newborns receive a prophylactic injection of vitamin K soon after birth. Which site is optimal for the newborn?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Gluteal muscle
C) Rectus femoris muscle
D) Vastus lateralis muscle
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother is breastfeeding her newborn son and is experiencing signs of her breasts feeling tender and full in between infant feedings. She asks if there are any suggestions that you can provide to help alleviate this physical complaint. The ideal nursing response would be to
A) tell the patient to wear a bra at all times to provide more support to breast tissue.
B) have the patient put the infant to her breast more frequently.
C) place ice packs on breast tissue after infant feeding.
D) explain that this is a normal finding and will resolve as her breast tissue becomes more used to nursing.
Q2) Which hormone is essential for milk production?
A) Estrogen
B) Prolactin
C) Progesterone
D) Lactogen
Q3) Which woman is most likely to continue breastfeeding beyond 6 months?
A) A woman who avoids using bottles.
B) A woman who uses formula for every other feeding.
C) A woman who offers water or formula after breastfeeding.
D) A woman whose infant is satisfied for 4 hours after the feeding.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is observing a 38-week gestation newborn in the nursery. Data reveals periods of apnea lasting approximately 10 seconds followed by a period of rapid respirations. The infant's color and heart rate remain unchanged. The nurse suspects that the infant
A) is exhibiting signs of RDS.
B) requires tactile stimulation around the clock to ensure that apneic periods do not progress further.
C) is experiencing periodic breathing episodes and will require continuous monitoring while in the nursery unit.
D) requires the use of CPAP to promote airway expansion.
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis would be considered a priority for a newborn infant who is receiving phototherapy in an isolette?
A) Hypothermia because of phototherapy treatment
B) Impaired skin integrity related to diarrhea as a result of phototherapy
C) Fluid volume deficit related to phototherapy treatment
D) Knowledge deficit (parents) related to initiation of medical therapy
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
A) Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
B) Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
C) Infant bilirubin level
D) Maternal blood type
Q2) Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
A) Hct 50%
B) Hct 55%
C) Hct 62%
D) Hct 70%
Q3) Four hours after the birth of a healthy neonate of an insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetic mother, the baby appears jittery and irritable and has a high-pitched cry. Which nursing action has top priority?
A) Notify the clinician stat.
B) Test for the blood glucose level.
C) Start an intravenous line with D10W.
D) Document the event in the nurses' notes.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are teaching a group of adolescents regarding myths and facts related to contraception. Which statement indicates that additional teaching is needed for this group?
A) Adolescents are more likely to become pregnant even if they use available contraception methods correctly.
B) The withdrawal technique provides a higher likelihood that a teen will not get pregnant.
C) Pregnancy can occur in the presence or absence of orgasm.
D) Pregnancy can occur even if a teen is menstruating at the time of coitus.
Q2) Informed consent concerning contraceptive use is important since some of the methods
A) may not be reliable.
B) require a surgical procedure to insert.
C) have potentially dangerous side effects.
D) are invasive procedures that require hospitalization.
Q3) The role of the nurse in family planning is to
A) refer the couple to a reliable physician.
B) decide on the best method for the couple.
C) advise couples on which contraceptive to use.
D) educate couples on the various methods of contraception.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest a clinical finding of A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Q2) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q3) A patient has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix (the cervix will not remain closed). What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care for this patient?
A) Bed rest throughout the pregnancy
B) Wait and see approach to determine if the patient goes into preterm labor
C) Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation
D) More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy
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28
Chapter 27: Womens Health
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175
Sample Questions
Q1) While interviewing a 48-year-old patient during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this patient to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of x-ray exposure
B) Expense of the procedure
C) Reluctance to hear bad news
D) Having heard that the test is painful
E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary
Q2) Which specific instruction should the nurse teach to assist a patient to regain control of her urinary sphincter?
A) Perform Kegel exercises.
B) Void every hour while awake.
C) Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
D) Allow the bladder to become distended before voiding.
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