Reproductive Health Nursing Exam Review
Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices of nursing care related to reproductive health across the lifespan. The course covers key topics such as reproductive system anatomy and physiology, contraception, fertility, pregnancy, childbirth, sexually transmitted infections, family planning, and reproductive rights. Emphasis is placed on holistic, evidence-based care, patient education, cultural sensitivity, and ethical considerations. Students will also develop skills in assessment, counseling, and the management of common reproductive health issues, preparing them to support individuals, couples, and families in promoting optimal reproductive health and well-being.
Recommended Textbook Maternity and Womens Health Care 10th Edition by Kathryn Rhodes Alden
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38 Chapters
817 Verified Questions
817 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity and Womens Health
Nursing
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The National Quality Forum has issued a list of "never events" pertaining specifically to maternal and child health.These include all except:
A)Infant discharged to the wrong person
B)Kernicterus associated with failure to identify and treat hyperbilirubinemia
C)Artificial insemination with wrong donor sperm or egg
D)Foreign object retained after surgery
Answer: D
Q2) An important development that concerns maternity nursing is integrative health care,which:
A)Seeks to provide the same health care for all racial and ethnic groups
B)Blends complementary and alternative therapies with conventional Western treatment
C)Focuses on the disease or condition rather than the client's background
D)Has been mandated by Congress
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Community Care: the Family and Culture
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the services of an interpreter are used,it is important for the nurse to:
A)Use any family member who can interpret
B)Use an interpreter who is certified and document the person's name in the nursing notes
C)Speak only to the interpreter
D)Use an interpreter only in an emergency
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse should be aware that the well-known program "warm lines":
A)Was developed as a reaction to impersonal telephonic nursing care
B)Was set up to take complaints about health maintenance organizations (HMOs)
C)Is the second option when 911 hotlines are busy
D)Refers to community service telephone lines designed to provide new parents with encouragement and basic information
Answer: D
Q3) What is the primary difference between hospital care and home health care?
A)Home care is routinely delivered continuously by professional staff.
B)Home care is delivered on an intermittent basis by professional staff.
C)Home care is delivered for emergency conditions.
D)Home care is not available 24 hours a day.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Clinical Genetics
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In practical terms regarding genetic health care,nurses should be aware that:
A)Genetic disorders affect equally people of all socioeconomic backgrounds,races,and ethnic groups
B)Genetic health care is more concerned with populations than individuals
C)The most important of all nursing functions is providing emotional support to the family during counseling
D)Taking genetic histories is the province of large universities and medical centers
Answer: C
Q2) In presenting to obstetric nurses interested in genetics,the genetic nurse identifies the primary risk(s)associated with genetic testing as:
A)Anxiety and altered family relationships
B)Denial of insurance benefits
C)High false positives associated with genetic testing
D)Ethnic and socioeconomic disparity associated with genetic testing
Answer: B
Q3) The karyotype designated as female is ___________________.
Answer: 46 XX
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Chapter 4: Assessment and Health Promotion
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the past 20 years the prevalence of obesity has doubled in the United States,with 25% of women older than 20 years of age being obese.Body mass index (BMI)is defined as the measure of an adult's weight in relation to his or her height.This is the most accurate measure of weight.This is an important part of the health screening process because obesity is closely associated with:
A)The non-Hispanic Caucasian population
B)A large number of chronic conditions
C)Mostly acute illnesses
D)Improved mental well-being
Q2) Which statement indicates that a client requires additional instruction about breast self-examination?
A)"Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period."
B)"I should check my breasts at the same time each month,after my period."
C)"I should also feel in my armpit area while performing my breast exam."
D)"I should check each breast in a set way,such as in a circular motion."
Q3) In order to effectively screen a client at risk for an eating disorder,the nurse should use the ________________ questionnaire.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Violence Against Women
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses must remember that pregnancy is a time of risk for all women.Which condition is likely the biggest risk for the pregnant client?
A)Preeclampsia
B)Intimate partner violence (IPV)
C)Diabetes
D)Abnormal Pap test
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis would be most applicable for battered women? Choose all that apply.
A)Loss of trust
B)Ineffective family coping
C)Situational low self-esteem
D)Risk for self-directed violence
E)Enhanced communication
Q3) The justification for the victimization of women very early in history was that:
A)Women were regarded as possessions
B)Women were the "weaker sex"
C)Control of women was necessary for protection
D)Women were created subordinate to men
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7
Chapter 6: Reproductive System Concerns
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During her annual gynecologic checkup,a 17-year-old woman states that recently she has been experiencing cramping and pain during her menstrual periods.The nurse documents this complaint as:
A)Amenorrhea
B)Dysmenorrhea
C)Dyspareunia
D)Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)
Q2) Some plant foods contain _________________________ and are capable of interacting with estrogen receptors in the body.
Q3) Obese women are more likely to have dysfunctional uterine bleeding and endometrial hyperplasia.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the alterations in cyclic bleeding that occurs between periods is called:
A)Oligomenorrhea
B)Menorrhagia
C)Leiomyoma
D)Metrorrhagia
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8
Chapter 7: Sexually Transmitted and Other Infections
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) TORCH stands for: R __________________
Q2) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute febrile reaction associated with treatment for __________________.
Q3) On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman,the nurse documents the following findings: profuse,thin,grayish-white vaginal discharge with a "fishy" odor;complains of pruritus.Based on these findings,the nurse suspects that this woman has:
A)Bacterial vaginosis
B)Candidiasis
C)Trichomoniasis
D)Gonorrhea
Q4) The nurse should know that once the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)enters the body,seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within:
A)6 to 10 days
B)2 to 4 weeks
C)6 to 12 weeks
D)6 months
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Chapter 8: Contraception and Abortion
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although reported in small numbers,toxic shock syndrome can occur with the use of a diaphragm.If a client is interested in this form of conception control,the nurse should teach the woman how to reduce her risk of TSS.The nurse might say:
A)"You should always remove your diaphragm 6 to 8 hours after intercourse.Don't use the diaphragm during menses,and watch for danger signs of TSS,including a sudden onset of fever over 38.4° C,hypotension,and a rash."
B)"You should remove your diaphragm right after intercourse to prevent TSS."
C)"It's okay to use your diaphragm during your menstrual cycle.Just be sure to wash it thoroughly first to prevent TSS."
D)"Make sure you don't leave your diaphragm in for longer than 24 hours,or you may get TSS."
Q2) Postcoital contraception with Ovral:
A)Requires that the first dose be taken within 120 hours of unprotected intercourse
B)Requires that the woman take second and third doses at 24 and 36 hours after the first dose
C)Has an effectiveness rate in preventing pregnancy of approximately 50%
D)Is commonly associated with the side effect of menorrhagia
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Chapter 9: Infertility
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the assessment of female,male,and couple infertility,nurses should be aware that:
A)The couple's religious,cultural,and ethnic backgrounds provide emotional clutter that does not affect the clinical scientific diagnosis
B)The investigation takes several months and can be very costly
C)The woman is assessed first;if she is not the problem,the male partner is analyzed D)Semen analysis is for men;the postcoital test is for women
Q2) Danazol (androgens)may be prescribed for an infertile woman if she has:
A)Thyroid dysfunction
B)Elevated levels of prolactin
C)Inadequate levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D)Endometriosis
Q3) Normally a fertile couple has approximately a 50% chance of conception each ovulatory cycle.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Problems of the Breast
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exact cause of breast cancer remains undetermined.Researchers have found a number of common risk factors that increase a woman's chance of developing a malignancy.It is essential for the nurse who provides care to women of any age to be aware of the following risk factors:
A)Family history
B)Late menarche
C)Early menopause
D)Race
E)Nulliparity or first pregnancy after age 30
Q2) What important,immediate postoperative care practice should the nurse remember when caring for a woman who has had a mastectomy?
A)The blood pressure (BP)cuff should not be applied to the affected arm.
B)Venipuncture for blood work should be performed on the affected arm.
C)The affected arm should be used for IV therapy.
D)The affected arm should be held down close to the woman's side.
Q3) Being overweight or obese is linked to a lower risk of breast cancer,especially for postmenopausal women.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Structural Disorders and Neoplasms of the Reproductive System
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the age of menarche to menopause,women remain at risk for structural disorders and neoplasms of the reproductive system.When caring for these clients the nurse must begin by assessing the woman's knowledge of the disorder,its management,and prognosis.This assessment should be followed by a nursing diagnosis.Which diagnosis does not address the psychologic effect of these disorders?
A)Anxiety related to surgical procedures
B)Disturbed body image as a result of changes in anatomy
C)Risk for injury related to lack of skill for self-care
D)Interrupted family processes
Q2) During internal radiation therapy for cervical cancer,the nurse should:
A)Wear gloves when assessing the cervical intracavity implant
B)Instruct the client to urinate in the lead-lined bedpan or "hat" every 2 hours
C)Prepare the client for an enema before insertion
D)Limit staff or visitor exposure to 30 minutes or less per 8 hours
Q3) Structural disorders of the uterus and vagina related to pelvic relaxation and urinary incontinence are a delayed result of childbearing.These defects do not appear in women who have never been pregnant.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Conception and Fetal Development
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the development of the respiratory system,maternity nurses should be aware that:
A)The respiratory system does not begin developing until after the embryonic stage
B)The infant's lungs are considered mature when the L/S ratio is 1:1,at about 32 weeks
C)Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow,accelerating lung maturity
D)Fetal respiratory movements are not visible on ultrasound scans until at least 16 weeks
Q2) With regard to the structure and function of the placenta,the maternity nurse should be aware that:
A)As the placenta widens,it gradually thins to allow easier passage of air and nutrients
B)As one of its early functions,the placenta acts as an endocrine gland
C)The placenta is able to keep out most potentially toxic substances,such as cigarette smoke,to which the mother is exposed
D)Optimal blood circulation is achieved through the placenta when the woman is lying on her back or standing
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14
Chapter 13: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the uterus,nurses should be aware that:
A)Lightening occurs near the end of the second trimester as the uterus rises into a different position
B)The woman's increased urinary frequency in the first trimester is the result of exaggerated uterine antireflexion caused by softening
C)Braxton Hicks contractions become more painful in the third trimester,particularly if the woman tries to exercise
D)The uterine souffle is the movement of the fetus
Q2) The musculoskeletal system adapts to the changes that occur during pregnancy.A woman can expect to experience what change?
A)Her center of gravity will shift backward.
B)She will have increased lordosis.
C)She will have increased abdominal muscle tone.
D)She will notice decreased mobility of her pelvic joints.
Q3) ____________________ is when the fetus begins to descend and drop into the pelvis.
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Chapter 14: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)have been established for the people of the United States and Canada.These recommendations for daily nutritional intakes meet the needs of approximately 75% to 80% of the healthy population.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) Assessment of a woman's nutritional status includes a diet history,medication regimen,physical examination,and relevant laboratory tests.A maternity nurse performing such an assessment should be aware that:
A)Oral contraceptive use may interfere with the absorption of iron
B)Illnesses that have created nutritional deficits,such as phenylketonuria (PKU),may require nutritional care before conception
C)The woman's socioeconomic status and educational level are not relevant to her examination;they are the province of the social worker
D)The only nutrition-related laboratory test most pregnant women need is testing for diabetes
Q3) Calculate the body mass index (BMI)for a woman who is 65 cm tall and weighs 115 lb.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse should be aware that a partner's main role in pregnancy is:
A)To provide financial support
B)To protect the pregnant woman from "old wives' tales"
C)To support and nurture the pregnant woman
D)To make sure the pregnant woman keeps prenatal appointments
Q2) During labor,a doula is expected to:
A)Help the woman do Lamaze breathing techniques and provide support to the woman and her partner
B)Check the fetal monitor tracing for effects of the labor process on the fetal heart rate
C)Take the place of the father as a coach and support provider
D)Administer pain medications as needed by the woman
Q3) The nurse should be aware that the "pinch" test is used to:
A)Check the sensitivity of the nipples
B)Determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted
C)Calculate the adipose buildup in the abdomen
D)See whether the fetus has become inactive
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Chapter 16: Labor and Birth Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors influence cervical dilation? Choose all that apply.
A)Strong uterine contractions
B)The force of the presenting fetal part against the cervix
C)The size of the female
D)The pressure applied by the amniotic sac
E)Scarring of the cervix
Q2) A pregnant woman is at 38 weeks of gestation.She wants to know if any signs indicate "labor is getting closer to starting." The nurse informs the woman that which of the following is a sign that labor may begin soon?
A)Weight gain of 1.5 to 2 kg (3 to 4 lb)
B)Increase in fundal height
C)Urinary retention
D)Surge of energy
Q3) To provide the necessary assessment of parent education,the nurse must know which bone is not a bone in the fetal skull?
A)Parietal
B)Temporal
C)Fontanel
D)Occipital
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The role of the nurse with regard to informed consent is to:
A)Inform the client about the procedure and have her sign the consent form
B)Act as a client advocate and help clarify the procedure and the options
C)Call the physician to see the client
D)Witness the signing of the consent form
Q2) If an opioid antagonist is administered to a laboring woman,she should be told:
A)Her pain will decrease
B)Her pain will return
C)She will feel less anxious
D)She will no longer feel the urge to push
Q3) A woman has requested an epidural for her pain.She is 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced.The baby is in a vertex position and is engaged.The nurse increases the woman's IV fluid for a preprocedural bolus.Prior to initiation of the epidural the woman should be informed regarding the disadvantages of an epidural block.They include all except:
A)Ability to move freely is limited
B)Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness
C)Gastric emptying is not delayed
D)Higher rate of fever
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an advantage of external electronic fetal monitoring?
A)The ultrasound transducer can accurately measure short-term variability and beat-to-beat changes in the fetal heart rate (FHR).
B)The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency,regularity,intensity,and approximate duration of uterine contractions (UCs).
C)The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity (UA)during the first stage of labor.
D)Once correctly applied by the nurse,the transducer need not be repositioned even when the woman changes positions.
Q2) Fetal tachycardia is most common during:
A)Maternal fever
B)Umbilical cord prolapse
C)Regional anesthesia
D)Magnesium sulfate administration
Q3) A therapy often used in labor to promote relaxation of the uterus is referred to as
Q4) External fetal monitoring cannot detect the ____________________ of uterine contractions.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ____________-degree perineal laceration continues through the anal sphincter muscle.
Q2) A nulliparous woman who has just begun the second stage of her labor most likely:
A)Experiences a strong urge to bear down
B)Shows perineal bulging
C)Feels tired yet relieved that the worst is over
D)Shows an increase in bright red bloody show
Q3) The nurse knows that the second stage of labor,the descent phase,has begun when:
A)The amniotic membranes rupture
B)The cervix cannot be felt during a vaginal examination
C)The woman experiences a strong urge to bear down
D)The presenting part is below the ischial spines
Q4) The Valsalva maneuver can be described as the process of making a forceful bearing-down attempt while holding one's breath with a closed glottis and tightening the abdominal muscles.During the second stage of labor,when the woman is ready to push,this is considered the optimal method to enhance movement of the fetus down the birth canal.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Postpartum Physiology
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21 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process in which the uterus returns to a nonpregnant state after birth is known as ____________________.
Q2) With regard to the postpartum changes and developments in a woman's cardiovascular system,nurses should be aware that:
A)Cardiac output,the pulse rate,and stroke volume all return to prepregnancy normal values within a few hours of childbirth
B)Respiratory function returns to nonpregnant levels by 6 to 8 weeks after birth
C)The lowered white blood cell count after pregnancy can lead to false-positive results on tests for infections
D)A hypercoagulable state protects the new mother from thromboembolism,especially after a cesarean birth
Q3) A nurse caring for a postpartum woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by:
A)Overproduction of colostrum
B)Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts and glands
C)Hyperplasia of mammary tissue
D)Congestion of veins and lymphatics
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Chapter 21: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recently delivered mother and her baby are at the clinic for a 6-week postpartum checkup.The nurse should be concerned that psychosocial outcomes are not being met if the woman:
A)Discusses her labor and birth experience excessively
B)Feels that her baby is more attractive and clever than any others
C)Has not given the baby a name
D)Has a partner or family members who react very positively about the baby
Q2) Many new mothers experience some type of nipple pain during the first weeks of initiating breastfeeding.Should this pain be severe or persistent,it may discourage or inhibit breastfeeding altogether.The nurse should be aware of a variety of factors that may contribute to nipple pain.These include:
A)Improper feeding position
B)Large-for-gestational age infant
C)Fair skin
D)Progesterone deficiency
E)Flat or retracted nipples
Q3) The _________________________ test is used to detect the amount of fetal blood in the maternal circulation.
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Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) After giving birth to a healthy infant boy,a primiparous woman,age 16,is admitted to the postpartum unit.An appropriate nursing diagnosis for her at this time is "Risk for Impaired Parenting" related to deficient knowledge of newborn care.In planning for the woman's discharge,what should the nurse should be certain to include in the plan of care?
A)Tell the woman how to feed and bathe her infant.
B)Give the woman written information on bathing her infant.
C)Advise the woman that all mothers instinctively know how to care for their infants.
D)Provide time for the woman to bathe her infant after she views an infant bath demonstration.
Q2) ____________________ is the process by which the parent and infant come to love and accept each other.
Q3) A nurse hears a primiparous woman talking to her son and telling him that his chin is just like his dad's.This woman's statement reflects:
A)Mutuality
B)Synchrony
C)Claiming
D)Reciprocity
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Chapter 23: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) A collection of blood between the skull bone and its periosteum is known as a cephalhematoma.In order to reassure the new parents whose infant develops such a soft bulge,it is important that the nurse is aware that this condition:
A)May occur with spontaneous vaginal birth
B)Only happens as the result of a forceps- or vacuum-assisted delivery
C)Is present immediately after birth
D)Will gradually absorb over the first few months of life
Q2) By knowing about variations in infants' blood counts,nurses can explain to their clients that:
A)A somewhat lower than expected red blood cell count could be the result of delay in clamping the umbilical cord
B)The early high white blood cell count (WBC)is normal at birth and should decrease rapidly
C)Platelet counts are higher than in adults for a few months
D)Even a modest vitamin K deficiency means a problem with the blood's ability to clot properly
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25
Chapter 24: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal term infant has little difficulty clearing its airway after birth.Most secretions are brought up to the oropharynx by the cough reflex.However,if the infant has excess secretions,the mouth and nasal passages can easily be cleared with a bulb syringe.When instructing parents on the correct use of this piece of equipment,it is important that the nurse teach them to:
A)Avoid suctioning the nares
B)Insert the compressed bulb into the center of the mouth
C)Suction the mouth first
D)Remove the bulb syringe from the crib when finished
Q2) As part of the infant discharge teaching,the nurse is reviewing the use of the infant car safety seat.The nurse is teaching that:
A)Infant carriers are fine until an infant car safety seat can be purchased
B)For traveling on airplanes,buses,and trains,infant carriers are satisfactory
C)Infant car safety seats are used for infants only from birth to 15 pounds
D)Infant car seats should be rear facing and placed in the back seat of the car
Q3) Sucking is an infant's chief pleasure.Sucking that is not satisfied by either breastfeeding or a bottle is referred to as ____________________ sucking.
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Chapter 25: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman wants to breastfeed her infant;however,her husband is not convinced that there are any scientific reasons to do so.The nurse can give the couple printed information comparing breastfeeding and bottle feeding.Which statement is true? Bottle feeding using commercially prepared infant formulas:
A)Increases the risk that the infant will develop allergies
B)Helps the infant sleep through the night
C)Ensures that the infant is getting iron in a form that is easily absorbed
D)Requires that multivitamin supplements be given to the infant
Q2) With regard to basic care of the breastfeeding mother,nurses should be able to advise her that she:
A)Will need an extra 1000 calories a day to maintain energy and produce milk
B)Can go back to prepregnancy consumption patterns of any drinks as long as she gets enough calcium
C)Should avoid trying to lose large amounts of weight
D)Must avoid exercising because it is too fatiguing
Q3) The size of the mother's breasts is an accurate indicator of their ability to produce milk.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Assessment for Risk Factors in Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assessment of risk to the mother and fetus should include environmental factors such as noxious chemicals and pollutants.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 30-year-old gravida 3,para 2-0-0-2 is at 18 weeks of gestation.What screening test should be suggested to her?
A)Biophysical profile
B)Chorionic villi sampling
C)Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)screening
D)Screening for diabetes mellitus
Q3) In comparison to contraction stress tests (CSTs),the nonstress test (NST)for antepartum fetal assessment:
A)Has no known contraindications
B)Has fewer false-positive results
C)Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise
D)Is slightly more expensive
Q4) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)levels are used as a screening tool for ______________________________ in pregnancy.
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Chapter 27: Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy
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Q1) What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
A)Risk for injury to mother and fetus related to central nervous system (CNS)irritability
B)Risk for eclampsia
C)Risk for deficient fluid volume related to increased sodium retention secondary to administration of magnesium sulfate
D)Risk for increased cardiac output related to the use of antihypertensive drugs
Q2) Your client is being induced because of her worsening preeclampsia.She is also receiving magnesium sulfate.It appears that her labor has not become active despite several hours of oxytocin administration.She asks the nurse,"Why is it taking so long?" The most appropriate response by the nurse is:
A)"The magnesium is relaxing your uterus and competing with the oxytocin.It may increase the duration of your labor."
B)"I don't know why it is taking so long."
C)"The length of labor varies for different women."
D)"Your baby is just being stubborn."
Q3) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is ______________________.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Antepartum Hemorrhagic Disorders
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Q1) A perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman,status post suction and curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole.The woman asks why she must take oral contraceptives for the next 12 months.The best response from the nurse is:
A)"If you get pregnant within 1 year,the chance of a successful pregnancy is very small.Therefore,if you desire a future pregnancy,it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of contraception available."
B)"The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during pregnancy.If you were to get pregnant,it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult."
C)"If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year,the chance of developing a second molar pregnancy is rare.Therefore,to improve your chance of a successful pregnancy,it is better not to get pregnant at this time."
D)"Oral contraceptives are the only form of birth control that will prevent a recurrence of a molar pregnancy."
Q2) The condition in which the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment near or over the internal cervical os is _________________________.
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Chapter 29: Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders in Pregnancy
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Q1) Metabolic changes throughout pregnancy that affect glucose and insulin in the mother and the fetus are complicated but important to understand.Nurses should know that:
A)Insulin crosses the placenta to the fetus only in the first trimester,after which the fetus secretes its own
B)Women with insulin-dependent diabetes are prone to hyperglycemia during the first trimester because they are consuming more sugar
C)During the second and third trimesters,pregnancy exerts a diabetogenic effect that ensures an abundant supply of glucose for the fetus
D)Maternal insulin requirements steadily decline during pregnancy
Q2) During a prenatal visit a nurse is explaining dietary management to a woman with pregestational diabetes.The nurse evaluates that teaching has been effective when the woman states:
A)"I will need to eat 600 more calories per day because I am pregnant."
B)"I can continue with the same diet as before pregnancy as long as it is well balanced."
C)"Diet and insulin needs change during pregnancy."
D)"I will plan my diet based on results of urine glucose testing."
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Medical-Surgical Problems in Pregnancy
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Q1) In caring for a pregnant woman with sickle cell anemia the nurse is aware that signs and symptoms of sickle cell crisis include:
A)Anemia
B)Endometritis
C)Fever and pain
D)Urinary tract infection
Q2) While providing care in an obstetric setting,the nurse should understand that postpartum care of the woman with cardiac disease:
A)Is the same as that for any pregnant woman
B)Includes rest,stool softeners,and monitoring of the effect of activity
C)Includes ambulating frequently,alternating with active range-of-motion exercises
D)Includes limiting visits with the infant to once per day
Q3) The most common neurologic disorder accompanying pregnancy is:
A)Eclampsia
B)Bell's palsy
C)Epilepsy
D)Multiple sclerosis
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Chapter 31: Obstetric Critical Care
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Q1) A pregnant woman at term is transported to the emergency department (ED)after a severe vehicular accident.The obstetric nurse responds and rushes to the ED with a fetal monitor.Cardiopulmonary arrest occurs as the obstetric nurse arrives.The first thing for the ED and obstetric team to do is to:
A)Obtain IV access and start aggressive fluid resuscitation
B)Quickly apply the fetal monitor to determine whether the fetus is alive
C)Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
D)Transfer the woman to the operating room for an emergency cesarean delivery in case the fetus is still alive
Q2) Conditions that classify the parturient as critically ill and indicate the need for a pulmonary catheter include:
A)Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B)Shock of undefined source
C)Severe preeclampsia
D)Sepsis
E)Massive blood loss
Q3) Pregnancy is a ______________________ state,as preparation is made for the blood loss that accompanies childbirth.
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Chapter 32: Mental Health Disorders and Substance Abuse in Pregnancy
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Q1) The standard of care for women who are dependent on heroin or other narcotics is ____________________ maintenance treatment (MMT).
Q2) Despite warnings,prenatal exposure to alcohol continues to far exceed exposure to illicit drugs.A diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)is made when there are visible markers in each of three categories.Which is not a recognized category for diagnosis of FAS?
A)Respiratory conditions
B)Impaired growth
C)Central nervous system (CNS)abnormality
D)Craniofacial dysmorphologies
Q3) Anxiety disorders are the most common mental disorders that affect women.While providing care to the maternity client,a nurse should be aware that one of these disorders is likely to be triggered by the process of labor and birth.This disorder is: A)Phobias
B)Panic disorder
C)Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D)Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Labor and Birth Complications
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Q1) A woman in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation receives two 12-mg doses of betamethasone intramuscularly.The purpose of this pharmacologic treatment is to:
A)Stimulate fetal surfactant production
B)Reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with ritodrine administration
C)Suppress uterine contractions
D)Maintain adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy
Q2) Complications and risks associated with cesarean births include (choose all that apply):
A)Pulmonary edema
B)Wound dehiscence
C)Hemorrhage
D)Urinary tract infections
E)Fetal injuries
Q3) Nurses should be aware that the induction of labor:
A)Can be achieved by external and internal version techniques
B)Is also known as a trial of labor (TOL)
C)Is almost always done for medical reasons
D)Is rated for viability by a Bishop score
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Postpartum Complications
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Q1) Lacerations of the cervix,vagina,or perineum are also causes of PPH.Factors that influence the causes and incidence of obstetric lacerations of the lower genital tract include all except:
A)Operative or precipitate birth
B)Adherent retained placenta
C)Abnormal presentation of the fetus
D)Congenital abnormalities of the maternal soft parts
Q2) A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postbirth period.Assessment reveals that the woman is experiencing profuse bleeding.The most likely etiology for the bleeding is:
A)Uterine atony
B)Uterine inversion
C)Vaginal hematoma
D)Vaginal laceration
Q3) ____________________ is the most common postpartum infection.
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Chapter 35: Acquired Problems of the Newborn
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Q1) ____________________,a synthetic opiate,has been the therapy of choice for heroin addiction.It crosses the placenta,leading to significant neonatal abstinence syndrome after birth.
Q2) In the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU)setting,artificial and long fingernails worn by nurses have been associated with serious neonatal infection and morbidity.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) A primigravida has just delivered a healthy infant girl.The nurse is about to administer erythromycin ointment in the infant's eyes when the mother asks,"What is that medicine for?" The nurse responds:
A)"It is an eye ointment to help your baby see you better."
B)"It is to protect your baby from contracting herpes from your vaginal tract."
C)"Erythromycin is given prophylactically to prevent a gonorrheal infection."
D)"This medicine will protect your baby's eyes from drying out over the next few days."
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Chapter 36: Hemolytic Disorders and Congenital Anomalies
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Q1) The most widespread use of postnatal testing for genetic disease is the routine screening of newborns for inborn errors of metabolism (IEM).Which condition is not an IEM?
A)Phenylketonuria (PKU)
B)Galactosemia
C)Hemoglobinopathy
D)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Q2) A major nursing intervention for an infant born with myelomeningocele is to:
A)Protect the sac from injury
B)Prepare the parents for the child's paralysis from the waist down
C)Prepare the parents for closure of the sac at around 2 years of age
D)Assess for cyanosis
Q3) Maternal obesity can increase the risk of congenital heart anomalies.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Nursing Care of the High Risk Newborn
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Q1) There are numerous signs and symptoms of neonatal infection.Interestingly,the most common is ________________,whereas ________________ is rare.
A)Hyperthermia,hypothermia
B)Hypotension,hypothermia
C)Hypothermia,hyperthermia
D)Hypotension,hyperthermia
Q2) In appraising the growth and development potential of a preterm infant,nurses should:
A)Tell parents their child won't catch up until about age 10 (girls)to 12 (boys)
B)Correct for milestones,such as motor competencies and vocalizations,until the child is approximately 2 years of age
C)Know that the greatest catch-up period is between 9 and 15 months postconceptual age
D)Know that the length and breadth of the trunk is the first part of the infant to experience catch-up growth
Q3) Calculate the corrected age of an infant who was born at 25 1/7 weeks and is preparing for discharge 124 days past delivery.
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Chapter 38: Perinatal Loss and Grief
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Q1) During the initial acute distress phase of grieving,parents still must make unexpected and unwanted decisions about funeral arrangements and even naming the baby.The nurse's role should be to:
A)Take over as much as possible to relieve the pressure
B)Encourage grandparents to take over
C)Make sure the parents themselves approve the final decisions
D)Leave them alone to work things out
Q2) In helping bereaved parents cope and move on,nurses should keep in mind that:
A)A perinatal or parental grief support group is more likely to be helpful if the needs of the parents are matched with the focus of the group
B)When pictures of the infant are taken for keepsakes,no close-ups should be taken of any congenital anomalies
C)No significant differences exist in grieving individuals from various cultures,ethnic groups,and religions
D)In emergency situations,nurses who are so disposed must resist the temptation to baptize the infant in the absence of a priest or minister
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