Reproductive Health Nursing Question Bank
Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of individuals and families across the lifespan in relation to reproductive health. The course covers topics such as human sexuality, family planning, maternal and child health, prenatal and postnatal care, infertility management, sexually transmitted infections, and reproductive rights. Emphasizing evidence-based practice, cultural sensitivity, and ethical considerations, students gain knowledge and skills necessary to assess, manage, and educate patients about reproductive health issues. The course also explores public health strategies and policies aimed at promoting reproductive well-being and addresses contemporary challenges in reproductive health nursing.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care in Canada 1st Edition by Shannon E. Perry
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55 Chapters
1438 Verified Questions
1438 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1703 Page 2
Chapter 1: Contemporary Perinatal Nursing in Canada
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33731
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Canadian Maternity Experiences Survey,what was the most frequent pain medication used during labour and delivery?
A) Nitrous oxide
B) Demerol (meperidine)
C) Epidural anaesthesia
D) Local infiltration anaesthesia
Answer: C
Q2) Which medical risk factor contributes to a higher infant mortality rate?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Mitral valve prolapse (MVP)
C) Chronic hypertension
D) Anemia
Answer: C
Q3) Which reflects a future goal for perinatal nursing?
A) Limiting multiprofessional teams
B) Maintaining existing power structures
C) Advocating for an increased number of Cesarean sections
D) Addressing health inequities by creating healthy public policies
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Family and Culture
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A married couple lives in a single-family house with their newborn son and the husband's daughter from a previous marriage.On the basis of the information given,what family form best describes this family?
A) Blended family
B) Extended family
C) Nuclear family
D) Same-sex family
Answer: A
Q2) Why is the patient's family important to the maternity nurse?
A) They provide financial support for the mother.
B) The nurse will know which family member makes the decisions.
C) It will provide care for the new mother when the nurse is unable to make a home visit.
D) The family culture will influence nursing care decisions.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Community Care
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33733
Sample Questions
Q1) What would a breastfeeding mother who is concerned that her baby is not getting enough to eat find most helpful on the day after discharge?
A) Visiting a pediatric screening clinic at the hospital
B) Placing a call to the "warm line"
C) Calling the pediatrician for a lactation consult referral
D) Requesting a home visit
Answer: B
Q2) Which level of health promotion is reflected when the nurse is providing treatment and rehabilitation for people with chronic diseases?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Primordial
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Health Promotion
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33734
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement reflects one purpose of preconception care?
A) Ensure that pregnancy complications do not occur.
B) Identify women who should not become pregnant.
C) Encourage healthy lifestyles for families desiring pregnancy.
D) Ensure that women know about prenatal care.
Q2) The nurse's best measure when evaluating the care of a woman in an abusive situation is based on which of the following?
A) The woman's decision to leave her partner
B) The woman's declaration of a safety plan
C) The couple's follow-through on a referral for counselling
D) The woman's gratitude to the nurse for the helpful information
Q3) The nurse who provides preconception care understands which of the following statements about preconception care?
A) It is designed for women who have never been pregnant.
B) It includes risk factor assessments for potential medical and psychological problems but does not consider socioeconomic status.
C) It avoids teaching about safe sex, as the woman is seeking pregnancy.
D) It could include interventions to reduce substance use and abuse.
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Chapter 5: Health Assessment
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which age may a woman discontinue Pap screening?
A) Never
B) After childbearing years
C) After menopause
D) After the age of 70
Q2) Diethylstilbestrol (DES)was used between 1938 and 1971 for pregnant women in order to increase their chances of having a successful pregnancy.Which of the following groups has an increased risk of noncancerous epididymal cysts?
A) DES sons
B) DES daughters
C) DES granddaughters
D) Women who took DES while pregnant
Q3) Mrs.Jones is unable to lie in the lithotomy position for a Pap smear test.Which is an alternative position for a gynecological examination?
A) Sims
B) Prone
C) Lateral
D) High-Fowler's
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Chapter 6: Reproductive Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33736
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has a thick,white,lumpy,cottage cheese-like discharge,with patches on her labia and in her vagina.She complains of intense pruritus.The nurse practitioner would order which preparation for treatment?
A) Fluconazole
B) Tetracycline
C) Clindamycin
D) Acyclovir
Q2) Nurses should be aware that which statement is true with regard to dysmenorrhea?
A) It is more common in older women.
B) It is more common in leaner women who exercise strenuously.
C) Symptoms can begin at any point in the ovulatory cycle.
D) Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen.
Q3) When assessing the patient for amenorrhea,the nurse should be aware that which of the following may cause amenorrhea?
A) Alcohol use
B) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) Lack of exercise
D) Cessation of oral contraception use
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Chapter 7: Infertility, contraception, and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33737
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS).She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection.On the basis of her history,which contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid?
A) Cervical cap
B) Condom
C) Vaginal film
D) Vaginal sheath
Q2) Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of induced abortions?
A) They are performed only for maternal health.
B) They can be achieved only through surgical procedures.
C) They are mostly performed in the second trimester.
D) They can be either medically or surgically induced.
Q3) Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A) Periodic abstinence
B) Barrier methods
C) Hormonal methods
D) They all offer about the same protection.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Preconception, genetics, conception, and Fetal Development
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman's cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly.The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development.Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "We don't really know when such defects occur."
B) "It depends on what caused the defect."
C) "They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development."
D) "They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development."
Q2) Which of the following should the nurse be aware of with regard to the development of the respiratory system?
A) The respiratory system does not begin developing until after the embryonic stage.
B) The infant's lungs are considered mature when the lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is 1:1, at about 32 weeks.
C) Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow, accelerating lung maturity.
D) Fetal respiratory movements are not visible on ultrasound scans until at least 16 weeks.
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10
Chapter 9: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some pregnant patients may complain of changes in their voice and impaired hearing.To what can the nurse ascribe these common reactions?
A) Decreased estrogen level
B) Displacement of the diaphragm, resulting in abdominal breathing
C) Increased vascularity of the upper respiratory tract
D) Increased blood volume
Q2) A woman is in her seventh month of pregnancy.She has been complaining of nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis.How should the nurse interpret this complaint?
A) This is a normal change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen.
B) This is an abnormal cardiovascular alteration as nosebleeds are an ominous sign.
C) She is a victim of domestic violence and is being hit in the face by her partner.
D) She has most likely been using cocaine intranasally.
Q3) The diagnosis of pregnancy is based on which positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Positive hCG test
B) Palpation of fetal outline
C) Ballottement
D) Verification of fetal movement
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Chapter 10: Nursing Care During Pregnancy
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should the nurse be aware of with regard to dental care during pregnancy?
A) Dental care need not be a priority because the woman is getting a lot of calcium anyway.
B) Dental surgery, in particular, is contraindicated because of psychological stress.
C) The woman will be most comfortable with dental treatment in the second trimester.
D) Dental care interferes with the need to practice conscious relaxation.
Q2) For which of the following reasons would breastfeeding be contraindicated?
A) A woman has hepatitis B .
B) A woman has everted nipples.
C) A woman has a history of breast cancer 3 years ago.
D) A woman is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive.
Q3) The multiple marker test is used to assess the fetus for which condition?
A) Down syndrome
B) Diaphragmatic hernia
C) Congenital cardiac abnormality
D) Anencephaly
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Chapter 11: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33741
Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old woman pregnant with a single fetus has a preconception body mass index (BMI)of 24.When she was seen in the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation,she had gained 2 kg since conception.How would the nurse interpret this?
A) This weight gain indicates gestational hypertension.
B) This weight gain indicates that the woman's infant is at risk for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
C) This weight gain cannot be evaluated until the woman has been observed for several more weeks.
D) The woman's weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy.
Q2) A pregnant woman's diet consists almost entirely of whole-grain breads and cereals,fruits,and vegetables.The nurse would be most concerned about this woman's intake of which of the following?
A) Calcium
B) Protein
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D) Folic acid
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Chapter 12: Pregnancy Risk Factors and Assessment:
Maternal
and Fetal
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33742
Sample Questions
Q1) A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labour and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero.Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus?
A) Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
B) Biophysical profile (BPP)
C) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening (MSAFP)
D) Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
Q2) With regard to amniocentesis,what should the nurse be aware of?
A) Because of new imaging techniques, it is now possible in the first trimester.
B) Despite the use of ultrasonography, complications still occur in the mother or infant in 5% to 10% of cases.
C) The shake test, or bubble stability test, is a quick means of determining fetal maturity.
D) The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid is always a cause for concern.
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14
Chapter 13: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33743
Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has been on magnesium sulphate for 20 hours for treatment of pre-eclampsia.She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago.What uterine findings would you expect to assess in this patient?
A) Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period
B) A fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus
C) Scant lochia flow
D) A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow
Q2) The labour of a pregnant woman with pre-eclampsia is going to be induced.Before initiating the oxytocin infusion,the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings,which reveal a platelet count of 90,000,an elevated aspartate transaminase ( AST )level,and a falling hematocrit.These findings are indicative of which of the following?
A) Eclampsia
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation ( DIC )
C) HELLP syndrome
D) Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
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Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Pre-Existing Conditions
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse must be alert for which signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation when caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems?
A) A regular heart rate and hypertension
B) An increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough
C) Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension
D) Shortness of breath; crackles; and an irregular, weak pulse
Q2) A woman with asthma is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage.Which drug would be recommended to treat her bleeding that would not exacerbate her asthma?
A) Oxytocin
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) Hemabate
D) Fentanyl
Q3) Which one of the following congenital anomalies may occur with the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)?
A) Gastroschisis
B) Congenital heart disease
C) Diaphragmatic hernia
D) Intrauterine growth restriction
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Chapter 15: Labour and Birth Processes
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has received a report about a woman in labour.The woman's last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm,30%,and -2.What is the nurse's interpretation of this assessment?
A) The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
B) The cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
C) The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
D) The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
Q2) What should the nurse teach the woman about her position during labour?
A) The supine position commonly used in North America increases blood flow.
B) The "all fours" position, on her hands and knees, is hard on her back.
C) Frequent changes in position will help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort.
D) In a sitting or squatting position her abdominal muscles will have to work harder.
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Chapter 16: Comfort Measures for Labour
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33746
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse be cognizant of with regard to spinal and epidural anaesthesia?
A) It is commonly used for Caesarean births but is not suitable for vaginal births.
B) A high incidence of after-birth headache is seen with spinal blocks.
C) Epidural blocks allow the woman to move freely.
D) Spinal and epidural blocks are never used together.
Q2) When is effleurage most effective?
A) First stage of labour
B) Transition phase of labour
C) Second stage of labour
D) Placental delivery
Q3) Where is the emphasis placed in the current practice of childbirth preparation?
A) The Dick-Read ( naturaI ) childbirth method
B) The Lamaze ( psychoprophylactic ) method
C) The Bradley ( husband-coached ) method
D) Attend childbirth preparation in any or no specific method
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Chapter 17: Fetal Health Surveillance During Labour
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for the labouring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by which of the following?
A) Transient fetal head compression
B) Umbilical cord compression
C) Uteroplacental insufficiency
D) Spontaneous rupture of membranes
Q2) Which fetal heart rate (FHR)finding would concern the nurse during labour?
A) Accelerations with fetal movement
B) Early decelerations
C) An average FHR of 126 beats/min
D) Late decelerations
Q3) Which of the following is recommended for routine use during labour by the Society of Obstetricians & Gynaecologists of Canada ( SOGC )?
A) Intermittent auscultation
B) Continuous external monitoring
C) Fetal pulse oximetry
D) Fetal scalp blood pH
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Chapter 18: Nursing Care During Labour and Birth
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33748
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the characteristics of true labour contractions.The nurse knows that the woman has understood the teaching when she states which of the following about true labour contractions?
A) "They subside when I walk around."
B) "They cause discomfort over the top of my uterus."
C) "They continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower."
D) "They remain irregular but become stronger."
Q2) What should the nurse know about the point of maximal intensity (PMI)of the fetal heart tone (FHT)?
A) It is usually directly over the fetal abdomen.
B) It is in a vertex position heard above the mother's umbilicus.
C) It is heard lower and closer to the midline as the fetus descends and rotates internally.
D) It is in a breech position heard below the mother's umbilicus.
Q3) Which of the following cannot be identified by Leopold manoeuvres?
A) Gender of the fetus
B) Point of maximal intensity
C) Fetal lie and attitude
D) Degree of the presenting part's descent into the pelvis
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Labour and Birth at Risk
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse be aware of in the use of tocolytic therapy to suppress uterine activity?
A) The drugs can be given efficaciously up to the designated beginning of term at 37 weeks.
B) There are no important maternal (as opposed to fetal) contraindications.
C) Its most important function is to afford the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids.
D) If the patient develops pulmonary edema while on tocolytics, intravenous (IV) fluids should be given.
Q2) While caring for a patient whose labour is being augmented with oxytocin,the nurse recognizes that the oxytocin should be discontinued immediately if there is evidence of which of the following?
A) Uterine contractions occurring every 8 to 10 minutes
B) A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 180 with absence of variability
C) The patient needing to void
D) Rupture of the patient's amniotic membranes
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Chapter 20: Maternal Physiological Changes
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interval between the birth of the newborn and the return of the reproductive organs to their normal nonpregnant state is referred to as which of the following?
A) Involutionary period, because of what happens to the uterus
B) Lochia period, because of the nature of the vaginal discharge
C) Mini-tri period, because it lasts only 3 to 6 weeks
D) Puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy
Q2) The nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by which of the following?
A) Overproduction of colostrum
B) Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts
C) Hyperplasia of mammary tissue
D) Congestion of veins and lymphatics
Q3) Which description of postpartum restoration or healing times is accurate?
A) The cervix shortens, becomes firm, and returns to form within a month postpartum.
B) The vagina gradually returns to prepregnancy size by 6 to 10 weeks after childbirth.
C) Most episiotomies heal within a week.
D) Hemorrhoids usually decrease in size within 2 weeks of childbirth.
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Chapter 21: Nursing Care During the Fourth Trimester
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes.What is the most common cause?
A) Vaginal or vulvar hematomas
B) Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix
C) Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly
D) Retained placental fragments
Q2) Nursing care in the fourth trimester includes an important intervention sometimes referred to as taking the time to "mother the mother." What does this expression refer to?
A) Formally initializing individualized care by confirming the woman's and infant's identification ( ID ) numbers on their respective wrist bands
B) Teaching the mother to check the identity of any person who comes to remove the baby from the room
C) Including other family members in the teaching of self-care and child care
D) Nurturing the woman by providing encouragement and support as she takes on the many tasks of motherhood
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Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When dealing with parents who have some form of sensory impairment,nurses should realize that which of the following statements is not true?
A) One of the major difficulties that visually impaired parents experience is the skepticism of health care providers.
B) Visually impaired mothers cannot overcome the infant's need for eye-to-eye contact.
C) The best approach for the nurse is to assess the parents' capabilities rather than focusing on their disabilities.
D) Technological advances, including the Internet, can provide deaf parents with a full range of parenting activities and information.
Q2) Which concern about parenthood is often expressed by visually impaired mothers?
A) Skepticism of nurse
B) Lack of direct eye contact
C) The ability to care for the infant
D) Inability to care for themselves postpartally
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Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perinatal nurse assisting with establishing lactation is aware that acute mastitis can be minimized by which of the following actions?
A) Washing the nipples and breasts with mild soap and water once a day
B) Using proper breastfeeding techniques
C) Wearing a nipple shield for the first few days of breastfeeding
D) Wearing a supportive bra 24 hours a day
Q2) What should the nurse be aware of to provide adequate postpartum care for the woman experiencing postpartum depression ( PPD )with psychotic features?
A) PPD is more likely to occur in women with more than two children.
B) PPD is rarely delusional and then usually about someone trying to harm her (the mother).
C) Although serious, PPD is not likely to require psychiatric hospitalization.
D) PPD may include bipolar disorder.
Q3) What infection is contracted mostly by first-time mothers who are breastfeeding?
A) Endometritis
B) Wound infections
C) Mastitis
D) Urinary tract infections
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Chapter 24: Physiological Adaptations of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn,the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms,his fingers fan out and form a C with the thumb and forefinger,and he has a slight tremor.How would the nurse document this positive finding?
A) Tonic neck reflex
B) Glabellar (Myerson) reflex
C) Babinski reflex
D) Moro reflex
Q2) The nurse caring for the newborn should be aware that which sensory system is least mature at the time of birth?
A) Vision
B) Hearing
C) Smell
D) Taste
Q3) Which statement is true about physiological jaundice?
A) Neonatal jaundice is not common, but kernicterus occurs frequently.
B) The appearance of jaundice during the first 24 hours indicates a pathological process.
C) Jaundice will most likely appear before discharge.
D) Breastfed babies have a lower incidence of jaundice.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Nursing Care of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse be aware of with regard to umbilical cord care?
A) The stump can easily become infected.
B) A nurse noting bleeding from the vessels of the cord should immediately call for assistance.
C) The cord clamp is removed at cord separation.
D) The average cord separation time is 5 to 7 days.
Q2) Which type of blood should be used for genetic screening?
A) Maternal venous
B) Maternal cord blood
C) Fetal cord blood
D) Infant capillary blood
Q3) Which range,in g/L,represents the normal hemoglobin of a healthy full-term infant?
A) 50 to 95
B) 125 to 150
C) 166 to 175
D) 195 to 205
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Chapter 26: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is correct regarding recommendations about infant nutrition according to the Canadian Paediatric Society?
A) Infants should be given only human milk for the first 6 months of life.
B) Infants fed on formula should be started on solid food sooner than breastfed infants.
C) If infants are weaned from breast milk before 12 months, they should receive cow's milk, not formula.
D) After 6 months mothers should shift from breast milk to cow's milk.
Q2) Which statement is incorrect regarding the benefits to the mother associated with breastfeeding?
A) They have a decreased risk of breast cancer.
B) It is an effective method of birth control for the first year after birth.
C) It increases bone density.
D) It may enhance postpartum weight loss.
Q3) Which of the following is a late hunger cue in the newborn?
A) Rooting
B) Crying
C) Tongue movements
D) Hand to mouth movements
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Chapter 27: Infants With Gestational Age-Related Problems
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant at 36 weeks of gestation has increasing respirations (80 to 100 breaths/min with marked substernal retractions).The infant is given oxygen by continuous nasal positive airway pressure.Which arterial oxygen level would indicate hypoxia?
A) PaO<sub>2</sub> of 67
B) PaO<sub>2</sub> of 89
C) PaO<sub>2</sub> of 45
D) PaO<sub>2</sub> of 73
Q2) As a result of large body surface in relation to weight,the preterm infant is at high risk for heat loss and cold stress.By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection,conduction,radiation,and evaporation),the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability.While evaluating the plan that has been implemented,the nurse knows that the infant is experiencing cold stress when he or she exhibits which of the following?
A) Decreased respiratory rate
B) Bradycardia followed by an increased heart rate
C) Apnea and flushed colour
D) Increased physical activity
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Chapter 28: The Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cleft lip or palate is a common congenital midline fissure or opening in the lip or palate resulting from the primary palate's failure to fuse.Multiple genetic,and to a lesser extent,environmental factors may lead to the development of a cleft lip or palate.Which of the following is one factor?
A) Alcohol consumption
B) Female gender
C) Use of antispasmodic medication
D) Antibiotic use in pregnancy
Q2) Near the end of the first week of life,an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-coloured,maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus.What is the newborn showing signs of?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Congenital syphilis
D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
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Chapter 29: Contemporary Pediatric Nursing in Canada
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following factors is most closely related to the type of injury a child is particularly susceptible to at a specific age?
A) The physical health of the child
B) The developmental level of the child
C) The educational level of the child
D) The number of responsible adults living in the child's home
Q2) Which of the following is one of the leading causes of death in infants younger than one year?
A) Congenital anomalies
B) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
C) Respiratory distress syndrome
D) Infections specific to the perinatal period
Q3) What do morbidity statistics describe?
A) The number of individuals who have died over a specific period
B) The prevalence of a specific illness in the population at a particular time
C) The number of disease cases that is higher than expected in a given community
D) Disease occurring regularly within a geographic location
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Chapter 30: Community-Based Nursing Care of the Child and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Demography is the study of population characteristics.Which demographic characteristic is associated with an increased risk for hemophilia?
A) Age
B) Race and ethnicity
C) Gender
D) Socioeconomic status
Q2) A number of children in the same neighbourhood have developed illness related to lead paint exposure.Which of the three factors that form the epidemiological triangle is responsible?
A) Agent
B) Host factor
C) Environmental factor
D) Lifestyle factor
Q3) Which term best describes the identification of the distribution and causes of disease,injury,or illness?
A) Nursing process
B) Epidemiological process
C) Community-based statistics
D) Mortality and morbidity statistics
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Chapter 31: Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nicole and Kelly,age 5 years,are identical twins.Their parents tell the nurse that the girls always want to be together.Which statement about twins should the nurse's suggestions be based on?
A) Some twins thrive best when they are constantly together.
B) Individuation cannot occur if twins are together too much.
C) Separating twins at an early age helps them develop mentally.
D) When twins are constantly together, pathologic bonding occurs.
Q2) When assessing a family,the nurse determines that the parents exert little or no control over their children.What is this parenting style called?
A) Permissive
B) Dictatorial
C) Democratic
D) Authoritarian
Q3) Which type of family is made up entirely of members related by blood?
A) Consanguineous
B) Affinal
C) Family of origin
D) Household
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33
Chapter 32: Social, cultural, and Religious Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Currently,what is the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population in Canada?
A) Families
B) "Runaway" adolescents
C) Migrant farm workers
D) Individuals with mental disorders
Q2) Maria is a Spanish-speaking 5-year-old girl who has started kindergarten in an English-speaking school.Crying most of the time,she appears helpless and unable to function in this new situation.What is the best explanation for her behaviour?
A) She lacks adequate culture for attending school.
B) She lacks the maturity needed to attend school.
C) She is experiencing culture shock.
D) She is experiencing minority group discrimination.
Q3) When minority groups migrate to another country,what is the involuntary process involving a certain degree of cultural or ethnic blending?
A) Acculturation
B) Ethnocentrism
C) Cultural shock
D) Cultural sensitivity
34
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Chapter 33: Developmental Influences on Child Health
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an infant weighed 3 kg at birth,how much would he be expected to weigh at age 1 year?
A) 6
B) 9
C) 12
D) 15
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the preoperational stage of cognitive development?
A) Thinking is logical.
B) Thinking is concrete.
C) Reasoning is inductive.
D) Generalizations can be made.
Q3) Which statement is true about the basal metabolic rate (BMR)in children?
A) It is reduced by fever.
B) It is slightly higher in boys than it is in girls at all ages.
C) It increases with the age of the child.
D) It decreases as the proportion of surface area to body mass increases.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Communication, history, physical, and Developmental Assessment
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which data is included in a health history?
A) Review of systems
B) Physical assessment
C) Vital sign assessment
D) Growth measurements
Q2) A nurse is taking the sexual history of an adolescent girl.Which is the best way to determine whether she is sexually active?
A) Ask, "Are you sexually active?"
B) Ask, "Are you having sex with anyone?"
C) Ask, "Are you having sex with a boyfriend?"
D) Ask both the girl and her parent if she is sexually active.
Q3) What type of breath sound is normally heard over the entire surface of the lungs,except for the upper intrascapular area and the area beneath the manubrium?
A) Vesicular
B) Bronchial
C) Adventitious
D) Bronchovesicular
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Pain Assessment and Management
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Q1) Which of the following statements represents accurate information about the physiological assessment of children's pain?
A) The best indicator of pain in children of all ages
B) Essential to determine whether a child is telling the truth about pain
C) Of most value is when children also report having pain
D) Of limited value as sole indicator of pain
Q2) Kyle,age 6 months,is brought to the clinic.His parent says,"I think he hurts.He cries and rolls his head from side to side a lot." This most likely suggests which feature of pain?
A) Type
B) Severity
C) Duration
D) Location
Q3) Which statement is true about non-pharmacological strategies for pain management?
A) They may reduce pain perception.
B) They make pharmacological strategies unnecessary.
C) They usually take too long to implement.
D) They trick children into believing they do not have pain.
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Chapter 36: The Infant and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best play activity for a 6-month-old infant to provide tactile stimulation?
A) Allow the infant to splash in the bath.
B) Give the infant various coloured blocks.
C) Play a music box, CDs, or MP3 player.
D) Use an infant swing or stroller.
Q2) The clinic is lending a federally approved car seat to an infant's family.Where is the safest place to put the car seat?
A) Front-facing in the back seat
B) Rear-facing in the back seat
C) Front-facing in the front seat with airbag on the passenger side
D) Rear-facing in the front seat if an air bag is on the passenger side
Q3) Which behaviour indicates that an infant has developed object permanence?
A) Recognizes familiar face, such as mother
B) Recognizes familiar objects, such as a bottle
C) Actively searches for a hidden object
D) Secures objects by pulling on a string
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Chapter 37: The Toddler and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is most important in predisposing toddlers to frequent infections such as otitis media,tonsillitis,and upper respiratory tract infections?
A) Respirations are abdominal.
B) Pulse and respiratory rates are slower than those in infancy.
C) Defence mechanisms are less efficient than those during infancy.
D) Short, straight internal ear/throat structures and large tonsil/adenoid lymph tissue.
Q2) What best describes a toddler's cognitive development at age 20 months?
A) Searches for an object only if he or she sees it being hidden
B) Realizes that "out of sight" is not out of reach
C) Puts objects into a container but cannot take them out
D) Understands the passage of time, such as "just a minute" and "in an hour"
Q3) According to Piaget,which stage is a 17-month-old child expected to be in?
A) Trust
B) Preoperations
C) Secondary circular reactions
D) Tertiary circular reactions
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Chapter 38: The Preschooler and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a hospitalized 4-year-old boy,Ryan.His parents tell the nurse that they will be back to visit at 6 p.m.When Ryan asks the nurse when his parents are coming,what is the nurse's best response?
A) "They will be here soon."
B) "They will come after dinner."
C) "Let me show you on the clock when 6 p.m. is."
D) "I will tell you every time I see you how much longer it will be."
Q2) Why are imaginary playmates beneficial to the preschool child?
A) They take the place of social interactions.
B) They take the place of pets and other toys.
C) They become friends in times of loneliness.
D) They accomplish what the child has already successfully accomplished.
Q3) Which type of play is most typical of the preschool period?
A) Solitary
B) Parallel
C) Associative
D) Team
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Chapter 39: The School-Age Child and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse has been asked to begin teaching sex education in Grade 5.What should the nurse recognize about this grade level and sex education?
A) Children in the fifth grade are too young for sex education.
B) Children should be discouraged from asking too many questions.
C) Correct terminology should be reserved for children who are older.
D) Sex can be presented as a normal part of growth and development.
Q2) A 9-year-old girl often comes to the school nurse complaining of stomach pains.Her teacher says that she is completing her schoolwork satisfactorily,but lately she has been somewhat aggressive and stubborn in the classroom.The school nurse should recognize this as which one of the following?
A) Signs of stress
B) Developmental delay
C) A physical problem causing emotional stress
D) Lack of adjustment to the school environment
Q3) What is the role of the peer group in the life of school-age children?
A) It gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility.
B) It allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer time.
C) It decreases their need to learn appropriate sex roles.
D) It provides them with security as they gain independence from their parents.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: The Adolescent and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mean age of menarche for North American girls?
A) 11.5 years
B) 12.75 years
C) 13.5 years
D) 14 years
Q2) Which aspect of cognition develops during adolescence?
A) Ability to use a future time perspective
B) Ability to place things in a sensible and logical order
C) Ability to see things from the point of view of another
D) Progress from making judgements based on what they see to judgements based on what they reason
Q3) Which sentence best describes anorexia nervosa?
A) It occurs most frequently in adolescent males.
B) It occurs most frequently in adolescents from lower socioeconomic groups.
C) It results from a posterior pituitary disorder.
D) It results in severe weight loss in the absence of obvious physical causes.
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Chapter 41: Chronic Illness, disability, and End-Of-Life Care
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A preschooler is found digging up a pet bird that was recently buried after it died.What is the best explanation for this behaviour?
A) He has a morbid preoccupation with death.
B) He is looking to see if a ghost took it away.
C) The loss is not yet resolved, and professional counselling is needed.
D) Reassurance is needed that the pet has not gone somewhere else.
Q2) An appropriate nursing intervention when providing comfort and support for a child when death is imminent is to do which of the following?
A) Limit care to essentials.
B) Avoid playing music near the child.
C) Explain to the child the need for the constant measurement of vital signs.
D) Whisper to the child instead of using a normal voice.
Q3) The nurse comes into the room of a child who was just diagnosed with a chronic disability.The child's parents begin to yell at the nurse about a variety of concerns.What is the nurse's best response?
A) "What is really wrong?"
B) "Being angry is only natural."
C) "Yelling at me will not change things."
D) "I will come back when you settle down."
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Cognitive and Sensory Impairment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is fragile X syndrome?
A) It is a chromosome defect affecting only females.
B) It is a chromosome defect that follows the pattern of X-linked recessive disorders.
C) It is the second most common genetic cause of cognitive impairment.
D) It is the most common cause of noninherited cognitive impairment.
Q2) A young child who has an intelligence quotient (IQ)of 45 is which of the following?
A) Within the lower limits of the range of normal intelligence
B) Mildly cognitively impaired but educable
C) Moderately cognitively impaired but trainable
D) Severely cognitively impaired and completely dependent on others for care
Q3) A nurse suspects possible visual impairment in a child who displays which one of the following?
A) Excessive rubbing of the eyes
B) Rapid lateral movement of the eyes
C) Delay in speech development
D) Lack of interest in casual conversation with peers
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Chapter 43: Family-Centred Home Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Home care is being considered for a young child who is ventilator dependent.Which factor is most important in determining whether home care is appropriate?
A) Level of parents' education
B) Presence of two parents in the home
C) Preparation and training of the family
D) Family's ability to assume all health care costs
Q2) The home health nurse is looking after a child who requires complex care.The family expresses frustration over obtaining accurate information concerning their child's illness and its management.What is the best action for the nurse to take?
A) Determine why the family is frustrated.
B) Refer the family to the child's primary care practitioner.
C) Clarify the family's request and provide the information they want.
D) Answer only questions that are essential to the family knowledge base.
Q3) What is likely to be the most effective option for case management?
A) One nursing case manager
B) The insurance company
C) A panel of experts
D) A multidisciplinary team
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45
Chapter 44: Reaction to Illness and Hospitalization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kimberly,age 3 years,is being admitted for about 1 week of hospitalization.Her parents tell the nurse that they are going to buy her "a lot of new toys because she will be in the hospital." The nurse's reply should be based on knowing which of the following statements?
A) New toys make hospitalization easier.
B) New toys are usually better than older ones for children of this age.
C) At this age, children often need the comfort and reassurance of familiar toys from home.
D) Buying new toys for a hospitalized child is a maladaptive way to cope with parental guilt.
Q2) Four-year-old Brian appears to be upset by hospitalization.What is an appropriate intervention?
A) Let him know that it is all right to cry.
B) Give him time to gain control of himself.
C) Show him how other children are cooperating.
D) Tell him what a big boy he is to be so quiet.
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Chapter 45: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preparing to give "enemas until clear" to a young child,the nurse should select which of the following?
A) Tap water
B) Normal saline
C) Oil retention
D) Fleet solution
Q2) Kimberly,age 3 years,has a fever associated with a viral illness.Her mother calls the nurse,reporting a fever of 38°C even though she had acetaminophen 2 hours ago.What knowledge should the nurse's response be based upon?
A) Fevers such as this are common with viral illnesses.
B) Seizures are common in children when antipyretics are ineffective.
C) Fever over 38°C indicates greater severity of illness.
D) Fever over 38°C indicates a probable bacterial infection.
Q3) Which guideline is most appropriate for intramuscular administration of medication in school-age children?
A) Inject the medication as rapidly as possible.
B) Insert the needle quickly, using a dart-like motion.
C) Penetrate the skin immediately after cleansing the site, before it has dried.
D) Have the child stand, if possible, and if he or she is cooperative.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Respiratory Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s)of cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A) Meconium ileus
B) History of poor intestinal absorption
C) Foul-smelling, frothy, greasy stools
D) Recurrent pneumonia and lung infections
Q2) b-Adrenergic agonists and methylxanthines are often prescribed for a child with an asthma attack.How do these medications act on asthma?
A) They liquefy secretions.
B) They dilate the bronchioles.
C) They reduce inflammation in the lungs.
D) They reduce infection.
Q3) What should be included in nursing care for a child with staphylococcal pneumonia?
A) Nursing care should be supportive and directed at relieving symptoms.
B) Nursing care should include round-the-clock administration of antitussive agents.
C) Nursing care should include strict intake and output to avoid congestive heart failure.
D) Nursing care should include administration of narcotics.
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Chapter 47: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a child with probable appendicitis,the nurse should watch for which one of the following as a sign of perforation?
A) Bradycardia
B) Anorexia
C) Sudden relief from pain
D) Decreased abdominal distension
Q2) An infant with short bowel syndrome will be discharged home on total parenteral nutrition (TPN)and gastrostomy feedings.What should nursing care include?
A) Prepare the family for impending death.
B) Teach the family to watch for signs of central venous catheter infection.
C) Teach the family how to calculate caloric needs.
D) Secure TPN and gastrostomy tubing under the diaper, to lessen risk of dislodgment.
Q3) What is the viral pathogen that frequently causes acute diarrhea in young children?
A) Giardia organisms
B) Shigella organisms
C) Rotavirus
D) Salmonella organisms
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Chapter 48: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parents of a 3-year-old child with congenital heart disease are afraid to let their child play with other children because of possible overexertion.What knowledge should inform the nurse's reply?
A) The child needs opportunities to play with peers.
B) The child needs to understand that peers' activities are too strenuous.
C) Parents can meet all the child's needs.
D) Constant parental supervision is needed to avoid overexertion.
Q2) What type of shock is characterized by a hypersensitive reaction causing massive vasodilation and capillary leaks that may occur with a drug or latex allergy?
A) Neurogenic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Hypovolemic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock
Q3) Which one of the following drugs is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitor?
A) Captopril (Capoten)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
D) Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Hematological and Immunological Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several blood tests are ordered for a preschool child with severe anemia.She is crying and upset because she remembers the venipuncture done at the clinic 2 days ago.What should the nurse explain to the child?
A) Venipuncture discomfort is very brief.
B) Only one venipuncture will be needed.
C) Topical application of local anaesthetic can eliminate venipuncture pain.
D) Most blood tests on children require only a finger puncture because a small amount of blood is needed.
Q2) The parents of a child hospitalized with sickle cell anemia tell the nurse that they are concerned about narcotic analgesics causing addiction.What should the nurse explain about narcotic analgesics?
A) They are often ordered but not usually needed.
B) They rarely cause addiction because they are medically indicated.
C) They are given as a last resort because of the threat of addiction.
D) They are used only if other measures, such as ice packs, are ineffective.
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Chapter 50: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the clinical manifestations of chronic renal failure is uremic frost.What is the best description of this term?
A) Deposits of urea crystals in urine
B) Deposits of urea crystals on skin
C) Over-excretion of blood urea nitrogen
D) Inability of body to tolerate cold temperatures
Q2) What is the term for inflammation of the bladder?
A) Cystitis
B) Urosepsis
C) Urethritis
D) Bacteriuria
Q3) Which clinical manifestation is seen in a child with chronic renal failure?
A) Hypotension
B) Massive hematuria
C) Hypokalemia
D) Unpleasant "uremic" breath odour
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Chapter 51: Cerebral Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment of brain tumours in children consists of which one of the following therapies?
A) Radiation
B) Bone marrow transplantation
C) Myelography
D) Stem cell transplantation
Q2) What is the priority nursing intervention when caring for a child with Reye's syndrome?
A) Monitor intake and output.
B) Prevent skin breakdown.
C) Observe for petechiae.
D) Do range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.
Q3) Which one of the following sentences describes a concussion?
A) Petechial hemorrhages that cause amnesia
B) Visible bruising and tearing of cerebral tissue occurs
C) A transient, reversible neuronal dysfunction
D) A slight lesion that develops remote from the site of trauma
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Chapter 52: Endocrine Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing with a child and family the various sites used for insulin injections.Which site usually has the fastest rate of absorption?
A) Arm
B) Leg
C) Buttock
D) Abdomen
Q2) Which statement best describes hypopituitarism?
A) Growth is normal during the first 3 years of life.
B) Weight is usually more retarded than height.
C) Skeletal proportions are normal for the age.
D) Most of these children have subnormal intelligence.
Q3) A neonate born with ambiguous genitalia is diagnosed with congenital adrenogenital hyperplasia.Therapeutic management includes administering which one of the following?
A) Vitamin D
B) Cortisone
C) Stool softeners
D) Calcium carbonate
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Chapter 53: Integumentary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is often a cause of cellulitis?
A) Herpes zoster
B) Candida albicans
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Streptococcus or Staphylococcus organisms
Q2) What should the nurse know about Lyme disease?
A) It is difficult to prevent.
B) It is easily treated with oral antibiotics in stages 1, 2, and 3.
C) It is caused by a spirochete that enters the skin through a tick bite.
D) It is common in geographic areas where the soil contains the mycotic spores that cause the disease.
Q3) The family of a 4-month-old infant will be vacationing at the beach.What is the best recommendation about sun exposure for this family?
A) Use sunblock on the infant's nose and ear tips.
B) Use a topical sunscreen with a sun protective factor of 15.
C) The infant can be exposed to the sun for 15-minute increments.
D) Keep the infant in total shade at all times.
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Chapter 54: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary method for treating osteomyelitis?
A) Joint replacement
B) Bracing and casting
C) Intravenous antibiotic therapy
D) Long-term corticosteroid therapy
Q2) What is an important nursing consideration when caring for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis ( JIA )?
A) Apply ice packs to relieve stiffness and pain.
B) Administer acetaminophen to reduce inflammation.
C) Teach the child and family the correct administration of medications.
D) Encourage range-of-motion exercises during periods of inflammation.
Q3) What effect does immobilization have on the cardiovascular system?
A) Venous stasis
B) Increased vasopressor mechanism
C) Normal distribution of blood volume
D) Increased efficiency of orthostatic neurovascular reflexes
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Chapter 55: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which set of the following symptoms are characteristic of spastic cerebral palsy?
A) Hypertonicity and poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion
B) Athetosis and dystonic movements
C) Wide-based gait and poor performance of rapid, repetitive movements
D) Tremors and lack of active movement
Q2) The nurse is caring for a neonate born with a myelomeningocele.Surgery to repair the defect is scheduled for the next day.What is the most appropriate way to position and feed this neonate?
A) Left lateral and tube feed
B) Prone, turn head to side, and nipple feed
C) Supine in infant carrier and nipple feed
D) Supine, with defect supported with rolled blankets, and nipple feed
Q3) A latex allergy is suspected in a child with spina bifida.Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?
A) Avoid using any latex product.
B) Use only non-allergenic latex products.
C) Administer medication for long-term desensitization.
D) Teach the family about long-term management of asthma.
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