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Reproductive Health Nursing Practice Questions - 512 Verified Questions

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Reproductive Health Nursing Practice Questions

Course Introduction

Reproductive Health Nursing focuses on the principles and practices involved in providing comprehensive nursing care to individuals and families across the reproductive lifespan. This course covers topics such as family planning, fertility, prenatal care, childbirth, postpartum management, and care for newborns. It also addresses reproductive system disorders, sexually transmitted infections, and the psychosocial, cultural, and ethical factors influencing reproductive health. Through theoretical learning and clinical practice, students develop skills to educate, support, and advocate for reproductive health and rights in diverse populations.

Recommended Textbook Maternity Nursing 8th Edition by Deitra Leonard Lowdermilk

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24 Chapters

512 Verified Questions

512 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1554

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Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity Nursing: Culturally

Competent, Family and Community Focused

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30715

Sample Questions

Q1) Maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical trials is:

A) Derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification.

B) Known as evidence-based practice.

C) At odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing.

D) An outgrowth of telemedicine.

Answer: B

Q2) The nurse should be aware that the criteria used to make decisions and solve problems within families are based primarily on family:

A) Rituals and customs.

B) Values and beliefs.

C) Boundaries and channels.

D) Socialization processes.

Answer: B

Q3) What is the primary role of practicing nurses in the research process?

A) Designing research studies

B) Collecting data for other researchers

C) Identifying researchable problems

D) Seeking funding to support research studies

Answer: C

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Assessment and Health Promotion

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30716

Sample Questions

Q1) Because of the effect of cyclic ovarian changes on the breast, the best time for breast self-examination (BSE) is:

A) Five to 7 days after menses ceases.

B) Day 1 of the endometrial cycle.

C) Midmenstrual cycle.

D) Any time during a shower or bath.

Answer: A

Q2) The transition phase during which ovarian function and hormone production decline is called:

A) The climacteric.

B) Menarche.

C) Menopause.

D) Puberty.

Answer: A

Q3) Sexual assault is:

A) Limited to rape.

B) An act of force in which an unwanted and uncomfortable sexual act occurs.

C) A legal term for sexual violence.

D) An act of violence in which the partner is unknown.

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Common Concerns

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse should know that once human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enters the body, seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within:

A) 6 to 10 days.

B) 2 to 4 weeks.

C) 6 to 12 weeks.

D) 6 months.

Answer: C

Q2) The nurse who is teaching a group of women about breast cancer would tell the women that:

A) Risk factors identify more than 50% of women who will develop breast cancer.

B) Nearly 90% of lumps found by women are malignant.

C) One in ten women in the United States will develop breast cancer in her lifetime.

D) The exact cause of breast cancer is unknown.

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Contraception, Abortion, and Infertility

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30718

Sample Questions

Q1) A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurse's most appropriate reply is:

A) "They're not very effective, and it's very likely you'll get pregnant."

B) "They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation."

C) "These methods have a few advantages and several health risks."

D) "You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."

Q2) The nurse working with a patient who has infertility concerns should be aware that Lupron (Leuprolide acetate, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone [GnRH] agonist) may be prescribed for an infertile woman to treat:

A) Anovulatory cycles.

B) Uterine fibroids.

C) Polycystic ovarian disease (POD).

D) Luteal phase inadequacy.

Q3) Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions?

A) They are performed only for maternal health.

B) They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs.

C) They are mostly performed in the second trimester.

D) They can be either elective or therapeutic.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Genetics, Conception, and Fetal Development

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Congenital disorders refer to conditions that are present at birth. These disorders may be inherited and caused by environmental factors or maternal malnutrition. Toxic exposures have the greatest effect on development between 15 and 60 days of gestation. For the nurse to be able to conduct a complete assessment of the newly pregnant patient, she should understand the significance of exposure to known human teratogens. These include (choose all that apply):

A) Infections.

B) Radiation.

C) Maternal conditions.

D) Drugs.

E) Chemicals.

F) None of the above

Q2) A woman's cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly. The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

A) "We don't really know when such defects occur."

B) "It depends on what caused the defect."

C) "They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development."

D) "They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development."

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate?

A) Viability-22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight greater than 500 g)

B) Term-pregnancy from the beginning of week 38 of gestation to the end of week 42

C) Preterm-pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks

D) Postdate-pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks

Q2) The musculoskeletal system adapts to the changes that occur during pregnancy. A woman can expect to experience what change?

A) Her center of gravity will shift backward.

B) She will have increased lordosis.

C) She will have increased abdominal muscle tone.

D) She will notice decreased mobility of her pelvic joints.

Q3) Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester?

A) Less audible heart sounds (S1, S2)

B) Increased pulse rate

C) Increased blood pressure

D) Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production

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Chapter 7: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about multifetal pregnancy is NOT accurate?

A) The expectant mother often develops anemia because the fetuses have a greater demand for iron.

B) Twin pregnancies come to term with the same frequency as single pregnancies.

C) The mother should be counseled to increase her nutritional intake and gain more weight.

D) Backache and varicose veins often are more pronounced.

Q2) Prenatal testing for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is recommended for which women?

A) All women, regardless of risk factors

B) A woman who has had more than one sexual partner

C) A woman who has had a sexually transmitted infection

D) A woman who is monogamous with her partner

Q3) For what reason would breastfeeding be contraindicated?

A) Hepatitis B

B) Everted nipples

C) History of breast cancer 3 years ago

D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive

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Chapter 8: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30722

Sample Questions

Q1) A 22-year-old woman pregnant with a single fetus has a preconception body mass index (BMI) of 24. When she was seen in the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation, she had gained 1.8 kg (4 lb) since conception. How would the nurse interpret this?

A) This weight gain indicates possible gestational hypertension.

B) This weight gain indicates that the woman's infant is at risk for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).

C) This weight gain cannot be evaluated until the woman has been observed for several more weeks.

D) The woman's weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy.

Q2) A pregnant woman's diet history indicates that she likes the following list of foods. The nurse would encourage this woman to consume more of which food to increase her calcium intake?

A) Fresh apricots

B) Canned clams

C) Spaghetti with meat sauce

D) Canned sardines

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Chapter 9: Labor and Birth Processes

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to fetal positioning during labor, nurses should be aware that:

A) Position is a measure of the degree of descent of the presenting part of the fetus through the birth canal.

B) Birth is imminent when the presenting part is at +4 to +5 cm, below the spine.

C) The largest transverse diameter of the presenting part is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter.

D) Engagement is the term used to describe the beginning of labor.

Q2) To adequately care for a laboring woman, the nurse should know which stage of labor varies the most in length?

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) Fourth

Q3) The _________ pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth.

Q4) The nurse would expect which maternal cardiovascular finding during labor?

A) Increased cardiac output

B) Decreased pulse rate

C) Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count

D) Decreased blood pressure

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Chapter 10: Management of Discomfort

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Today the pregnant woman has a number of nonpharmacologic measures available to her to assist with pain relief in labor. One such measure involves the application of heat, cold, or pressure to specific areas of the body and is known as

Q2) In the current practice of childbirth preparation, emphasis is placed on:

A) The Dick-Read (natural) childbirth method.

B) The Lamaze (psychoprophylactic) method.

C) The Bradley (husband-coached) method.

D) Getting expectant parents to attend childbirth preparation classes for any (no specific) method.

Q3) After change-of-shift report, the nurse assumes care of a multiparous patient in labor. The woman is complaining of pain that radiates to her abdominal wall, lower back, and buttocks and down her thighs. Before implementing a plan of care, the nurse should understand that this type of pain is:

A) Visceral.

B) Referred.

C) Somatic.

D) Afterpain.

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Chapter 11: Fetal Assessment During Labor

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30725

Sample Questions

Q1) A number of methods for assisting in the assessment of fetal well-being have been developed for use in conjunction with electronic fetal monitoring. These various technologies assist in supporting interventions for a nonreassuring fetal heart rate pattern when necessary. The labor and delivery nurse should be aware that one of these modalities, fetal oxygen saturation monitoring, includes the use of:

A) A fetal acoustic stimulator.

B) Fetal blood sampling.

C) Fetal pulse oximetry.

D) Umbilical cord acid-base determination.

Q2) Which deceleration of the fetal heart rate would NOT require the nurse to change the maternal position?

A) Early decelerations

B) Late decelerations

C) Variable decelerations

D) It is always a good idea to change the woman's position.

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13

Chapter 12: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30726

Sample Questions

Q1) When planning care for a laboring woman whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse recognizes that the woman's risk for _____ has increased.

A) Intrauterine infection

B) Hemorrhage

C) Precipitous labor

D) Supine hypotension

Q2) The nurse who performs vaginal examinations to assess a woman's progress in labor should:

A) Perform an examination at least once every hour during the active phase of labor.

B) Perform the examination with the woman in the supine position.

C) Wear two clean gloves for each examination.

D) Discuss the findings with the woman and her partner.

Q3) A nulliparous woman who has just begun the second stage of her labor would most likely:

A) Experience a strong urge to bear down.

B) Show perineal bulging.

C) A period of rest and relative calm.

D) Show an increase in bright red bloody show.

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Chapter 13: Maternal Physiologic Changes

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to the postpartum changes and developments in a woman's cardiovascular system, nurses should be aware that:

A) Cardiac output, the pulse rate, and stroke volume all return to prepregnancy normal values within a few hours of childbirth.

B) Respiratory function returns to nonpregnant levels by 6 to 8 weeks after birth.

C) The lowered white blood cell count after pregnancy can lead to false-positive results on tests for infections.

D) A hypercoagulable state protects the new mother from thromboembolism, especially after a cesarean birth.

Q2) Clotting factors and fibrinogen levels normally are decreased during pregnancy and remain low in the immediate puerperium. This hypocoagulable state increases the risk of thromboembolism, especially after cesarean birth.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The process in which the uterus returns to a non-pregnant state after birth is known as ____________________.

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Chapter 14: Nursing Care of the Family During the Fourth Trimester

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Under the Newborns' and Mothers' Health Protection Act, all health plans are required to allow new mothers and newborns to remain in the hospital for a minimum of _____ hours after a normal vaginal birth and for _____ hours after a cesarean birth.

A) 24, 73

B) 24, 96

C) 48, 96

D) 48, 120

Q2) A woman gave birth 48 hours ago to a healthy infant girl. She has decided to bottle-feed. During your assessment you notice that both of her breasts are swollen, warm, and tender on palpation. The woman should be advised that this condition can best be treated by:

A) Running warm water on her breasts during a shower.

B) Applying ice to the breasts for comfort.

C) Expressing small amounts of milk from the breasts to relieve pressure.

D) Wearing a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Transition to Parenthood

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30729

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse can help a father in his transition to parenthood by:

A) Pointing out that the infant turned at the sound of his voice.

B) Encouraging him to go home to get some sleep.

C) Telling him to tape the infant's diaper a different way.

D) Suggesting that he let the infant sleep in the bassinet.

Q2) The nurse hears a primiparous woman talking to her son and telling him that his chin is just like his dad's chin. This woman's statement reflects:

A) Mutuality.

B) Synchrony.

C) Claiming.

D) Reciprocity.

Q3) The nurse observes several interactions between a postpartum woman and her new son. What behavior, if exhibited by this woman, would the nurse identify as a possible maladaptive behavior regarding parent-infant attachment?

A) Talks and coos to her son

B) Seldom makes eye contact with her son

C) Cuddles her son close to her

D) Tells visitors how well her son is feeding

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17

Chapter 16: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A first-time father is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. He asks the nurse, "What is this black, sticky stuff in her diaper?" The nurse's best response is:

A) "That's meconium, which is your baby's first stool. It's normal."

B) "That's transitional stool."

C) "That means your baby is bleeding internally."

D) "Oh, don't worry about that. It's okay."

Q2) What infant response to cool environmental conditions is either NOT effective or NOT available to them?

A) Constriction of peripheral blood vessels

B) Metabolism of brown fat

C) Increased respiratory rates

D) Unflexing from the normal position

Q3) With regard to the newborn's developing cardiovascular system, nurses should be aware that:

A) The heart rate of a crying infant may rise to 120 beats/min.

B) Heart murmurs heard after the first few hours are cause for concern.

C) The point of maximal impulse (PMI) often is visible on the chest wall.

D) Persistent bradycardia may indicate respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).

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Chapter 17: Assessment and Care of the Newborn and Family

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth would indicate:

A) An infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life and needing no further testing.

B) An infant in severe distress that needs resuscitation.

C) A prediction of a future free of neurologic problems.

D) An infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth.

Q2) As part of their teaching function at discharge, nurses should tell parents that the baby's respiration should be protected by all of the following procedures except:

A) Preventing exposure to people with upper respiratory tract infections.

B) Keeping the infant away from secondhand smoke.

C) Avoiding loose bedding, water beds, and beanbag chairs.

D) Not letting the infant sleep on his or her back.

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19

Chapter 18: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of these statements indicate impacts of breastfeeding on the family or society at large except:

A) Breastfeeding requires fewer supplies and less cumbersome equipment.

B) Breastfeeding saves families money.

C) Breastfeeding costs employers in terms of time lost from work.

D) Breastfeeding benefits the environment.

Q2) The best reason for recommending formula over breastfeeding is that:

A) The mother has a medical condition or is taking drugs that could be passed along to the infant via breast milk.

B) The mother lacks confidence in her ability to breastfeed.

C) Other family members or care providers also need to feed the baby.

D) The mother sees bottle-feeding as more convenient.

Q3) The nurse providing couplet care should understand that nipple confusion results when:

A) Breastfeeding babies receive supplementary bottle feedings.

B) The baby is weaned too abruptly.

C) Pacifiers are used before breastfeeding is established.

D) Twins are breastfed together.

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Chapter 19: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30733

Sample Questions

Q1) In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, nurses should explain to their patients that:

A) Both require the woman to have a full bladder.

B) The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester.

C) Initially the transvaginal examination can be painful.

D) The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.

Q2) A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is pregnant. The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old and has a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She admits to having used cocaine "several times" during the past year and drinks alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure (BP) is 108/70 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 72 beats/min, and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics place the woman in a high risk category?

A) Blood pressure, age, BMI

B) Drug/alcohol use, age, family history

C) Family history, blood pressure, BMI

D) Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse

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Chapter 20: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30734

Sample Questions

Q1) Preconception counseling is critical to the outcome of diabetic pregnancies because poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy is associated with:

A) Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia.

B) Congenital anomalies in the fetus.

C) Polyhydramnios.

D) Hyperemesis gravidarum.

Q2) Nurses caring for antepartum women with cardiac conditions should be aware that:

A) Stress on the heart is greatest in the first trimester and the last 2 weeks before labor.

B) Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms.

C) Women with class III cardiac disease should get 8 to 10 hours of sleep every day and limit housework, shopping, and exercise.

D) Women with class I cardiac disease need bed rest throughout most of the pregnancy and face the possibility of hospitalization near term.

Q3) The standard of care for women who are dependent on heroin or other narcotics is ____________________ maintenance treatment (MMT).

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Chapter 21: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is _____________________.

Q2) A woman presents to the emergency department complaining of bleeding and cramping. The initial nursing history is significant for a last menstrual period 6 weeks ago. On sterile speculum examination, the primary care provider finds that the cervix is closed. The anticipated plan of care for this woman would be based on a probable diagnosis of which type of spontaneous abortion?

A) Incomplete

B) Inevitable

C) Threatened

D) Septic

Q3) The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:

A) Bleeding.

B) Intense abdominal pain.

C) Uterine activity.

D) Cramping.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Labor and Birth at Risk

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Prepidil (prostaglandin gel) has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to:

A) Enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta.

B) Increase amniotic fluid volume.

C) Ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction.

D) Stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture.

Q2) In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor, what finding would alert the nurse to possible side effects?

A) Urine output of 160 ml in 4 hours

B) Deep tendon reflexes 2+ and no clonus

C) Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min

D) Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dl

Q3) Which statement is most likely to be associated with a breech presentation?

A) Least common malpresentation

B) Descent is rapid

C) Diagnosis by ultrasound only

D) High rate of neuromuscular disorders

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Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who has recently given birth complains of pain and tenderness in her leg. On physical examination, the nurse notices warmth and redness over an enlarged, hardened area. The nurse should suspect:

A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation.

B) von Willebrand disease.

C) Thrombophlebitis.

D) Coagulopathies.

Q2) When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum depression (PPD) with psychotic features, one of the main concerns is that she may:

A) Have outbursts of anger.

B) Neglect her hygiene.

C) Harm her infant.

D) Lose interest in her husband.

Q3) The nurse should be aware that a pessary would be most effective in the treatment of what disorder?

A) Cystocele

B) Uterine prolapse

C) Rectocele

D) Stress urinary incontinence

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Page 25

Chapter 24: The Newborn at Risk

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30738

Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to eventual discharge of the high risk newborn or transfer to a different facility, nurses and families should be aware that:

A) Infants will stay in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) until they are ready to go home.

B) Once discharged to home, the high risk infant should be treated like any healthy term newborn.

C) Parents of high risk infants need special support and detailed contact information.

D) If a high risk infant and mother need transfer to a specialized regional center, it is better to wait until after birth and the infant is stabilized.

Q2) For diagnostic and treatment purposes, nurses should know the birth weight classifications of high risk infants. For example, extremely low birth weight (ELBW) is the designation for an infant whose weight is:

A) Less than 1500 g.

B) Less than 1000 g.

C) Less than 2000 g.

D) Dependent on the gestational age.

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