Reproductive Health Nursing Mock
Exam
Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of individuals and families in matters related to reproductive health across the lifespan. This course covers the principles and practices of nursing care in areas such as family planning, prenatal and postnatal care, infertility, sexually transmitted infections, and menopause. Emphasis is placed on health promotion, disease prevention, and education, as well as addressing psychosocial, ethical, and cultural aspects of reproductive health. Students will also explore contemporary issues such as reproductive rights and policies, and develop critical thinking skills for clinical decision-making within a multidisciplinary healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor significantly contributed to the shift from home births to hospital births in the early twentieth century?
A) The number of hospital births decreased.
B) Forceps were developed to facilitate difficult births.
C) The importance of early parent-infant contact was identified.
D) Puerperal sepsis was identified as a risk factor in labor and birth.
Answer: B
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care.
B) Changes in pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care.
C) Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care.
D) Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the nurse?
A) Administering oral analgesics
B) Requesting diagnostic studies
C) Teaching the client perineal care
D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Answer: C
Q2) A 16-year-old primipara has just completed her first prenatal visit with the health care provider. The nurse is preparing to teach her about nutrition during pregnancy. What must the nurse include in the patient's teaching plan?
A) Provide her with pictures of dairy products.
B) Ask her, "Are you ready to hear this information now?"
C) Read directly from the pamphlet prepared for teen mothers.
D) Provide a comfortable and warm setting after she has put on her street clothes.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following complications are associated with late preterm infants? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Tachycardia
C) Jaundice
D) Thermoregulation problems
E) Require mechanical ventilation
F) Feeding problems
Answer: C, D, E, F
Q2) At the present time, surrogate parenting is governed by which of the following?
A) State law
B) Federal law
C) Individual court decision
D) Protective child services
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing normal female development with a mother of a 10-year-old daughter. The mother states, "I noticed that my daughter developed breast buds about a year ago. When do you think she will start her menstrual cycle?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "In about a year."
B) "Likely any time now."
C) "Does your daughter know what to expect?"
D) "It is impossible to predict when she will start her cycle."
Q2) A newly pregnant client asks the nurse, "What is the false pelvis?" Which is a correct statement that the nurse should give the client?
A) It is the total anterior portion of the pelvis.
B) It is considered to be the lower portion of the pelvis.
C) It provides support for the internal organs and the upper part of the body.
D) It is the narrowest part of the pelvis through which a fetus will pass during birth.
Q3) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working with a client to obtain information needed for genetic counseling. Which tool will be used to obtain this information?
A) Braden scale
B) Genogram
C) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
D) Serum protein electrophoresis
Q2) Autosomal dominant
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Q3) Identification of a newborn's blood indicates type AB. Based on this assessment, which statement is correct?
A) Each parent had recessive genes for type O.
B) One parent had type O and the other parent had type A.
C) One parent had type A and the other parent had type B.
D) Each parent had type A.
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
Q2) Intervillous spaces
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q3) The nurse is conducting a staff in-service on multifetal pregnancy. Which statement about dizygotic twin development should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) Dizygotic twins arise from two fertilized ova and are the same sex.
B) Dizygotic twins arise from a single fertilized ovum and are always of the same sex.
C) Dizygotic twins arise from two fertilized ova and may be the same sex or different sexes.
D) Dizygotic twins arise from a single fertilized ovum and may be the same sex or different sexes.
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client has just learned she is pregnant and overhears the gynecologist saying that she has a positive Chadwick's sign. When the client asks the nurse what this means, how should the nurse respond?
A) "Chadwick's sign signifies an increased risk of blood clots in pregnant women because of a congestion of blood."
B) "That sign means the cervix has softened as the result of tissue changes that naturally occur with pregnancy."
C) "This means that a mucous plug has formed in the cervical canal to help protect you from uterine infection."
D) "This sign occurs normally in pregnancy, when estrogen causes increased blood flow in the area of the cervix."
Q2) A pregnant immigrant has an unknown immunization history. When she presents for routine vaccinations, which will the nurse administer?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Measles
C) Rubella
D) Varicella
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reveals to the patient that the over-the-counter test is verified and that she is pregnant. The patient confides to the nurse, "We have wanted to be pregnant for some time. These last few days I have been questioning our decision. I am feeling really bad right now." What is the nurse's best response?
A) "You will come around in time and you will grow to love this baby."
B) "Don't feel bad. It is the hormones of pregnancy talking right now."
C) "Why do you think you are feeling bad when you wanted to be pregnant?"
D) "Your feelings are understandable. Ambivalence is not uncommon right now."
Q2) Which of the following would be considered to be a system barrier to the birth of prenatal care?
A) Adolescent pregnant client
B) Inability to schedule an appointment with the health care provider because of a busy medical practice
C) Pregnant client has no health insurance
D) Having to sign in for the initial appointment and complete health history records
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10
Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client's diet may not meet her need for folate. What is a good source of this nutrient?
A) Chicken
B) Cheese
C) Potatoes
D) Green leafy vegetables
Q2) The health care provider has recommended an iron supplement for the patient who is 20 weeks pregnant. The nurse is reviewing the recommendation with the patient. What fluid is best for the nurse to recommend when taking an iron supplement?
A) 8 ounces of milk
B) 8 ounces of water
C) 4 ounces of orange juice
D) 4 ounces of apple juice
Q3) Which food selections would lead to enhanced iron absorption during pregnancy?
A) Eating additional fiber and grains in the diet
B) Drinking coffee with meals
C) Drinking orange juice
D) Including spinach in the diet two to three times a week
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11
Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a non-stress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings?
A) NST positive, nonreassuring
B) NST negative, reassuring
C) NST reactive, reassuring
D) NST nonreactive, nonreassuring
Q2) The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine whether the fetus has which?
A) Hemophilia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) A neural tube defect
D) A normal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
Q3) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
A)A test for estimating fetal lung maturity
B)A test to assess blood flow to identify abnormalities
C)A test to diagnose fetal chromosomal, metabolic, or DNA abnormalities
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
A) Imagery
B) Effleurage
C) Mental stimulation
D) Thermal stimulation
Q2) Dick-Read childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
Q3) Which statement is incorrect regarding prepared childbirth education?
A) No use of anesthetics or drugs is to be administered to clients so they can have a natural childbirth experience.
B) Clients can take refresher courses if they have delivered within the last 2 years.
C) Prepared childbirth classes may differ slightly based on the available resources of health care facilities.
D) Prepared childbirth classes are aimed at increasing awareness of the childbirth experience for parents and significant others to promote better control of pain and decrease anxiety.
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse who elects to practice in the area of obstetrics often hears discussion regarding the four Ps. What are the four Ps that interact during childbirth? (Select all that apply.)
A) Powers
B) Passage
C) Position
D) Passenger
E) Psyche
Q2) A client in labor presents with a breech presentation. The nurse understands that a breech presentation is associated with:
A) more rapid labor.
B) a high risk of infection.
C) maternal perineal trauma.
D) umbilical cord compression.
Q3) The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is:
A) total duration of labor.
B) level of pain experienced.
C) amount of cervical dilation.
D) sequence of labor mechanisms.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the client to be:
A) discharged home with a sedative.
B) admitted for extended observation.
C) admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth.
D) discharged home to await the onset of true labor.
Q2) A 25-year-old primigravida client is in the first stage of labor. She and her husband have been holding hands and breathing together through each contraction. Suddenly, the client pushes her husband's hand away and shouts, "Don't touch me!" This behavior is most likely:
A) abnormal labor.
B) a sign that she needs analgesia.
C) normal and related to hyperventilation.
D) common during the transition phase of labor.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse documents that the fetal heart rate variability is marked. This indicates that the range is greater than how many beats per minute? Record your answer as a whole number.
_____ bpm
Q2) The nurse observes the following data on an electronic fetal monitor attached to a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor: fetal heart rate baseline, 125 to 140 bpm, three accelerations over the course of 20 minutes, moderate variability. What is the priority action based on these findings?
A) Document the findings.
B) Contact the health care provider.
C) Increase the rate of the existing IV to 200 mL/hr as per the standing prescription.
D) Place oxygen via a rebreather mask at 10 L/min as per the standing prescription.
Q3) When a pattern of variable decelerations occur, the nurse should:
A) administer O S1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/min.
B) place a wedge under the right hip.
C) increase the IV fluids to 150 mL/hr.
D) position client in a knee-chest position.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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47 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of labor places significant metabolic demands on the obstetric client. Which physiologic findings would be expected?
A) Decreased maternal blood pressure as a result of stimulation of alpha receptors
B) Uterine vasoconstriction as a result of stimulation of beta receptors
C) Increased maternal demand for oxygen
D) Increased blood flow to placenta because of catecholamine release
Q2) A pregnant woman is in the second stage of labor and is actively pushing. What type of pain would she be most likely to experience?
A) Deep, poorly localized pain
B) Visceral pain
C) Slow, dull, aching pain
D) Somatic pain
Q3) Childbirth preparation can be considered successful if the outcome is described as which of the following?
A) Labor was pain-free.
B) The birth experiences of friends and families were ignored.
C) Only nonpharmacologic methods for pain control were used.
D) The client rehearsed labor and practiced skills to master pain.
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion for the augmentation of labor is experiencing a contraction pattern of more than eight contractions in a 10-minute period. Which intervention would be a priority?
A) Increase rate of Pitocin infusion to help spread out contraction pattern.
B) Place oxygen on client at 8 to 10 L/min via face mask and turn client to left side.
C) Stop Pitocin infusion.
D) Call physician to obtain an order for initiation of magnesium sulfate.
Q2) Which of the following factors would lead to an increased risk for a prolapsed cord to occur during an amniotomy?
A) Presenting part engaged
B) Postdated pregnancy
C) Preterm pregnancy
D) Term pregnancy
Q3) The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin infusion is:
A) measuring urinary output.
B) evaluating cervical dilation.
C) monitoring uterine response.
D) increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes.
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) To facilitate adequate urinary elimination during the postpartum period, the nurse should incorporate which intervention in the plan of care?
A) Have the client drink carbonated beverages to promote urinary excretion.
B) Tell the client that because of postpartum diuresis there is less risk to develop dehydration.
C) Limit fluid intake to prevent polyuria.
D) Teach the client to do pelvic floor exercises to combat potential stress incontinence.
Q2) The postpartum nurse has completed discharge teaching for a client being discharged after an uncomplicated vaginal birth. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching is needed?
A) "I may not have a bowel movement until the 2nd postpartum day."
B) "If I breastfeed and supplement with formula, I won't need any birth control."
C) "I know my normal pattern of bowel elimination won't return until about 8 to 10 days."
D) "If I am not breastfeeding, I should use birth control when I resume sexual relations with my husband."
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are nursing measures that can promote parent-infant bonding and attachment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Provide comfort and ample time for rest.
B) Keep the baby wrapped to avoid cold stress.
C) Position the infant face to face with the mother.
D) Point out the characteristics of the infant in a positive way.
E) Limit the amount of modeling so the mother doesn't feel insecure.
Q2) The nurse is developing a plan of care for the patient's fourth stage of labor. One nursing intervention is to promote bonding. Specifically, which nursing action will facilitate the bonding process?
A) Encourage the patient to call the baby by his or her first name.
B) Stimulate the grasp reflex by placing the patient's finger in the infant's palm.
C) Ask the patient if she wants her baby placed on her chest immediately after birth.
D) Assess for familial characteristics and remark on the resemblance to the patient or the father.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action by the nurse can cause hyperthermia in the newborn?
A) Placing a cap on the newborn
B) Wrapping the newborn in a warm blanket
C) Placing the newborn in a skin to skin position with the mother
D) Placing the newborn in the radiant warmer without attaching the skin probe
Q2) An infant at 36 weeks' gestation was just delivered; included in the protocol for a preterm infant is an initial blood glucose assessment. The nurse obtains the blood and the reading is 58 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action based on this reading?
A) Document the finding in the newborn's chart.
B) Double-wrap the newborn under a warming unit.
C) Feed the newborn a 10% dextrose solution.
D) Notify the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) of the pending admission.
Q3) Which infant has the lowest risk of developing high levels of bilirubin?
A) The infant who developed a cephalohematoma
B) The infant who was bruised during a difficult birth
C) The infant who uses brown fat to maintain temperature
D) The infant who is breastfed during the first hour of life
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are early signs of hypoglycemia in the newborn for which the nurse should assess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Jitteriness
B) Poor feeding
C) Respiratory difficulty
D) An increase in temperature
E) A capillary refill of 2 seconds
Q2) Caput succedaneum
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
Q3) Cephalohematoma
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
Q4) A maculopapular rash with a red base and a small white papule in the center is: A) milia.
B) Mongolian spots.
C) erythema toxicum.
D) café-au-lait spots.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing action is a priority to prevent infection in the newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Wearing gloves before touching neonates
B) Washing hands before and after handling any neonate
C) Washing hands and arms thoroughly at the beginning of the day
D) Sharing some equipment that will not transmit infection from one neonate to another
Q2) A yellow crust has formed over the circumcision site. The mother calls the hotline at the local hospital 5 days after her son was circumcised. She is very concerned. On which rationale should the nurse base a reply?
A) The yellow crust should not be removed.
B) This yellow crust is an early sign of infection.
C) Discontinue the use of petroleum jelly to the tip of the penis.
D) After circumcision, the diaper should be changed frequently and fastened snugly.
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn infant weighs 7 pounds, 2 ounces, on the fifth day of life. How much water should be given to the newborn based on required fluid needs?
A) Fluid replacement should be based on weight and calculated in the range of 60 to 100 mL/kg.
B) Offer additional water to tolerance in between infant feedings to maintain hydration.
C) Give 12 ounces of fluid per feeding.
D) No water is needed because formula and breast milk are adequate to maintain hydration.
Q2) A new mother is concerned because her 1-day-old newborn is taking only 1 oz at each feeding. What should the nurse explain?
A) The infant is probably having difficulty adjusting to the formula.
B) An infant does not require as much formula in the first few days of life.
C) The infant's stomach capacity is small at birth but will expand within a few days.
D) The infant tires easily during the first few days but will gradually take more formula.
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother is preparing for discharge from the birthing center and relays to the nurse her concerns about how she will handle her baby's episodes of crying. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "I hear your concern. Is there someone in the household who cannot tolerate hearing a baby cry?"
B) "It is okay to just let the baby cry from time to time. You don't want to risk spoiling the baby too soon."
C) "Infants only cry when they are hungry or if they have gas. If you don't eat any gas-producing food, your baby will cry less."
D) "Crying is the way your baby communicates with you. It is important for you to meet your baby's needs consistently and promptly."
Q2) Which statement made by a new mother should be a cause of concern to the nurse?
A) "I will start my baby on solid foods at 5 months."
B) "I usually keep the temperature in my house at 72° F."
C) "I plan to position my infant on his back when sleeping."
D) "I don't intend to spoil my baby by picking him up every time he cries."
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25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which environment can assist a pregnant teen to achieve the task of establishing a stable identity?
A) Home schooling
B) Alternative education program
C) School-based mothers' program
D) Continuing mainstream high school classes
Q2) Which is the most dangerous effect on the fetus of a client who smokes cigarettes while pregnant?
A) Intrauterine growth restriction
B) Genetic changes and anomalies
C) Extensive central nervous system damage
D) Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled
Q3) A pregnant client who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit. This behavior puts her at a greater risk for:
A) postmature birth.
B) Sexually transmitted diseases.
C) Hypotension and vasodilation.
D) Depression of the central nervous system.
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor and birth nurse is reviewing the risk factors for placenta previa with a group of nursing students. The nurse determines that the students understood the discussion when they identify which patient being at the highest risk for developing a placenta previa?
A) Female fetus, Mexican-American, primigravida
B) Male fetus, Asian-American, previous preterm birth
C) Male fetus, African-American, previous cesarean section
D) Female fetus, European-American, previous spontaneous abortion
Q2) Which assessment finding indicates the development of preeclampsia in the antepartum client?
A) Slight edema of feet and ankles.
B) Increased urine output
C) Blood pressure of 128/80 mm Hg
D) Weight gain of 3 pounds in 1 week
Q3) In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
A) Complete abortion at 8 weeks
B) Incomplete abortion at 16 weeks
C) Threatened abortion at 6 weeks
D) Incomplete abortion at 10 weeks
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the instructions given to a patient at 24 weeks' gestation for a glucose tolerance test (GCT). The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she makes which statement?
A) "I have to fast the night before the test."
B) "I will drink a sugary solution containing 100 grams of glucose."
C) "I will have blood drawn at 1 hour after I drink the glucose solution."
D) "I should keep track of my baby's movements between now and the test."
Q2) The results of a pregnant patient's glucose tolerance test (GTT) were 158 mg/dL. What is the next test that the nurse will include in the patient's teaching plan?
A) Urinalysis
B) Amniocentesis
C) Nonstress test
D) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
Q3) Which disease process improves during pregnancy?
A) Epilepsy
B) Bell's palsy
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
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28
Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Q1) Emergency measures used in the treatment of a prolapsed cord include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administration of oxygen via face mask at 8 to 10 L/min
B) Maternal change of position to knee-chest
C) Administration of tocolytic agent
D) Administration of oxytocin (Pitocin)
E) Vaginal elevation
F) Insertion of cord back into vaginal area
Q2) Which client situation presents the greatest risk for the occurrence of hypotonic dysfunction during labor?
A) A primigravida who is 17 years old
B) A 22-year-old multiparous client with ruptured membranes
C) A primigravida who has requested no analgesia during her labor
D) A multiparous client at 39 weeks of gestation who is expecting twins
Q3) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean birth because:
A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the client delivers vaginally.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which labor and birth information on the client would suggest an increased risk for hemorrhage?
A) Precipitous birth after a 12-hour labor
B) Cesarean birth of an infant weighing 8 lb, 4 oz
C) Vaginal birth of 7-lb infant after a 2-hour labor
D) Vaginal birth of 6-lb infant after a 7-hour labor
Q2) If the nurse suspects a complication of a low forceps birth labor, she should immediately:
A) administer a strong oral analgesic.
B) assess the perineal and vaginal areas.
C) assess the position of the uterine fundus.
D) review the labor record for duration of second stage.
Q3) A postpartum client has developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and treatment with warfarin (Coumadin) has been initiated. Which dietary selection should be modified in view of this treatment regimen?
A) Fresh fruits
B) Milk
C) Lentils
D) Soda
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Page 30
Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for the post-term infant, thermoregulation can be a concern, especially in an infant who also has a(n):
A) Hematocrit level of 58%.
B) RBC count of 5 million/mL.
C) WBC count of 15,000 cells/mmS1U1P13S1S1P0.
D) Blood glucose level of 25 mg/dL.
Q2) In comparison with the term infant, the preterm infant has:
A) More subcutaneous fat.
B) Well-developed flexor muscles.
C) Few blood vessels visible through the skin.
D) Greater surface area in proportion to weight.
Q3) An infant delivered preterm at 28 weeks' gestation weighs 1200 g. Based on this information, the infant is designated as:
A) SGA.
B) VLBW.
C) ELBW.
D) Low birth weight at term.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which newborn should the nurse recognize as being most at risk for developing respiratory distress syndrome?
A) A 35-week-gestation male baby born vaginally to a mother addicted to heroin
B) A 35-week-gestation female baby born vaginally 72 hours after the rupture of membranes
C) A 36-week-gestation male baby born by cesarean birth to a mother with insulin-dependent diabetes
D) A 35-week-gestation female baby born vaginally to a mother who has pregnancy-induced hypertension
Q2) Newborns whose mothers are substance abusers frequently have which behaviors?
A) Hypothermia, decreased muscle tone, and weak sucking reflex
B) Excessive sleep, weak cry, and diminished grasp reflex
C) Circumoral cyanosis, hyperactive Babinski reflex, and constipation
D) Decreased amounts of sleep, hyperactive Moro reflex, and difficulty feeding
Q3) Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
A) Hb 18 g/dL, Hct 50%
B) Hb 25/dL, Hct 55%
C) Hb 20/dL, Hct 65%
D) Hb 30 g/dL, Hct 70%
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom in a client using oral contraceptives should be reported to the physician immediately?
A) 5-lb weight gain
B) Leg pain and edema
C) Decrease in menstrual flow
D) Increased pigmentation of the face
Q2) A client presents to the Women's Health Clinic for continuation of her contraceptive method. She has been using Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate) for 24 months. In preparation for instituting a plan of care, the nurse would consider which option as a priority?
A) Schedule the client for follow-up baseline diagnostic testing to confirm that the client is not pregnant.
B) Obtain information for an alternate contraception method.
C) Ask the client for additional information related to her menstrual cycle.
D) Inspect the skin for site selection of contraceptive method.
Q3) Which client is a safe candidate for the use of oral contraceptives?
A) 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis
B) 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor
C) 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant
D) 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is:
A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
Q2) A couple who has not achieved a successful pregnancy is scheduled to meet with a fertility specialist. Which simple evaluation is usually the first test to be performed?
A) Semen analysis
B) Testicular biopsy
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Hysterosalpingography
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) While performing a self-breast exam, the client notes an area on the right breast that is nodular, with some associated tenderness. This is a new onset finding because the exams were not problematic in the past,. The left breast examination is unremarkable. The client calls to report her findings to the clinical nurse because this is not her typical result. What action should the nurse take next?
A) Refer the client to an oncologist because the results sound suspicious.
B) Ask the client to come in for an office visit so that the findings can be validated but tell her that this information is within the normal range of presentation.
C) Have the client wear a tight-fitting bra and tell her that the tenderness is associated with ovulation and will pass.
D) Have the client repeat the self-breast exam in 2 weeks and call back with findings to provide a basis for comparison.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by a client diagnosed with premenstrual syndrome indicates that further health teaching is needed?
A) "I will not eat chips or pickles."
B) "I'll eat only three meals per day."
C) "Drinking alcohol makes me more depressed."
D) "Coffee and chocolate can make me more irritable and nervous."
Q2) A client with a history of a cystocele should contact the physician if she experiences:
A) backache.
B) constipation.
C) urinary frequency and burning.
D) involuntary loss of urine when she coughs.
Q3) Which client is most at risk for fibroadenoma of the breast?
A) Janice, 38 years old
B) Helen, 50 years old
C) Mary, 16 years old
D) Anna, 27 years old
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