Reproductive Health Nursing Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing is a course designed to equip students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills related to the reproductive health of individuals and communities across the lifespan. It covers a wide range of topics including human reproductive anatomy and physiology, family planning, maternal and newborn health, sexually transmitted infections, infertility, and the promotion of sexual health. The course emphasizes the role of nurses in providing evidence-based care, counselling, health education, and advocacy to support reproductive rights and well-being. Students will also explore contemporary issues in reproductive health, legal and ethical considerations, and culturally sensitive approaches to care in diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing 4th Edition by Emily Slone
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55 Chapters
1617 Verified Questions
1617 Flashcards
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McKinney
Chapter 1: Foundations of Maternity, Womens Health, and Child Health Nursing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which setting for childbirth allows the least amount of parent-infant contact?
A) Labor/delivery/recovery/postpartum room
B) Birth center
C) Traditional hospital birth
D) Home birth
Answer: C
Q2) Maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical trials is known as:
A) Nurse sensitive indicators
B) Evidence-based practice
C) Case management
D) Outcomes management
Answer: B
Q3) Elective abortion is considered an ethical issue because:
A) Abortion law is unclear about a woman's constitutional rights.
B) The Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception.
C) A conflict exists between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus.
D) It requires third-party consent.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Nurses Role in Maternity, Womens Health, and Pediatric Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When addressing the questions of a newly pregnant woman,the nurse can explain that the certified nurse-midwife is qualified to perform:
A) Regional anesthesia
B) Cesarean deliveries
C) Vaginal deliveries
D) Internal versions
Answer: C
Q2) Which nursing intervention is correctly written?
A) Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing.
B) Force fluids as necessary.
C) Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM.
D) Observe interaction with infant.
Answer: C
Q3) Which step in the nursing process identifies the basis or cause of the patient's problem?
A) Intervention
B) Expected outcome
C) Nursing diagnosis
D) Evaluation.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Childbearing and Child-Rearing Family
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _________ family is one formed when single,divorced,or widowed parents bring children from a previous union into the new relationship.
Answer: blended
These families must overcome differences in parenting styles and values to form a cohesive blended family.Often they wish to have children with each other in the new relationship.Differing expectations of the children's development and beliefs regarding discipline may lead to conflict.Older children often resent the introduction of a stepmother or stepfather.
Q2) To resolve family conflict,it is necessary to have open communication,accurate perception of the problem,and a(n)
A) Intact family structure
B) Arbitrator
C) Willingness to consider the view of others
D) Balance in personality types
Answer: C
Q3) ___________ refers to the view that one's own culture's way of doing things is always the best.
Answer: Ethnocentrism
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Chapter 4: Communicating With Children and Families
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which strategy is most likely to encourage a child to express his feelings about the hospital experience?
A) Avoiding periods of silence
B) Asking direct questions
C) Sharing personal experiences
D) Using open-ended questions
Q2) Which is the most appropriate question to ask when interviewing an adolescent to encourage conversation?
A) "Are you in school?"
B) "Are you doing well in school?"
C) "How is school going for you?"
D) "How do your parents feel about your grades?"
Q3) Communication entails much more than words going from one person's mouth to another person's ears.A positive,supportive technique that is effective from birth throughout adulthood is
A) Listening
B) Physical proximity
C) Environment
D) Touch
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Health Promotion for the Developing Child
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frequent developmental assessments are important for which reason?
A) Stable developmental periods during infancy provide an opportunity to identify any delays or deficits.
B) Infants need stimulation specific to the stage of development.
C) Critical periods of development occur during childhood.
D) Child development is unpredictable and needs monitoring.
Q2) Breastfeeding is the ideal method for providing nutrition to the human infant and is recommended by the American Heart Association,the American Academy of Pediatrics,and the World Health Organization.Infants should be exclusively breastfed for a minimum of 4 months and preferably 6 months.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which factor has the greatest influence on child growth and development?
A) Culture
B) Environment
C) Genetics
D) Nutrition
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Chapter 6: Health Promotion for the Infant
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse has completed a teaching session for parents about "baby-proofing" the home.Which statements made by the parents indicate an understanding of the teaching? Select all that apply.
A) "We will put plastic fillers in all electrical plugs."
B) "We will place poisonous substances in a high cupboard."
C) "We will place a gate at the top and bottom of stairways."
D) "We will keep our household hot water heater at 130 degrees."
E) "We will remove front knobs from the stove."
Q2) Which statement made by a mother is consistent with a developmental delay?
A) "I have noticed that my 9-month-old infant responds consistently to the sound of his name."
B) "I have noticed that my 12-month-old child does not get herself to a sitting position or pull to stand."
C) "I am so happy when my 1 1/2-month-old infant smiles at me."
D) "My 5-month-old infant is not rolling over in both directions yet."
Q3) At what age is an infant first expected to locate an object hidden from view?
A) 4 months of age
B) 6 months of age
C) 9 months of age
D) 20 months of age
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Chapter 7: Health Promotion during Early Childhood
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching parents of a toddler about language development.Which statement best identifies the characteristics of language development in a toddler?
A) Language development skills slow during the toddler period.
B) The toddler understands more than he can express.
C) Most of the toddler's speech is not easily understood.
D) The toddler's vocabulary contains approximately 600 words.
Q2) Motor vehicle injuries are a significant threat to young children.Knowing this,the nurse plans a teaching session with a toddler's parents on car safety.Which will she teach? Select all that apply.
A) Secure in a rear-facing, upright car safety seat.
B) Place the car safety seat in the rear seat, behind the driver's seat.
C) Harness safety straps should fit snugly.
D) Place the car safety seat in the front passenger seat equipped with an airbag.
E) After the age of 2 years, toddlers can be placed in a forward-facing car seat.
Q3) A disturbance in the flow and time patterning of speech is known as
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Chapter 8: Health Promotion for the School-Age Child
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which behavior by parents or teachers will best assist the child in negotiating the developmental task of industry?
A) Identifying failures immediately and asking the child's peers for feedback
B) Structuring the environment so that the child can master tasks
C) Completing homework for children who are having difficulty in completing assignments
D) Decreasing expectations to eliminate potential failures
Q2) The number of hours spent sleeping decreases as the child grows older.Children ages 6 and 7 years require approximately 9 or 10 hours of sleep per night.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) In providing anticipatory guidance to parents,which parental behavior is the most important in fostering moral development?
A) Telling the child what is right and wrong
B) Vigilantly monitoring the child and her peers
C) Weekly family meetings to discuss behavior
D) Living as the parents say they believe
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Chapter 9: Health Promotion for the Adolescent
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of electronic or digital media for communication has had a negative effect on the language development of adolescents.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 17-year-old tells the nurse that he is not having sex because it would make his parents very angry.This response indicates that the adolescent has a developmental lag in which area?
A) Cognitive development
B) Moral development
C) Psychosocial development
D) Psychosexual development
Q3) In girls,the initial indication of puberty is
A) Menarche
B) Growth spurt
C) Growth of pubic hair
D) Breast development
Q4) In assessing adolescents using Tanner staging,sexual maturity is rated using _________ distinct stages.(Your answer should appear as a number.)
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Chapter 10: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Development
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baby is born with blood type AB.The father is type A,and the mother is type B.The father asks why the baby has a blood type different from those of his parents.The nurse's answer should be based on the knowledge that
A) Both A and B blood types are dominant.
B) The baby has a mutation of the parents' blood types.
C) Type A is recessive and links more easily with type B.
D) Types A and B are recessive when linked together.
Q2) Nurses who work in a high-risk perinatal setting may occasionally care for a pregnant woman who is given a specific drug for the sole purpose of fetal therapy,that is,cardiac medications.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both members of an expectant couple are carriers for phenylketonuria (PKU),an autosomal recessive disorder.In counseling them about the risk to their unborn child,the nurse should tell them that
A) The child has a 25% chance of being affected.
B) The child will be a carrier, like the parents.
C) The child has a 50% chance of being affected.
D) One of four of their children will be affected.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the cremaster muscle in men is to
A) Aid in voluntary control of excretion of urine.
B) Entrap blood in the penis to produce an erection.
C) Assist with transporting sperm.
D) Aid in temperature control of the testicles.
Q2) A young female patient comes to the health unit at school to discuss her irregular periods.In providing education regarding the female reproductive cycle,the nurse describes the regular and recurrent changes related to the ovaries and the uterine endometrium.Although this is generally referred to as the menstrual cycle,the ovarian cycle includes which phases? Select all that apply.
A) Follicular
B) Ovulatory
C) Luteal
D) Proliferative
E) Secretory
Q3) A woman's ability to reproduce decreases over a period of years.This is often referred to as the _____________.
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13
Chapter 12: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of the fetus to survive outside the uterus is called ___________.
Q2) The upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant because it is here that the
A) Placenta attaches most firmly
B) Developing baby is best nourished
C) Uterine endometrium is softer
D) Maternal blood flow is lower
Q3) With regard to the structure and function of the placenta,the maternity nurse should be aware that
A) As the placenta widens, it gradually thins to allow easier passage of air and nutrients.
B) As one of its early functions, the placenta acts as an endocrine gland.
C) The placenta is able to keep out most potentially toxic substances, such as cigarette smoke, to which the mother is exposed.
D) Optimal blood circulation is achieved through the placenta when the woman is lying on her back or standing.
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14
Chapter 13: Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alterations in hormonal balance and mechanical stretching are responsible for several changes in the integumentary system during pregnancy.Stretch marks often occur on the abdomen and breasts.These are referred to as
A) Chloasma
B) Linea nigra
C) Striae gravidarum
D) Angiomas
Q2) The maternity nurse understands that vascular volume increases 40% to 60% during pregnancy to
A) Compensate for decreased renal plasma flow.
B) Provide adequate perfusion of the placenta.
C) Eliminate metabolic wastes of the mother.
D) Prevent maternal and fetal dehydration.
Q3) To relieve a leg cramp,the patient should be instructed to
A) Massage the affected muscle.
B) Stretch and point the toe.
C) Dorsiflex the foot.
D) Apply a warm pack.
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15
Chapter 14: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low-income women may have deficient diets because of lack of financial resources and nutritional education.Simple carbohydrate foods are less expensive than other,more nutritious foods items.The diet may be high in calories but low in vitamins and minerals.A referral to ___________ may be helpful.
Q2) The recommended diet for pregnancy differs from the recommended diet for lactation,because
A) Lactating women require more calories and protein.
B) Pregnant women need more calcium.
C) Lactating women require fewer vitamins.
D) Pregnant women require more iron and protein.
Q3) After you complete your nutritional counseling for a pregnant woman,you ask her to repeat your instructions so that you can assess her understanding of the instructions given.Which statement indicates that she understands the role of protein in her pregnancy?
A) "Protein will help my baby grow."
B) "Eating protein will prevent me from becoming anemic."
C) "Eating protein will make my baby have strong teeth after he is born."
D) "Eating protein will prevent me from being diabetic."
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Prenatal Diagnostic Tests
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Percutaneous umbilical cord sampling (PUBS),also called cordocentesis,involves the aspiration of fetal blood from the umbilical cord for prenatal diagnosis or therapy.Major indications include (select all that apply)
A) Rh disease
B) Fetal well-being
C) Infection
D) Lung maturity
E) Karyotyping
Q2) The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)levels in maternal serum is to determine if the fetus has
A) Hemophilia
B) A neural tube defect
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) A normal lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
Q3) A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant reports to the labor and delivery triage area expressing concerns that her baby "is not moving." Along with a nonstress test (NST)the nurse might also use ______________ to determine fetal well-being.
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Chapter 16: Giving Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that a woman who has given birth 1 hour ago is touching her infant with the fingertips and talking to him softly in high-pitched tones.On the basis of this observation,the nurse should
A) Document this evidence of normal early maternal-infant attachment behavior.
B) Observe for other signs that the mother may not be accepting of the infant.
C) Request a social service consult for psychosocial support.
D) Determine whether the mother is too fatigued to interact normally with her infant.
Q2) At 1 minute after birth,the nurse assesses the newborn to assign an Apgar score.The apical heart rate is 110 bpm,and the infant is crying vigorously with the limbs flexed.The infant's trunk is pink,but the hands and feet are blue.What is the Apgar score for this infant?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Q3) Inquiring about past pregnancies is an important part of the nursing assessment.Women who have had a previous cesarean birth may request a trial of labor and a ______ delivery.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increasing the infusion rate of nonadditive intravenous fluids can increase fetal oxygenation primarily by
A) Maintaining normal maternal temperature
B) Preventing normal maternal hypoglycemia
C) Increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the maternal blood
D) Expanding maternal blood volume
Q2) The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that absent or minimal variability is classified as either abnormal or indeterminate.Which condition related to decreased variability is considered benign?
A) A periodic fetal sleep state
B) Extreme prematurity
C) Fetal hypoxemia
D) Pre-existing neurologic injury
Q3) The labor and delivery nurse is using a well-known method to quantify the intensity of labor contractions with internal monitoring.This method is known as MVUs,or
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19
Chapter 18: Pain Management for Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman received 50 mcg of Fentanyl intravenously 1 hour before delivery.What drug should the nurse have readily available?
A) Promethazine (Phenergan)
B) Nalbuphine (Nubain)
C) Butorphanol (Stadol)
D) Naloxone (Narcan)
Q2) The most important nursing intervention for the patient who has received an epidural narcotic is
A) Monitoring respiratory rate hourly
B) Administering analgesics as needed
C) Monitoring blood pressure every 4 hours
D) Assessing the level of anesthesia
Q3) What is the first type of breathing technique used in labor?
A) Slow-paced
B) Modified-paced
C) Patterned-paced
D) Pant-blow
Q4) Many methods of nonpharmacologic pain control become less effective after prolonged use.This is a process called _________.
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Chapter 19: Nursing Care during Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 60% to 80% of women with one low transverse uterine incision from a previous cesarean birth may have a successful vaginal delivery.Recommendations from ACOG related to VBAC risks include (select all that apply)
A) Immediate availability of the obstetric provider
B) Delivery at a tertiary care center
C) Availability of anesthesia personnel
D) Personnel who can assist with the cesarean birth
E) Use of misoprostol for cervical ripening
Q2) When positioning the Foley catheter before cesarean birth,the nurse knows that the catheter drainage tube and catheter bag should be
A) Positioned on top of the patient's leg
B) Placed near the head of the table
C) Clamped during the cesarean section
D) Positioned at the foot of the surgeon under the sterile drapes
Q3) An indication for an episiotomy would be a woman who
A) Has a routine vaginal birth
B) Has fetal shoulder dystocia
C) Is delivering a preterm infant
D) Has a history of rapid deliveries
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Postpartum Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) To promote bonding and attachment immediately after delivery,the nurse should
A) Allow the mother quiet time with her infant.
B) Assist the mother in assuming an en face position with her newborn.
C) Teach the mother about the concepts of bonding and attachment.
D) Assist the mother in feeding her baby.
Q2) Which nursing action is most appropriate to correct a boggy uterus that is displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus?
A) Notify the physician of an impending hemorrhage.
B) Assess the blood pressure and pulse.
C) Evaluate the lochia.
D) Assist the patient in emptying her bladder.
Q3) A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 1 who had an emergency cesarean birth 3 days ago is scheduled for discharge.As you prepare her for discharge,she begins to cry.Your initial action should be to
A) Assess her for pain.
B) Point out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby.
C) Explain that she is experiencing postpartum blues.
D) Allow her time to express her feelings.
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Chapter 21: The Normal Newborn: Adaptation and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) An African-American woman noticed some bruises on her newborn girl's buttocks.She asks the nurse who spanked her daughter.The nurse explains that these marks are called
A) Lanugo
B) Vascular nevi
C) Nevus flammeus
D) Mongolian spots
Q2) To provide competent newborn care,the nurse understands that respirations are initiated at birth as a result of
A) An increase in the PO<sub>2</sub> and a decrease in PCO<sub>2</sub>
B) The continued functioning of the foramen ovale
C) Chemical, thermal, sensory, and mechanical factors
D) Drying off the infant
Q3) The most likely interpretation of an elevated immunoglobulin M (IgM)level in a newborn is
A) The infant was breastfed during the first hours after birth
B) Transference of immune globulins from the placenta to the infant
C) An overwhelming allergic response to an antigen
D) A recent exposure to a pathogenic agent
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Normal Newborn: Nursing Care
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Q1) An important nursing intervention is maintaining safe glucose levels in the newborn.A common practice is to feed infants either breast milk or formula if glucose screening shows results of 40 to 45 mg/dL or less.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) An unfortunate but essential role of the nurse is protecting the infant from abduction.Which statement regarding the profile of a potential abductor is the most accurate?
A) Male gender
B) A young woman who has had a previous pregnancy loss
C) A middle-aged woman past childbearing age
D) A female with a number of children of her own
Q3) When teaching parents about mandatory newborn screening,it is important for the nurse to explain that the main purpose is to
A) Keep the state records updated.
B) Allow accurate statistical information.
C) Document the number of births.
D) Recognize and treat newborn disorders early.
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Chapter 23: Newborn Feeding
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Q1) A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible.The nurse can facilitate the infant's correct latch-on by helping the woman hold the infant
A) With his arms folded together over his chest
B) Curled up in a fetal position
C) With his head cupped in her hand
D) With his head and body in alignment
Q2) Milk that gradually changes from colostrum to mature milk,appears over about 10 days after delivery.This is known as _____________ milk.
Q3) The nurse providing couplet care should understand that nipple confusion results when
A) Breastfeeding babies receive supplementary bottle feedings.
B) The baby is weaned too abruptly.
C) Pacifiers are used before breastfeeding is established.
D) Twins are breastfed together.
Q4) A newborn weight loss of _____% in a breastfeeding infant during the first 3 days of life should be investigated.Most often,the excessive weight loss is associated with poor breastfeeding techniques.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family With Special Needs
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Q1) A woman who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy,because
A) Personal risk behaviors influence fertility.
B) She has used contraceptives for an extended time.
C) Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process.
D) Prepregnancy medical attention is lacking.
Q2) A pregnant woman who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit.This behavior puts her at a greater risk for
A) Depression of the central nervous system
B) Hypotension and vasodilation
C) Sexually transmitted diseases
D) Postmature birth
Q3) The most dangerous effect on the fetus of a mother who smokes cigarettes while pregnant is
A) Genetic changes and anomalies
B) Extensive central nervous system damage
C) Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled
D) Intrauterine growth restriction
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26
Chapter 25: Pregnancy-Related Complications
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Q1) Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion ifg.
A) The pregnancy is less than 20 weeks.
B) The fetus weighs less than 1000
C) The products of conception are passed intact.
D) No evidence exists of intrauterine infection.
Q2) Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean section?
A) Partial abruptio placentae
B) Total placenta previa
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Eclampsia
Q3) Which clinical sign is not included in the classic symptoms of preeclampsia?
A) Hypertension
B) Edema
C) Proteinuria
D) Glycosuria
Q4) What is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Antihypertensive medications
C) Delivery of the fetus
D) Administration of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) every day of the pregnancy
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Q1) Toxoplasmosis is a protozoal infection transmitted through organisms in raw and undercooked meat or through contact with contaminated cat feces.While providing education to the pregnant woman,the nurse evaluates the learning and understands that the patient requires further instruction when she states
A) "I will be certain to empty the litter boxes regularly."
B) "I won't eat raw eggs."
C) "I had better wash all of my fruits and vegetables."
D) "I need to be cautious when cooking meat."
Q2) When the pregnant diabetic experiences hypoglycemia while hospitalized,the nurse should have the patient
A) Eat 6 saltine crackers.
B) Drink 8 oz of orange juice with 2 tsp of sugar added.
C) Drink 4 oz of orange juice followed by 8 oz of milk.
D) Eat hard candy or commercial glucose wafers.
Q3) For which of the infectious diseases can a woman be immunized?
A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Rubella
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Herpesvirus type 2
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Page 28
Chapter 27: The Woman With an Intrapartum Complication
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Q1) A woman in labor at 34 weeks of gestation is hospitalized and treated with intravenous magnesium sulfate for 18 to 20 hours.When the magnesium sulfate is discontinued,which oral drug will probably be prescribed for at-home continuation of the tocolytic effect?
A) Ritodrine
B) Terbutaline
C) Calcium gluconate
D) Magnesium sulfate
Q2) A woman who had two previous cesarean births is in active labor,when she suddenly complains of pain between her scapulae.The nurse's priority action is to
A) Reposition the woman with her hips slightly elevated.
B) Observe for abnormally high uterine resting tone.
C) Decrease the rate of nonadditive intravenous fluid.
D) Notify the physician promptly and prepare the woman for surgery.
Q3) Infant mortality for late preterm infants (34 to 36 weeks)is three times the rate of mortality for term infants.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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29
Chapter 28: The Woman With a Postpartum Complication
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18083
Sample Questions
Q1) According to Beck's studies,what risk factor for postpartum depression (PPD)is likely to have the greatest effect on the woman's condition?
A) Prenatal depression
B) Single-mother status
C) Low socioeconomic status
D) Unplanned or unwanted pregnancy
Q2) The mother-baby nurse must be able to recognize what sign of thrombophlebitis?
A) Visible varicose veins
B) Positive Homans' sign
C) Local tenderness, heat, and swelling
D) Pedal edema in the affected leg
Q3) A multiparous woman is admitted to the postpartum unit after a rapid labor and birth of a 4000 g infant.Her fundus is boggy,lochia is heavy,and vital signs are unchanged.The nurse has the woman void and massages her fundus,but her fundus remains difficult to find,and the rubra lochia remains heavy.The nurse should
A) Continue to massage the fundus.
B) Notify the physician.
C) Recheck vital signs.
D) Insert a Foley catheter.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The High-Risk Newborn: Problems Related to
Gestational Age and Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18084
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true about newborns classified as small for gestational age (SGA)
A) They weigh less than 2500 g.
B) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation.
C) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition.
D) They are below the 10th percentile on gestational growth charts.
Q2) Late preterm infants need closer monitoring during her hospital stay than term infants.In order to prevent unrecognized cold-stress the nurse should perform all except
A) Wean the infant to an open crib.
B) Check temperature every 3 to 4 hours.
C) Encourage kangaroo care.
D) Place infant on a radiant warmer.
Q3) The preterm infant who should receive gavage feedings instead of a bottle is the one who
A) Sometimes gags when a feeding tube is inserted
B) Is unable to coordinate sucking and swallowing
C) Sucks on a pacifier during gavage feedings.
D) Has an axillary temperature of 98.4° F, an apical pulse of 149 beats/min, and respirations of 54 breaths/min
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Chapter 30: The High Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18085
Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of treatment of the infant with phenylketonuria (PKU)is to A) Cure mental retardation.
B) Prevent central nervous system (CNS) damage, which leads to mental retardation.
C) Prevent gastrointestinal symptoms.
D) Cure the urinary tract infection.
Q2) Some infants develop hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy after asphyxia.Therapeutic hypothermia has been used to improve neurologic outcomes for these infants.Criteria for the use of this modality include (select all that apply)
A) The infant must be 28 weeks gestation or greater.
B) Have evidence of an acute hypoxic event.
C) Be in a facility they can initiate treatment within 6 hours.
D) The infant must be 36 or more weeks gestation.
E) The treatment must be initiated within the first 12 hours of life.
Q3) A plan of care for an infant experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal should include
A) Administering chloral hydrate for sedation
B) Feeding every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest
C) Swaddling the infant snugly and holding the baby tightly
D) Playing soft music during feeding
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Management of Fertility and Infertility
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18086
Sample Questions
Q1) A couple is trying to cope with an infertility problem.They want to know what they can do to preserve their emotional equilibrium.The nurse's most appropriate response is
A) "Tell your friends and family so that they can help you."
B) "Talk only to other friends who are infertile, because only they can help."
C) "Get involved with a support group. I'll give you some names."
D) "Start adoption proceedings immediately, because obtaining an infant is very difficult."
Q2) You (the nurse)are reviewing the educational packet provided to a patient about tubal ligation.What is an important fact you should point out? Select all that apply.
A) "It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure."
B) "This is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization. You won't be able to get pregnant."
C) "Sterilization offers some form of protection against sexually transmitted diseases."
D) "Sterilization offers no protection against sexually transmitted diseases."
E) "Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization."
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33
Chapter 32: Womens Health Care
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18087
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman with a history of a cystocele should contact the physician if she experiences
A) Involuntary loss of urine when she coughs
B) Constipation
C) Backache
D) Urinary frequency and burning
Q2) Which statement by the patient indicates that she understands breast self-examination?
A) "I will examine both breasts in two different positions."
B) "I will perform breast self-examination 1 week after my menstrual period starts."
C) "I will examine the outer upper area of the breast only."
D) "I will use the palm of the hand to perform the examination."
Q3) Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic examination is omitted with a Pap test?
A) Gloves and eye protectors
B) Speculum
C) Fixative agent
D) Lubricant
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34
Chapter 33: Physical Assessment of Children
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18088
Sample Questions
Q1) Which cranial nerve is assessed when the child is asked to imitate the examiner's wrinkled frown,wrinkled forehead,smile,and raised eyebrow?
A) Accessory
B) Hypoglossal
C) Trigeminal
D) Facial
Q2) The CDC recommends that all health care providers use the World Health Organization (WHO)growth standards to monitor growth for infants and children aged 0-2 years.For children ages 2 and older the CDC growth chart should be used.These charts are standardized and appropriate for all children.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are the nurse admitting a toddler to the pediatric infectious disease unit.What is the single most important component of the child's physical examination?
A) Assessment of heart and lungs
B) Measurement of height and weight
C) Documentation of parental concerns
D) Obtaining an accurate history
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Chapter 34: Emergency Care of the Child
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18089
Sample Questions
Q1) A child is brought to the emergency department.When he is called to triage,which vital sign should be measured first?
A) Temperature
B) Heart rate
C) Respiratory rate
D) Blood pressure
Q2) How should the nurse instruct the mother who calls the emergency department because her 9-year-old child has just fallen on his face and one of his front teeth fell out?
A) Put the tooth back in the child's mouth and call the dentist right away.
B) Place the tooth in milk or water and go directly to the emergency department.
C) Gently place the tooth in a plastic zippered bag until she makes a dental appointment.
D) Clean the tooth and call the dentist for an immediate appointment.
Q3) Which initial assessment made by the triage nurse suggests that a child requires immediate intervention?
A) The child has thick yellow rhinorrhea.
B) The child has a frequent nonproductive cough.
C) The child's oxygen saturation is 95% by pulse oximeter.
D) The child is grunting.
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Chapter 35: The Ill Child in the Hospital and Other Care Settings
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18090
Sample Questions
Q1) Having explanations for all procedures and selecting their own meals from hospital menus is an important coping mechanism for which age-group?
A) Toddlers
B) Preschoolers
C) School-age children
D) Adolescents.
Q2) After a serious illness or trauma the child's ability to function may change.Once the acute situation has resolved,the child may be transferred to a __________ hospital.
Q3) A designated safe place can enhance the child's security while in the hospital.For example,intrusive procedures that may cause discomfort or anxiety are best done in the child's room.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a child is hospitalized,one component of their plan of care is the use of therapeutic play.This care is often provided by a(n)_____________.
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Chapter 36: The Child With a Chronic Condition or Terminal Illness
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18091
Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child born with disabilities ask the nurse for advice about discipline.The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that discipline is
A) Essential for the child
B) Too difficult to implement with special-needs child
C) Not needed unless the child becomes problematic
D) Best achieved with punishment for misbehavior
Q2) What is the primary concern for the parents of a dying child?
A) Pain
B) Safety
C) Food intake
D) Fluid intake.
Q3) Identify the most appropriate response for the nurse when parents say,"Living with this disease is really hard; it's not fair."
A) "Tell me about what is hard for you."
B) "I know exactly how you must feel."
C) "I know a local support group for families."
D) "I am going to ask the grief counselor to meet with you."
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Principles and Procedures for Nursing Care of Children
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18092
Sample Questions
Q1) In preparing to give "enemas until clear" to a young child,the nurse should select
A) Tap water
B) Normal saline
C) Oil retention
D) Fleet solution
Q2) An important nursing consideration when performing a bladder catheterization on a young boy is to
A) Use clean technique, not Standard Precautions.
B) Insert 2% lidocaine lubricant into the urethra.
C) Lubricate catheter with water-soluble lubricant such as K-Y Jelly.
D) Delay catheterization for 20 minutes while anesthetic lubricant is absorbed.
Q3) The nurse is planning how to prepare a 4-year-old child for some diagnostic procedures.Guidelines for preparing this preschooler should include
A) Planning for a short teaching session of about 30 minutes
B) Telling the child that procedures are never a form of punishment
C) Keeping equipment out of the child's view
D) Using correct scientific and medical terminology in explanations
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Medication Administration and Safety for
Infants and Children
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18093
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the hourly maintenance fluid rate for an intravenous infusion in a child weighing 19.5 kg?
A) 19 mL
B) 61 mL
C) 195 mL
D) 1475 mL
Q2) What is the main purpose for using a volume-control device,such as a Buretrol or an infusion pump,to administer intravenous fluids to children?
A) To avoid fluid overload
B) To aid in measuring intake
C) To administer antibiotics
D) To ensure adequate intravenous fluid intake
Q3) What action is appropriate when using an EMLA cream before intravenous catheter insertion?
A) Rub a liberal amount of cream into the skin thoroughly.
B) Cover the skin with a gauze dressing after applying the cream.
C) Leave the cream on the skin for 1 to 2 hours before the procedure.
D) Use the smallest amount of cream necessary to numb the skin surface.
Q4) What is the 24-hour maintenance fluid requirement for a child weighing 8.5 kg?
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Chapter 39: Pain Management for Children
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18094
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a 4-year-old with a fractured humerus for an MRI.While the nurse is explaining the procedure to the child's parents,she understands that procedural sedation is a medically controlled state of depressed consciousness that will allow the child to be able to respond appropriately and to maintain her airway control.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child receiving intravenous (IV)morphine for severe postoperative pain.The nurse observes a slower respiratory rate,and the child cannot be aroused.The most appropriate management of this child is for the nurse to A) Administer naloxone (Narcan).
B) Discontinue IV infusion.
C) Discontinue morphine until child is fully awake.
D) Stimulate child by calling name, shaking gently, and asking to breathe deeply.
Q3) Skin to skin holding of infants dressed only in a diaper,next to their mother's or father's chest is commonly known as __________ care.
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Chapter 40: The Child With a Fluid and Electrolyte Alteration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18095
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best response by the nurse to a parent asking about antidiarrheal medication for her 18-month-old child?
A) "It is okay to give antidiarrheal medication to a young child as long as you follow the directions on the box for correct dosage."
B) "Antidiarrheal medication is not recommended for young children because it slows the body's attempt to rid itself of the pathogen."
C) "I'm sure your child won't like the taste, so give extra fluids when you give the medication."
D) "Antidiarrheal medication will lessen the frequency of stools, but give your child Gatorade to maintain electrolyte balance."
Q2) The parents of a child with acid-base imbalance ask the nurse about mechanisms that regulate acid-base balance.Which statement by the nurse accurately explains the mechanisms regulating acid-base balance in children?
A) The respiratory, renal, and chemical-buffering systems
B) The kidneys balance acid; the lungs balance base
C) The cardiovascular and integumentary systems
D) The skin, kidney, and endocrine systems
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Chapter 41: The Child With an Infectious Disease
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18096
Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of an infant with multiple anomalies tells the nurse that she had a viral infection in the beginning of her pregnancy.Which viral infection is associated with fetal anomalies?
A) Measles
B) Roseola
C) Rubella
D) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Q2) A child taking oral corticosteroids for asthma is exposed to varicella.The child has not had the varicella vaccine and has never had the disease.What intervention should be taken to prevent varicella from developing?
A) No intervention is needed unless varicella develops.
B) Administer the varicella vaccine as soon as possible.
C) The child should begin a course of oral antibiotics.
D) The child should be prescribed acyclovir.
Q3) What should the nurse expect to observe in the prodromal phase of rubeola?
A) Macular rash on the face
B) Koplik spots
C) Petechiae on the soft palate
D) Crops of vesicles on the trunk
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Page 43
Chapter 42: The Child With an Immunologic Alteration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18097
Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention is appropriate for a child receiving high doses of steroids?
A) Limit activity and receive home schooling.
B) Decrease the amount of potassium in the diet.
C) Substitute a killed virus vaccine for live virus vaccines.
D) Monitor for seizure activity.
Q2) The nurse observes a red butterfly-shaped rash that spreads across the child's cheeks and nose.This assessment finding is characteristic of which condition?
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B) Rheumatic fever
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Anaphylactic reaction
Q3) The nurse is planning care for an adolescent with AIDS.The priority nursing goal is to A) Prevent infection.
B) Prevent secondary cancers.
C) Restore immunologic defenses.
D) Identify source of infection.
Q4) _________________________ is a chronic,multisystem,autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation of the connective tissue.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Child With a Gastrointestinal Alteration
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18098
Sample Questions
Q1) Which description of a stool is characteristic of intussusception?
A) Ribbon-like stools
B) Hard stools positive for guaiac
C) "Currant jelly" stools
D) Loose, foul-smelling stools
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for the toddler with celiac disease?
A) Disturbed Body Image related to chronic constipation
B) Risk for Disproportionate Growth related to obesity
C) Excess Fluid Volume related to celiac crisis
D) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements related to malabsorption
Q3) Which order should the nurse question when caring for a 5-year-old child after surgery for Hirschsprung disease?
A) Monitor rectal temperature every 4 hours and report an elevation greater than 38.5° C.
B) Assess stools after surgery.
C) Keep the child NPO until bowel sounds return.
D) Maintain IV fluids at ordered rate.
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45
Chapter 44: The Child With a Genitourinary Alteration
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18099
Sample Questions
Q1) Hypospadias refers to
A) Absence of a urethral opening
B) Penis shorter than usual for age
C) Urethral opening along dorsal surface of penis
D) Urethral opening along ventral surface of penis
Q2) The primary clinical manifestations of acute renal failure are
A) Oliguria and hypertension
B) Hematuria and pallor
C) Proteinuria and muscle cramps
D) Bacteriuria and facial edema
Q3) A true statement describing the differences in the pediatric genitourinary system compared with the adult genitourinary system is that
A) The young infant's kidneys can more effectively concentrate urine than an adult's kidneys.
B) After 6 years of age, kidney function is nearly like that of an adult.
C) Unlike adults, most children do not regain normal kidney function after acute renal failure.
D) Young children have shorter urethras, which can predispose them to UTIs.
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Chapter 45: The Child With a Respiratory Alteration
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18100
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a child with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)associated with sepsis.Nursing actions should include:
A) Forcing fluids
B) Monitoring pulse oximetry
C) Instituting seizure precautions
D) Encouraging a high-protein diet
Q2) The nurse is providing education related to "Safe Sleep" to the parents of a healthy newborn infant to help prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).The nurse instructs the parents that bed sharing is not recommended; however,they should put the infant in a safe bassinet or crib in the parent's room for sleeping.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) What explanation should the nurse give to the parent of a child with asthma about using a peak flow meter?
A) It is used to monitor the child's breathing capacity.
B) It measures the child's lung volume.
C) It will help the medication reach the child's airways.
D) It measures the amount of air the child breathes in.
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Chapter 46: The Child With a Cardiovascular Alteration
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18101
Sample Questions
Q1) What intervention should be included in the plan of care for an infant with the nursing diagnosis of Excess Fluid Volume related to congestive heart failure?
A) Weigh the infant every day on the same scale at the same time.
B) Notify the physician when weight gain exceeds more than 20 g/day.
C) Put the infant in a car seat to minimize movement.
D) Administer digoxin (Lanoxin) as ordered by the physician.
Q2) A nurse is assigned to care for an infant with an unrepaired tetralogy of Fallot.What should the nurse do first when the baby is crying and becomes severely cyanotic?
A) Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
B) Administer oxygen.
C) Administer morphine sulfate.
D) Calm the infant.
Q3) The nurse is admitting a child to the hospital for a cardiac workup.What is the first step in a cardiac assessment?
A) Percussion
B) Palpation
C) Auscultation
D) History and inspection
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Chapter 47: The Child With a Hematologic Alteration
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18102
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a child with aplastic anemia.What nursing diagnoses are appropriate? Select all that apply.
A) Acute Pain related to vaso-occlusion
B) Risk for Infection related to inadequate secondary defenses or immunosuppression
C) Ineffective Protection related to thrombocytopenia
D) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion related to anemia
E) Ineffective Protection related to abnormal clotting
Q2) A condition in which the normal adult hemoglobin is partly or completely replaced by abnormal hemoglobin is known as
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Iron-deficiency anemia
Q3) A syndrome that leads to the deposition of platelets and fibrinogen plugs in the vasculature and the simultaneous depletion of platelets and clotting factor proteins is commonly known as DIC or _____________________.
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Chapter 48: The Child With Cancer
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18103
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse teach parents about oral hygiene for the child receiving chemotherapy?
A) Brush the teeth briskly to remove bacteria.
B) Use a mouthwash that contains alcohol.
C) Inspect the child's mouth daily for ulcers.
D) Perform oral hygiene twice a day.
Q2) A less common malignancy of muscle or striated tissue is known as ______________.
Q3) What is the nurse's best response to a mother whose child has a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia and is expressing guilt about not having responded sooner to her boy's symptoms?
A) "You should always call the physician when your child has a change in what is normal for him."
B) "It is better to be safe than sorry."
C) "It is not uncommon for parents not to notice subtle changes in their children's health."
D) "I hope this delay does not affect the treatment plan."
Q4) In recent years the use of _____________ stem cell transplantation has become the accepted therapy for the treatment of several hematologic and oncologic disorders.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Child With an Alteration in Tissue Integrity
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18104
Sample Questions
Q1) The pediatric nurse understands that cellulitis is most often caused by
A) Herpes zoster
B) Candida albicans
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Streptococcus or Staphylococcus organisms
Q2) To assess the child with severe burns for adequate perfusion,the nurse monitors
A) Distal pulses
B) Skin turgor
C) Urine output
D) Mucous membranes
Q3) What should the parents of an infant with thrush (oral candidiasis)be taught about medication administration?
A) Give nystatin suspension with a syringe without a needle.
B) Apply nystatin cream to the affected area twice a day.
C) Give nystatin before the infant is fed.
D) Swab nystatin suspension onto the oral mucous membranes after feedings.
Q4) A new mother calls the pediatrician's office concerned because her newborn has developed a salmon colored,irregularly shaped spot between the eyes.The lesion becomes darker when the baby is crying.This skin lesion is called a(n)____________.
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Chapter 50: The Child With a Musculoskeletal Alteration
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18105
Sample Questions
Q1) Discharge planning for the child with juvenile arthritis includes the need for
A) Routine ophthalmologic examinations to assess for visual problems
B) A low-calorie diet to decrease or control weight in the less mobile child
C) Avoiding the use of aspirin to decrease gastric irritation
D) Immobilizing the painful joints, which is the result of the inflammatory process
Q2) During a 14-year-old's physical examination,the nurse identifies that he plays soccer and football and is complaining of knee pain when he rises from a squatting position,and difficulty with weight bearing.The nurse should suspect
A) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
B) Osteomyelitis
C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D) Osgood-Schlatter disease
Q3) A nurse knows that which exercise is best for a child with juvenile arthritis?
A) Jogging
B) Tennis
C) Gymnastics
D) Swimming in a heated pool
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Chapter 51: The Child With an Endocrine or Metabolic Alteration
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18106
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for parents of a child with diabetes insipidus who is receiving DDAVP?
A) Increase the dosage of DDAVP as the urine specific gravity (SG) increases.
B) Give DDAVP only if urine output decreases.
C) The child should have free access to water and toilet facilities at school.
D) Cleanse skin before administering the transdermal patch.
Q2) Which children admitted to the pediatric unit would the nurse monitor closely for development of SIADH? Select all who apply.
A) A newly diagnosed preschooler with type 1 diabetes
B) A school-age child returning from surgery for removal of a brain tumor
C) An infant with suspected meningitis
D) An adolescent with blunt abdominal trauma following a car accident
E) A school-age child with head trauma
Q3) What is the best nursing action when a child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is sweating,trembling,and pale?
A) Offer the child a glass of water.
B) Give the child 5 units of regular insulin subcutaneously.
C) Give the child a glass of orange juice.
D) Give the child glucagon subcutaneously.
Page 53
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Chapter 52: The Child With a Neurologic Alteration
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18107
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most appropriate nursing action when a child is in the tonic phase of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure?
A) Guide the child to the floor if standing and go for help.
B) Turn the child's body on the side.
C) Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth.
D) Quickly slip soft restraints on the child's wrists.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury.The most essential part of nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition is
A) Posturing
B) Vital signs
C) Focal neurologic signs
D) Level of consciousness
Q3) A mother reports that her child has episodes where he appears to be staring into space.This behavior is characteristic of which type of seizure?
A) Absence
B) Atonic
C) Tonic-clonic
D) Simple partial
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Psychosocial Problems in Children and Families
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18108
Sample Questions
Q1) In counseling an adolescent who is abusing alcohol,the nurse explains that alcohol abuse primarily affects which organ of the body?
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Brain
D) Lungs
Q2) Munchausen syndrome by proxy occurs when a person falsifies illness in their child.The pediatric nurse who is admitting a preschooler with this potential diagnosis understands that this is the most difficult form of child abuse to diagnose.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which manifestation is atypical of ADHD?
A) Talking incessantly
B) Blurting out the answers to questions before the questions have been completed
C) Acting withdrawn in social situations
D) Fidgeting with hands or feet
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Page 55
Chapter 54: The Child With a Developmental Disability
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18109
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent whose child has been diagnosed with a cognitive deficit should be counseled that intellectual impairment
A) Is usually due to a genetic defect
B) May be caused by a variety of factors
C) Is rarely due to first trimester events
D) Is usually caused by parental intellectual impairment
Q2) The best setting for daytime care for a 5-year-old autistic child whose mother works is
A) Private day care
B) Public school
C) His own home with a sitter
D) A specialized program that facilitates interaction by use of behavioral methods
Q3) The nurse is providing counseling to the mother of a child diagnosed with fragile X syndrome.She explains to the mother that fragile X syndrome is
A) Most commonly seen in girls
B) Acquired after birth
C) Usually transmitted by the male carrier
D) Usually transmitted by the female carrier
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Chapter 55: The Child With a Sensory Alteration
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18110
Sample Questions
Q1) A mother brings her 18-month-old son to the pediatrician for a routine well-child visit.She is concerned about her child's speech.He has been babbling and cooing since 6 months of age but is not yet saying any words.Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?
A) "Don't worry, he should catch up soon. Boys are always slower at speaking than girls."
B) "The doctor will want to refer your son to an audiologist and speech pathologist."
C) "This is normal speech development for an 18-month-old child."
D) "Your son has an expressive language disorder and will need a referral for further evaluation."
Q2) Discharge planning for an 8-year-old child with a patched eye after a corneal abrasion should include
A) Removing the patch after 8 hours for instillation of antibiotic ointment
B) Gently massaging the affected eye to prevent edema
C) Keeping the patch in place for 24 hours
D) Returning after 7 days of patching for reassessment
Q3) Adequate hearing depends on intact auditory structures and quality of sound.Failure to hear at 16 to 25 dB would be categorized as a __________ hearing loss.
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