Reproductive Health Nursing Question
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Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing focuses on the principles and practices necessary to promote and maintain reproductive health across the lifespan. This course covers comprehensive care for individuals and families in matters related to reproductive systems, including sexuality, contraception, fertility, pregnancy, childbirth, postpartum care, and menopause. Emphasis is placed on patient education, counseling, culturally sensitive care, prevention of reproductive health problems, and the management of common reproductive system disorders. Students learn to apply evidence-based practice and ethical considerations while supporting the health and well-being of diverse populations within community and clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who had a vaginal birth 12 hours ago without complications wants to go home. Typical discharge orders at this facility call for discharge to occur at 48 hours postbirth. The newborn and mother are considered to be stable and an order is written for discharge, with follow-up by home health. What type of variance would this discharge indicate?
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Equivocal
D) Without incidence
Answer: A
Q2) Capitated care
A)This includes health maintenance organizations (HMOs), point of service plans (POSs), and preferred provider organizations (PPOs).
B)The payer of the health insurance (usually the employer or the government) pays a set amount of money each year to a network of primary care providers (PCPs).
C)Medical diagnoses are classified based on the type of complexity of services generally required.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principle of teaching should the nurse use to ensure learning in a family situation?
A) Motivate the family with praise and positive feedback.
B) Learning is best accomplished with the lecture format.
C) Present complex subject material first while the family is alert and ready to learn.
D) Families should be taught using medical jargon so they will be able to understand the technical language used by physicians.
Answer: A
Q2) The client makes the statement: "I'm afraid to take the baby home tomorrow." Which response by the nurse would be the most therapeutic?
A) "You're afraid to take the baby home?"
B) "Don't you have a mother who can come and help?"
C) "You should read the literature I gave you before you leave."
D) "I was scared when I took my first baby home, but everything worked out."
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A charge nurse is working on a postpartum unit and discovers that one of the clients did not receive AM care during her shift assessment. The charge nurse questions the nurse assigned to provide care and finds out that the nurse thought that "the client should just do it by herself because she will have to do this at home." On further questioning of the nurse, it is determined that the rest of her assigned clients were provided AM care. The assigned nurse has violated which ethical principle?
A) Justice
B) Truth
C) Confidentiality
D) Autonomy
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is teaching a homeless pregnant teenager about prenatal care. Which should the nurse emphasize in the teaching session?
A) The importance of naming the baby
B) Risk factors associated with pregnancy
C) Information about employment opportunities
D) Eating habits that will provide adequate nutrition
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.
Q2) Which describes the levator ani?
A) Division of the fallopian tube
B) Collection of three pairs of muscles
C) Imaginary line that divides the true pelvis and false pelvis
D) Basin-shaped structure at the lower end of the spine
Q3) Which hormonal effect is noted during the menstrual cycle?
A) LH and FSH secretion rise during the ovulatory phase.
B) A negative feedback mechanism is exhibited by the anterior pituitary gland and ovaries.
C) The posterior pituitary gland secretes LH.
D) Estrogen secretion enhances FSH secretion.
Q4) Which 16-year-old girl may experience secondary amenorrhea?
A) Jackie, 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb
B) Karen, 5 ft 9 in, 150 lb
C) Carol, 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb
D) Linda, 5 ft 4 in, 120 lb
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who have two copies of the same abnormal autosomal dominant gene will usually be:
A) mildly affected with the disorder.
B) infertile and unable to transmit the gene.
C) carriers of the trait but not affected with the disorder.
D) more severely affected by the disorder than people with one copy of the gene.
Q2) Which point should the nurse include when telling a couple about the prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders?
A) The diagnosis may be slow and could be inconclusive.
B) A comprehensive evaluation will result in an accurate diagnosis.
C) Common disorders can be quickly diagnosed through blood tests.
D) Diagnosis can be obtained promptly through most hospital laboratories.
Q3) X-linked recessive
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Q4) Autosomal dominant
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is conducting prenatal education classes for a group of parents. Which purposes should the nurse explain that are performed by the amniotic fluid? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cushions the fetus
B) Protects the skin of the fetus
C) Provides nourishment for the fetus
D) Allows for buoyancy for fetal movement
E) Maintains a stable temperature for the fetus
Q2) An expectant parent says to the nurse, "When my sister's baby was born, it was covered in a cheeselike coating. What is the purpose of this coating?" The correct response by the nurse is to explain that the purpose of vernix caseosa is to:
A) regulate fetal temperature.
B) protect the fetal skin from amniotic fluid.
C) promote normal peripheral nervous system development.
D) allow the transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion.
Q3) Intervillous spaces
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant immigrant has an unknown immunization history. When she presents for routine vaccinations, which will the nurse administer?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Measles
C) Rubella
D) Varicella
Q2) The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about signs of possible pregnancy complications. Which should the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Report watery vaginal discharge.
B) Report puffiness of the face or around the eyes.
C) Report any bloody show when you go into labor.
D) Report visual disturbances, such as spots before the eyes.
E) Report any dependent edema that occurs at the end of the day.
Q3) Which are presumptive signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Quickening
B) Amenorrhea
C) Ballottement
D) Goodell's sign
E) Chadwick's sign
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which comment made by a new mother exhibits understanding of her toddler's response to a new sibling?
A) "I can't believe he is sucking his thumb again."
B) "He is being difficult and I don't have time to deal with him."
C) "When we brought the baby home, we made Michael stop sleeping in the crib."
D) "My husband is going to stay with the baby so I can take Michael to the park tomorrow."
Q2) A client who is 7 months pregnant states, "I'm worried that something will happen to my baby." Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "Your baby is doing fine."
B) "Tell me about your concerns."
C) "There is nothing to worry about."
D) "The doctor is taking good care of you and your baby."
Q3) Which is a major concern among members of lower socioeconomic groups?
A) Practicing preventive health care
B) Meeting health needs as they occur
C) Maintaining an optimistic view of life
D) Maintaining group health insurance for their families
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the appropriate weight gain at 28 weeks' gestation for a client with a normal BMI (body mass index) before pregnancy.
A) 10 pounds
B) 19 pounds
C) 25 pounds
D) 30 pounds
Q2) When planning a diet for a pregnant client, which nutritional interventions should be implemented?
A) Fluids should be restricted to 6 glasses a day to minimize fluid retention and occurrence of edema.
B) Protein in the diet should be increased to meet growth and development needs.
C) Nutrient density should be used only if there are problems with weight gain during the course of the pregnancy.
D) Advise the client that the pattern of weight gain is not as important as the overall weight gained during the pregnancy.
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11
Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Multiple-marker screening
C) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
D) Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
Q2) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a client hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Determine if a metabolic disorder is genetic.
B) Identify the sex of the fetus.
C) Identify abnormal fetal cells.
D) Determine fetal lung maturity.
Q3) What does nursing care after amniocentesis include?
A) Forcing fluids by mouth
B) Monitoring uterine activity
C) Placing the client in a supine position for 2 hours
D) Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site
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12
Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client asks, "What can I do to help decrease the amount of pain with labor?" What should be the nurse's best response?
A) "Nothing. That is the way God intended it to be."
B) "We can give you medications to help with the pain."
C) "You should not worry about the pain; leave that concern up to the staff."
D) "By trying to relax, the contractions will be more efficient and the pain may be less."
Q2) A pregnant client is anticipating a vaginal birth without complications. During the course of her labor, complications arise and the fetus has to be delivered via cesarean section. The client is visibly upset and wants to know why this has happened to her because she did everything right during her pregnancy. Which priority nursing diagnosis would apply?
A) Risk for injury
B) Pain
C) Impaired skin integrity
D) Anxiety
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pregnant clients can usually tolerate the normal blood loss associated with childbirth because they have:
A) a higher hematocrit.
B) increased leukocytes.
C) increased blood volume.
D) a lower fibrinogen level.
Q2) Which factor ensures that the smallest anterior-posterior diameter of the fetal head enters the pelvis?
A) Station
B) Flexion
C) Descent
D) Engagement
Q3) The assessment finding which indicates that the client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor is:
A) 80% effacement.
B) dilation of 5 cm.
C) presence of bloody show.
D) regular contraction every 3 to 4 minutes.
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14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnosis would take priority in the care of a primipara client with no visible support person in attendance who has entered the second stage of labor after a first stage of labor lasting 4 hours?
A) Fluid volume deficit (FVD) related to fluid loss during labor and birth process
B) Fatigue related to length of labor requiring increased energy expenditure
C) Acute pain related to increased intensity of contractions
D) Anxiety related to imminent birth process
Q2) The nurse assesses the amniotic fluid. Which characteristic presents the lowest risk of fetal complications?
A) Bloody
B) Clear with bits of vernix caseosa
C) Green and thick
D) Yellow and cloudy with foul odor
Q3) Which should the nurse recognize as being associated with fetal compromise?
A) Active fetal movements
B) Fetal heart rate in the 140s
C) Contractions lasting 90 seconds
D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse sees a pattern on the fetal monitor that looks similar to early decelerations, but the deceleration begins near the acme of the contraction and continues well beyond the end of the contraction. Which nursing action indicates the proper evaluation of this situation?
A) This pattern reflects variable decelerations. No interventions are necessary at this time.
B) Document this reassuring fetal heart rate pattern but decrease the rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid.
C) Continue to monitor these early decelerations, which occur as the fetal head is compressed during a contraction.
D) This deceleration pattern is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, so the nurse acts quickly to improve placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply.
Q2) Which nursing action is correct when initiating electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Lubricate the tocotransducer with an ultrasound gel.
B) Securely apply the tocotransducer with a strap or belt.
C) Inform the client that she should remain in the semi-Fowler position.
D) Determine the position of the fetus before attaching the electrode to the maternal abdomen.
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Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best time to teach nonpharmacologic pain control methods to an unprepared laboring client is during which stage?
A) Latent phase
B) Active phase
C) Second stage
D) Transition phase
Q2) Excessive anxiety during labor heightens the client's sensitivity to pain by increasing:
A) muscle tension.
B) the pain threshold.
C) blood flow to the uterus.
D) rest time between contractions.
Q3) The method of anesthesia in labor that is considered the safest for the fetus is:
A) epidural block.
B) pudendal block.
C) local infiltration.
D) spinal (subarachnoid) block.
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client is most at risk for a uterine rupture?
A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision
B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth
C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births
D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant
Q2) For which client should the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion be discontinued immediately?
A) A client in transition with contractions every 2 minutes lasting 90 seconds each
B) A client in early labor with contractions every 5 minutes lasting 40 seconds each
C) A client in active labor with contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds each
D) A client in active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes lasting 70 to 80 seconds each
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postpartal overdistention of the bladder and urinary retention can lead to which complication?
A) Fever and increased blood pressure
B) Postpartum hemorrhage and eclampsia
C) Urinary tract infection and uterine rupture
D) Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection
Q2) If the fundus is palpated on the right side of the abdomen above the expected level, the nurse should suspect that the client has which?
A) Distended bladder
B) Normal involution
C) Been lying on her right side too long
D) Stretched ligaments that are unable to support the uterus
Q3) Which maternal event is abnormal in the early postpartal period?
A) Diuresis and diaphoresis
B) Flatulence and constipation
C) Extreme hunger and thirst
D) Lochial color changes from rubra to alba
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching new parents about behavior cues that indicate their infant has had enough stimulation. Which cues should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) The infant kicks his legs.
B) The infant is quiet and alert.
C) The infant splays his fingers.
D) The infant looks at their faces.
Q2) During which stage of role attainment do the parents become acquainted with their baby and combine parenting activities with cues from the infant?
A) Formal
B) Informal
C) Personal
D) Anticipatory
Q3) Letting-go
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning to conduct the initial assessment of a full-term newborn. Included in the plan is providing a neutral thermal environment. To accomplish this plan, what is the desired environmental temperature to conduct the assessment?
A) 24° to 27° C (75.2° to 80.6° F)
B) 28° to 31.5° C (82.4° to 88.7° F)
C) 32° to 33.5° C (89.6° to 92.3° F)
D) 34° to 37.5° C (93.2° to 99.5° F)
Q2) Parents ask the nurse, "What makes the opening between the baby's atriums close at birth?" The nurse's response is that cardiovascular changes that cause the foramen ovale to close at birth are a direct result of:
A) changes in the hepatic blood flow.
B) increased pressure in the left atrium.
C) increased pressure in the right atrium.
D) decreased blood flow to the left ventricle.
Q3) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
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21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristics indicate a preterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Translucent skin
B) Extended limp arms and legs
C) The ear springs back when folded
D) Square window angle of 45 degrees or less
E) Large clitoris and labia minora in the female newborn
Q2) The nurse is assessing a newborn delivered 24 hours ago for jaundice. What is the best way to evaluate for this finding?
A) Depress the tip of the nose.
B) Stroke the outer aspect of the foot.
C) Place a finger in the palm of the hand.
D) Rotate the hips in an upward and outward direction.
Q3) Molding
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) A nursing student has been caring for a client and her newborn all morning. After taking the newborn to the nursery for tests, the student is returning the newborn to the mother. Which procedure is correct for identifying the newborn?
A) Ask the mother to state her name and the name of her infant.
B) Call out the mother's full name before leaving the infant with her.
C) Have the mother read her printed band number and verify that it matches the infant's number.
D) Return the infant with no special procedure because the student knows the mother and infant.
Q2) A 38 weeks' gestation fetus is delivered via cesarean section and transported to the newborn nursery in an isolette. Apgar scores were 8, 9, and 10. At this time, the infant is receiving an initial assessment in the newborn nursery. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to potential equipment malfunction of radiant warmer
B) Altered tissue perfusion related to use of medications during delivery process
C) Ineffective airway clearance due to mode of delivery and use of anesthetics
D) Risk for ineffective thermoregulation related to gestational age
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) How many milliliters per kilogram (mL/kg) of fluids does a newborn need daily for the first 3 to 5 days of life?
A) 20 to 30
B) 40 to 60
C) 60 to 100
D) 120 to 150
Q2) Which is the hormone necessary for milk production?
A) Estrogen
B) Prolactin
C) Progesterone
D) Lactogen
Q3) Which should the nurse recommend to the postpartum client to prevent nipple trauma?
A) Assess the nipples before each feeding.
B) Limit the feeding time to less than 5 minutes.
C) Wash the nipples daily with mild soap and water.
D) Position the infant so the nipple is far back in the mouth.
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24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) During the first 6 months of life, the infant should have well-baby checkups at which interval?
A) 1 to 2 weeks
B) 2 to 4 weeks
C) 1 to 2 months
D) 3 to 4 months
Q2) A client is being prepared for discharge with her newborn. She tells you about the antique crib she inherited from her grandmother and how excited she is about using it for her newborn. Which information should be cause for concern?
A)The crib slats are 3 1/2 inches apart.
B) The crib has been stripped and repainted with a lead-free paint.
C) The mattress fits snugly in the crib with ½-inch space around the sides.
D) The side rail hardware has been replaced so that the latches remain fastened.
Q3) Infant immunizations should begin at which age?
A) Birth
B) 2 months
C) 3 months
D) 4 months
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) What is most likely to be a concern for an older mother?
A) Nutrition and diet planning
B) Exercise and fitness
C) Having enough rest and sleep
D) Effective contraceptive methods
Q2) A client at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. Which is the reason the nurse should give to counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake?
A) The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth.
B) The fetus is at risk for severe nervous system injury.
C) The client will be at risk for abusing other substances as well.
D) A daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism.
Q3) Which congenital defects in a newborn are associated with long-term parenting problems? (Select all that apply.)
A) Polydactyl
B) Cleft lip and palate
C) Ventral septal defect
D) Ambiguous genitalia
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rank the following interventions in the correct sequence for the client diagnosed with gestational trophoblastic disease:
a. IV oxytocin
b. Vacuum aspiration and curettage
c. Evaluation of hCG level every week
d. Lab studies for type, crossmatch, and coagulation
Q2) A health care provider reports to the labor nurse that a patient is being transferred from the clinic directly to the hospital with possible preeclampsia. What is the nurse's priority action when the patient is admitted?
A) Obtain the patient's weight.
B) Take the patient's vital signs.
C) Start an IV with lactated Ringer's at 75 mL/hr.
D) Ask support persons to leave the birthing room.
Q3) Which routine nursing assessment is contraindicated for a client admitted with suspected placenta previa?
A) Determining cervical dilation and effacement
B) Monitoring FHR and maternal vital signs
C) Observing vaginal bleeding or leakage of amniotic fluid
D) Determining frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Q1) A client has tested HIV-positive and has now discovered that she is pregnant. Which statement indicates that she understands the risks of this diagnosis?
A) "I know I will need to have an abortion as soon as possible."
B) "Even though my test is positive, my baby might not be affected."
C) "My baby is certain to have AIDS and die within the first year of life."
D) "This pregnancy will probably decrease the chance that I will develop AIDS."
Q2) Nursing intervention for pregnant clients with diabetes is based on the knowledge that the need for insulin is:
A) varied depending on the stage of gestation.
B) increased throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period.
C) decreased throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period.
D) should not change because the fetus produces its own insulin.
Q3) Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypoinsulinemia
D) Hypobilirubinemia
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28
Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Q1) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean birth because:
A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the client delivers vaginally.
Q2) Which nursing action should be initiated first when there is evidence of prolapsed cord?
A) Notify the health care provider.
B) Apply a scalp electrode.
C) Prepare the mother for an emergency cesarean birth.
D) Reposition the mother with her hips higher than her head.
Q3) A client is diagnosed with anaphylactoid syndrome. Which therapeutic intervention does the nurse suspect will be included in the plan of care?
A) Normal amniotic fluid
B) Initiation of CPR and other life support measures
C) Respiratory treatments with nebulizers
D) Internal fetal monitoring
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) To determine an adverse response to carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate), the nurse should frequently assess:
A) temperature.
B) lochial flow.
C) fundal height.
D) breath sounds.
Q2) A sign of thrombophlebitis is:
A) visible varicose veins.
B) positive Homans sign.
C) pedal edema in the affected leg.
D) local tenderness, heat, and swelling.
Q3) Early postpartum hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss greater than:
A) 500 mL within 24 hours after a vaginal birth.
B) 750 mL within 24 hours after a vaginal birth.
C) 1000 mL within 48 hours after a cesarean birth.
D) 1500 mL within 48 hours after a cesarean birth.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is most true about large-for-gestational age (LGA) infants?
A) They weigh more than 3500g.
B) They are above the 80th percentile on gestational growth charts.
C) They are prone to hypoglycemia, polycythemia, and birth injuries.
D) Postmaturity syndrome and fractured clavicles are the most common complications.
Q2) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because:
A) Surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) Surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) Surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) Surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
Q3) Which is most helpful in preventing premature birth?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Adequate prenatal care
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
D) Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) nutritional program
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that the infant has been feeding poorly over the last 24 hours. She should immediately assess for other signs of:
A) hyperglycemia.
B) neonatal infection.
C) hemolytic anemia.
D) increased bilirubin levels.
Q2) Which intervention should make phototherapy most effective in reducing the indirect bilirubin in an affected newborn?
A) Turn the infant every 2 hours.
B) Place eye patches on the newborn.
C) Wrap the infant in triple blankets to prevent cold stress.
D) Increase the oral intake of water between and before feedings.
Q3) Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
A) Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
B) Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
C) Infant bilirubin level
D) Maternal blood type
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) In reviewing information related to the occurrence of pregnancies using a focus group discussion with women, concern was expressed that many of them had problems using their respective type of contraception and, as a result, became pregnant. Based on this information, the nurse would incorporate which of the following in a teaching plan for group members?
A) Provide information relative to product recalls of contraceptive devices.
B) Have the clients keep a contraceptive diary related to the consistency of using methods because it is apparent that they forgot to use their preferred method as directed.
C) Have the clients consider switching to a different form of contraception because the contraception did not prevent pregnancy for them.
D) Plan for assessing the clients' knowledge related to the contraception methods and provide information to increase the knowledge base so that the effectiveness rate would improve.
Q2) Which client is a safe candidate for the use of oral contraceptives?
A) 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis
B) 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor
C) 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant
D) 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has been diagnosed with an incompetent cervix. What treatment option will be incorporated into the plan of care?
A) Bed rest throughout the pregnancy
B) Wait and see approach to determine if the client goes into preterm labor
C) Preparation for cerclage procedure at 32 weeks' gestation
D) More frequent ultrasounds to assess progression of pregnancy
Q2) Which of the following medical conditions could possible affect a woman's fertility status?
A) Past medical history of asthma during childhood that is presently under control with the use of an inhaler
B) Recently diagnosed with PCOS
C) Past surgical history of removal of external polyps on labial tissue
D) History of frequent sinus headaches that is seasonal in nature treated with over-the-counter medication
Q3) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) While interviewing a 48-year-old client during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this client to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of x-ray exposure
B) Expense of the procedure
C) Reluctance to hear bad news
D) Having heard that the test is painful
E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary
Q2) Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic examination is omitted with a Pap smear?
A) Lubricant
B) Speculum
C) Fixative agent
D) Gloves and eye protectors
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse teach to assist a client to regain control of her urinary sphincter?
A) Do Kegel exercises.
B) Void every hour while awake.
C) Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
D) Allow the bladder to become distended before voiding.
Q2) A client with a history of a cystocele should contact the physician if she experiences:
A) backache.
B) constipation.
C) urinary frequency and burning.
D) involuntary loss of urine when she coughs.
Q3) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is:
A) fibroadenoma.
B) ductal ectasia.
C) intraductal papilloma.
D) chronic cystic disease.
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