Reproductive Health Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to provide holistic care for individuals and families throughout the reproductive lifespan. The course covers essential topics such as sexual and reproductive health promotion, fertility, contraception, pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum care, as well as the management of reproductive system disorders. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based nursing interventions, culturally sensitive communication, and advocacy for reproductive rights. Students will also explore ethical and legal issues pertinent to reproductive health, the impact of sociocultural factors, and strategies for patient education and support. Through theoretical learning and clinical practice, learners will develop competence in assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating nursing care for diverse populations with reproductive health needs.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care in Canada 1st Edition by Shannon E. Perry
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55 Chapters
1438 Verified Questions
1438 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1703 Page 2
Chapter 1: Contemporary Perinatal Nursing in Canada
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct definition of the perinatal mortality rate?
A) Number of live births in one year per 1000 population
B) Number of deaths of infants under one year of age per 1000 live births
C) Number of deaths of infants under 28 days of age per 1000 live births
D) Number of stillbirths and neonatal deaths per 1000 live births
Answer: D
Q2) Which reflects a future goal for perinatal nursing?
A) Limiting multiprofessional teams
B) Maintaining existing power structures
C) Advocating for an increased number of Cesarean sections
D) Addressing health inequities by creating healthy public policies
Answer: D
Q3) When managing health care for pregnant women at a prenatal clinic,which barrier to access prenatal care is considered most significant?
A) Age
B) Minority status
C) Educational level
D) Geographic location
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Family and Culture
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a pictorial tool that can assist the nurse in assessing aspects of family life over generations?
A) Genogram
B) Family values construct
C) Ecomap
D) Human development wheel
Answer: A
Q2) Which term describes the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society?
A) Acculturation
B) Assimilation
C) Ethnocentrism
D) Cultural relativism
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Community Care
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21 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which health promotion activity is an example of the secondary level of prevention?
A) Approved infant car seats
B) Breast self-examination (BSE)
C) Immunizations
D) Support groups for parents of children with Down syndrome
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is one of the three broad areas that the community health assessment wheel focuses on?
A) Pollutants
B) Food supply
C) Health and disease status
D) Health care delivery system
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following generally rise with greater socioeconomic disadvantage?
A) Length of hospital stay
B) Intrauterine growth restriction
C) Prenatal clinic visits and screening tests
D) Weight gain in the mother in excess of the recommended gain for her stature
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement reflects one purpose of preconception care?
A) Ensure that pregnancy complications do not occur.
B) Identify women who should not become pregnant.
C) Encourage healthy lifestyles for families desiring pregnancy.
D) Ensure that women know about prenatal care.
Q2) Which opiate causes euphoria,relaxation,drowsiness,and detachment from reality and has possible effects on the pregnancy,including pre-eclampsia,intrauterine growth restriction,and premature rupture of membranes?
A) Heroin
B) Alcohol
C) PCP
D) Cocaine
Q3) The nurse who provides preconception care understands which of the following statements about preconception care?
A) It is designed for women who have never been pregnant.
B) It includes risk factor assessments for potential medical and psychological problems but does not consider socioeconomic status.
C) It avoids teaching about safe sex, as the woman is seeking pregnancy.
D) It could include interventions to reduce substance use and abuse.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon vaginal examination,the nurse sees a bulge from the anterior vaginal wall.What should the nurse suspect?
A) Rectocele
B) Cystocele
C) Uterine lesion
D) Scar tissue from previous episiotomy
Q2) Which of the following should the nurse do as part of his or her participation in the gynecological portion of the physical examination?
A) Take a firm approach that encourages the patient to facilitate the examination by following the physician's instructions exactly.
B) Explain the procedure as it unfolds and continue to question the patient to get information in a timely manner.
C) Take the opportunity to explain that the trendy vulvar self-examination is only for women at risk for cancer.
D) Help the woman relax through proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination.
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Chapter 6: Reproductive Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been prescribed adjuvant tamoxifen therapy.What common adverse effects might she experience?
A) Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding
B) Vomiting, weight loss, and hair loss
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Hot flashes, weight gain, and headaches
Q2) What does a woman most likely have when she experiences a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonpalpable,immobile,and nontender?
A) Fibroadenoma
B) Lipoma
C) Intraductal papilloma
D) Mammary duct ectasia
Q3) When evaluating a patient for sexually transmitted infections (STIs),the nurse should be aware that which one of the following STIs is on the rise in Canada?
A) Chancroid
B) Candidiasis
C) Chlamydia
D) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2
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Chapter 7: Infertility, contraception, and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about the term contraceptive failure rate?
A) It refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span.
B) It refers to the minimum level that must be achieved to receive a government license.
C) It increases over time as couples become more careless.
D) It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.
Q2) Which of the following contraceptive methods is least effective?
A) Standard days method
B) Periodic abstinence
C) Postovulation
D) Coitus interruptus
Q3) Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of induced abortions?
A) They are performed only for maternal health.
B) They can be achieved only through surgical procedures.
C) They are mostly performed in the second trimester.
D) They can be either medically or surgically induced.
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9
Chapter 8: Preconception, genetics, conception, and Fetal Development
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) At approximately how many weeks of gestation does lecithin form on the alveolar surfaces,the eyelids open,and the fetus measures approximately 27 cm crown to rump,and weighs approximately 1100 g?
A) 20 weeks
B) 24 weeks
C) 26 weeks
D) 28 weeks
Q2) At what age is the embryo or fetus less susceptible to teratogens?
A) 4 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 8 weeks
D) 10 weeks
Q3) A man's wife is pregnant for the third time.One child was born with cystic fibrosis and the other child is healthy.The man wonders what the chance is that this child will have cystic fibrosis.This type of testing is known as which of the following?
A) Occurrence risk
B) Recurrence risk
C) Predictive testing
D) Predisposition testing
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Chapter 9: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive,probable,and positive signs of pregnancy.The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is which of the following?
A) A positive pregnancy test
B) Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife
C) Braxton Hicks contractions
D) Quickening
Q2) To reassure and educate pregnant patients about changes in their cardiovascular system,the nurse should be aware of which of the following?
A) A pregnant woman experiencing disturbed cardiac rhythm, such as sinus arrhythmia, requires close medical and obstetric observation.
B) Changes in heart size and position and increases in blood volume create auditory changes from 20 weeks to term.
C) Palpitations are twice as likely to occur in twin gestations.
D) Blood pressure increases until about 24 to 32 weeks of gestation.
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Chapter 10: Nursing Care During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sign or symptom should the nurse teach the pregnant woman to report immediately to her health care provider?
A) Vaginal mucous discharge
B) Decreased libido
C) Urinary frequency
D) Heartburn accompanied by severe headache
Q2) Which behaviour indicates that a woman is "seeking safe passage" for herself and her infant?
A) She keeps all prenatal appointments.
B) She "eats for two."
C) She drives her car slowly.
D) She wears only low-heeled shoes.
Q3) A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is informed by the nurse that a danger sign of pregnancy could be which of the following?
A) Constipation
B) Alteration in the pattern of fetal movement
C) Heart palpitations
D) Edema in the ankles and feet at the end of the day
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Chapter 11: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse advise a pregnant woman who is experiencing nausea and vomiting?
A) Drink a glass of water with a fat-free carbohydrate before getting out of bed in the morning.
B) Eat small, frequent meals (every 2 to 3 hours).
C) Increase intake of high-fat foods to keep the stomach full and coated.
D) Limit fluid intake throughout the day.
Q2) What might a nurse suggest to help a woman reduce the severity of nausea caused by morning sickness?
A) Try a tart food or drink such as lemonade or salty foods such as potato chips.
B) Drink plenty of fluids early in the day.
C) Brush her teeth immediately after eating.
D) Never snack before bedtime.
Q3) Which culture has the possible dietary consideration of a lack of fresh fruits?
A) Chinese
B) Japanese
C) Greek
D) Vietnamese
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13
Chapter 12: Pregnancy Risk Factors and Assessment:
Maternal and Fetal
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant.Which diagnostic tool would be appropriate to suggest to her at this time?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Amniocentesis
C) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
D) Transvaginal ultrasound
Q2) A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labour and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero.Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus?
A) Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
B) Biophysical profile (BPP)
C) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening (MSAFP)
D) Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
Q3) Intrauterine growth restriction is associated with what pregnancy-related risk factors?
A) Excessive weight gain
B) Maternal collagen disease
C) Polyhydramnios
D) Premature rupture of membranes
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman arrives for evaluation of her symptoms,which include a missed period,adnexal fullness,tenderness,and dark red vaginal bleeding.On examination the nurse notices an ecchymotic blueness around the woman's umbilicus.How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding?
A) This is a normal integumentary change associated with pregnancy.
B) This is Turner's sign, associated with appendicitis.
C) This is Cullen's sign, associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
D) This is Chadwick's sign, associated with early pregnancy.
Q2) Which of the following is true in relation to HELLP syndrome?
A) It is a mild form of pre-eclampsia.
B) It can be diagnosed by a nurse alert to its symptoms.
C) It is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets.
D) It is associated with preterm labour but not perinatal mortality.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a bleeding disorder in late pregnancy?
A) Placenta previa
B) Abruptio placentae
C) Spontaneous abortion
D) Cord insertion
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15
Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Pre-Existing Conditions
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse must be alert for which signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation when caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems?
A) A regular heart rate and hypertension
B) An increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough
C) Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension
D) Shortness of breath; crackles; and an irregular, weak pulse
Q2) Since the gene for cystic fibrosis was identified in 1989,data can be collected for the purposes of genetic counselling for couples regarding carrier status.According to statistics,cystic fibrosis occurs once in how many White live births?
A) 100
B) 1200
C) 2500
D) 3300
Q3) What should nurses be aware of with regard to anemia?
A) It is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy.
B) It can trigger reflex brachycardia.
C) The most common form of anemia is caused by folate deficiency.
D) Thalassemia is a European version of sickle cell anemia.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Labour and Birth Processes
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which position would the nurse suggest for second-stage labour if the pelvic outlet needs to be increased?
A) Semirecumbent
B) Sitting
C) Squatting
D) Side-lying
Q2) What should the nurse be aware of with regard to fetal positioning during labour?
A) Position is a measure of the degree of descent of the presenting part of the fetus through the birth canal.
B) Birth is imminent when the presenting part is at +4 to +5 cm, below the spine.
C) The largest transverse diameter of the presenting part is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter.
D) Engagement is the term used to describe the beginning of labour.
Q3) Which of the following may be a sign that precedes labour?
A) Lightening
B) Exhaustion
C) Weight gain
D) Decreased fetal movement
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17
Chapter 16: Comfort Measures for Labour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses should be aware of which of the following differences that experience can make in relation to labour pain?
A) Sensory pain for nulliparous women often is greater than for multiparous women during early labour.
B) Affective pain for nulliparous women usually is less than that for multiparous women throughout the first stage of labour.
C) Women with a history of substance use experience more pain during labour.
D) Multiparous women have more fatigue from labour and thus experience more pain.
Q2) To help patients manage discomfort and pain during labour,nurses should be aware of which of the following?
A) The predominant pain of the first stage of labour is the visceral pain located in the lower portion of the abdomen.
B) Referred pain is the extreme discomfort between contractions.
C) The somatic pain of the second stage of labour is more generalized and related to fatigue.
D) Pain during the third stage is a somewhat milder version of the second stage.
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Chapter 17: Fetal Health Surveillance During Labour
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Sample Questions
Q1) While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labour whose labour is being induced,the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR)begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends.What should the nurse do?
A) Change the woman's position.
B) Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
C) Insert an internal monitor.
D) Document the finding in the patient's record.
Q2) What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the response that best indicates the priority of actions that should be taken.
A) Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination.
B) Reposition the mother, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask.
C) Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluid, and notify the care provider.
D) Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask.
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Chapter 18: Nursing Care During Labour and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning care for a labouring woman whose membranes have ruptured,the nurse recognizes that the woman's risk for which of the following has increased?
A) Intrauterine infection
B) Hemorrhage
C) Precipitous labour
D) Supine hypotension
Q2) A woman who is 39 weeks pregnant expresses fear about her impending labour and how she will manage.What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Don't worry about it. You'll do fine."
B) "It's normal to be anxious about labour. Let's discuss what makes you afraid."
C) "Labour is scary to think about, but the actual experience isn't that bad."
D) "You can have an epidural. That way, you won't feel anything."
Q3) What is an expected characteristic of amniotic fluid?
A) Deep yellow colour
B) Pale, straw colour with small white particles
C) Acidic result on a Nitrazine test
D) Absence of ferning
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Chapter 19: Labour and Birth at Risk
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions.What clinical cue would alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation?
A) Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency
B) Uterine contractions lasting >60 seconds and occurring >3 minutes in frequency
C) Uterine tone 15 mm Hg
D) Uterine tone 10 mm Hg
Q2) What finding should the nurse expect when evaluating the effectiveness of an oxytocin induction?
A) Contractions lasting 40 to 90 seconds, 2 to 3 minutes apart
B) The intensity of contractions being at least 110 to 130 mm Hg
C) Labour to progress at least 2 cm/hr dilation
D) At least 80 mU/min of oxytocin will be needed to achieve cervical dilation.
Q3) What assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation?
A) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
B) Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus
C) Preterm labour and birth
D) Postterm gestation
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21
Chapter 20: Maternal Physiological Changes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman gave birth to a 3100 g infant girl 1 hour ago.The birth was vaginal,and the estimated blood loss (EBL)was approximately 1500 mL.Which of the following would the nurse be concerned about?
A) Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120, respirations 20, blood pressure (BP) 90/50
B) Temperature 37.4°C, heart rate 88, respirations 36, BP 126/68
C) Temperature 38°C, heart rate 80, respirations 16, BP 110/80
D) Temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 60, respirations 18, BP 140/90
Q2) What is the term that refers to the self-destruction of excess hypertrophied tissue in the uterus?
A) Autolysis
B) Subinvolution
C) Afterpain
D) Diastasis
Q3) Which of the following is accurate with regard to afterbirth pains?
A) They are caused by mild, continuous contractions for the duration of the postpartum period.
B) They are more common in first-time mothers.
C) They are more noticeable in births in which the uterus was overdistended.
D) They are alleviated somewhat when the mother breastfeeds.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Nursing Care During the Fourth Trimester
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse knows that combined care is when the mother and infant share a room,and the mother shares the care of the infant with which of the following?
A) The father of the infant
B) Her mother (the infant's grandmother)
C) Her eldest daughter (the infant's sister)
D) The nurse
Q2) A primiparous woman is to be discharged from the hospital tomorrow with her infant girl.Which behaviour indicates a need for further intervention by the nurse before the woman can be discharged?
A) The woman leaves the infant on her bed while she takes a shower.
B) The woman continues to hold and cuddle her infant after she has fed her.
C) The woman reads a magazine while her infant sleeps.
D) The woman changes her infant's diaper and shows the nurse the contents of the diaper.
Q3) What would prevent early discharge of a postpartum woman?
A) Afterpains when breastfeeding
B) Birth at 38 weeks of gestation
C) Has voided 130 mL since delivery
D) Episiotomy that shows slight redness and edema, is dry and approximated
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse hears a primiparous woman talking to her son and telling him that his chin is just like his dad's chin.What does this woman's statement reflect?
A) Mutuality
B) Synchrony
C) Claiming
D) Reciprocity
Q2) Other early sensual contacts between infant and mother involve sound and smell.Nurses should be aware of which one of the following points?
A) High-pitched voices irritate newborns.
B) Infants can learn to distinguish their mother's voice from others soon after birth.
C) All babies in the hospital smell alike.
D) A mother's breast milk has no distinctive odour.
Q3) Which concern about parenthood is often expressed by visually impaired mothers?
A) Skepticism of nurse
B) Lack of direct eye contact
C) The ability to care for the infant
D) Inability to care for themselves postpartally
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Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true with regard to postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
A) PPH is easy to recognize early; after all, the woman is bleeding.
B) Traditionally, it takes more than 1000 mL of blood after vaginal birth and 2500 mL after Caesarean birth to define the condition as PPH.
C) If anything, nurses and doctors tend to overestimate the amount of blood loss.
D) Traditionally, PPH has been classified as early or late with respect to birth.
Q2) What medication should the nurse expect to see ordered first for the patient with von Willebrand disease who experiences a postpartum hemorrhage?
A) Cryoprecipitate
B) Factor VIII and vWf
C) Desmopressin
D) Hemabate
Q3) What infection is contracted mostly by first-time mothers who are breastfeeding?
A) Endometritis
B) Wound infections
C) Mastitis
D) Urinary tract infections
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Chapter 24: Physiological Adaptations of the Newborn
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Q1) A newborn is placed under a radiant heat warmer,and the nurse evaluates the infant's body temperature every hour.Maintaining the newborn's body temperature is important to prevent which of the following events from happening?
A) Respiratory depression
B) Cold stress
C) Tachycardia
D) Vasoconstriction
Q2) What infant response to cool environmental conditions is protective?
A) Dilation of peripheral blood vessels
B) Shivering
C) Decreased respiratory rates
D) Flexed position
Q3) What should the nurse be aware of with regard to the newborn's developing cardiovascular system?
A) The heart rate of a crying infant may rise to 120 beats/min.
B) Heart murmurs heard after the first few hours are cause for concern.
C) The point of maximal impulse (PMI) often is visible on the chest wall.
D) Persistent bradycardia may indicate respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
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Chapter 25: Nursing Care of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago and the nurse is assessing the Apgar score.When is the Apgar score performed?
A) It is performed only if the newborn is in obvious distress.
B) It is performed once by the obstetrician, just after the birth.
C) It is performed at least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
D) It is performed every 15 minutes during the newborn's first hour after birth.
Q2) A mother expresses fear about changing her infant's diaper after he is circumcised.What does the woman need to be taught,in order to take care of the infant when she gets home?
A) Cleanse the penis with prepackaged diaper wipes every 3 to 4 hours.
B) Apply constant, firm pressure by squeezing the penis with the fingers for at least 5 minutes if bleeding occurs.
C) Cleanse the penis gently with water and put petroleum jelly around the glans after each diaper change.
D) Wash off the yellow exudate that forms on the glans at least once every day to prevent infection.
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Chapter 26: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse providing couplet care should understand that nipple confusion results when which of the following occurs?
A) Breastfeeding babies receive supplementary bottle feedings.
B) The baby is weaned too abruptly.
C) Pacifiers are used before breastfeeding is established.
D) Twins are breastfed together.
Q2) Which statement is incorrect regarding the benefits to the mother associated with breastfeeding?
A) They have a decreased risk of breast cancer.
B) It is an effective method of birth control for the first year after birth.
C) It increases bone density.
D) It may enhance postpartum weight loss.
Q3) Which statement is true about bottle-feeding using commercially prepared infant formulas?
A) Using formula increases the risk that the infant will develop allergies.
B) Using formula helps the infant sleep through the night.
C) Using formula ensures that the infant is getting iron in a form that is easily absorbed.
D) Using formula requires that multivitamin supplements be given to the infant.
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Chapter 27: Infants With Gestational Age-Related Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse practising in the perinatal setting should promote kangaroo care,regardless of an infant's gestational age.What should the nurse know about this intervention?
A) It is adopted from classical British nursing traditions.
B) It helps infants with motor and central nervous system impairment.
C) It enhances their temperature regulation.
D) It gets infants ready for breastfeeding.
Q2) On day 3 of life,a newborn continues to require 100% oxygen by nasal cannula.The parents ask if they can hold their infant during his next gavage feeding.Given that this newborn is physiologically stable,what response would the nurse give?
A) "Parents are not allowed to hold infants who depend on oxygen."
B) "You may only hold your baby's hand during the feeding."
C) "Feedings cause more physiological stress, so the baby must be closely monitored. Therefore, I don't think you should hold the baby."
D) "You may hold your baby during the feeding."
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Chapter 28: The Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Problems
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33758
Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacterial infection is definitely decreasing because of effective drug treatment?
A) Escherichia coli infection
B) Tuberculosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Group B streptococcal infection
Q2) While completing a newborn assessment,the nurse should be aware that which one of the following is the most common birth injury?
A) Injury to the soft tissues
B) Caused by forceps gripping the head on delivery
C) Fracture of the humerus and femur
D) Fracture of the clavicle
Q3) Providing care for a neonate born to a mother who uses substances can present a challenge for the health care team.Nursing care for this infant requires a multisystem approach.What is the first step to take when providing care for this infant?
A) Pharmacological treatment
B) Reduction of environmental stimuli
C) Neonatal abstinence syndrome scoring
D) Adequate nutrition and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Contemporary Pediatric Nursing in Canada
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33759
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the leading cause of death from unintentional injury in children?
A) Poisoning
B) Drowning
C) Motor vehicle-related fatalities
D) Fire- and burn-related fatalities
Q2) Compared to other developed nations,which statement is true about infant mortality in Canada?
A) Canada has the highest rate of infant mortality compared to all other developed nations.
B) Canada's infant mortality rate lags behind those of 50 other developed nations.
C) Canada has the lowest infant death rate of all other developed nations.
D) Canada's infant mortality rate lags behind 185 other developed nations.
Q3) Which statement best describes family-centred care?
A) It reduces the effect of cultural diversity on the family.
B) It encourages family dependence on the health care system.
C) It recognizes that the family is a constant in the child's life.
D) It does not expect families to be part of the decision-making process.
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Chapter 30: Community-Based Nursing Care of the Child and Family
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is collecting subjective and objective information about a target population to diagnose problems based on community needs.Which step in the community nursing process is this?
A) Planning
B) Diagnosis
C) Assessment
D) Establishing objectives
Q2) A number of children in the same neighbourhood have developed illness related to lead paint exposure.Which of the three factors that form the epidemiological triangle is responsible?
A) Agent
B) Host factor
C) Environmental factor
D) Lifestyle factor
Q3) Which term best describes the identification of the distribution and causes of disease,injury,or illness?
A) Nursing process
B) Epidemiological process
C) Community-based statistics
D) Mortality and morbidity statistics
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Chapter 31: Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which theory explains how families react to stressful events and suggests factors that promote adaptation to these events?
A) Family systems theory
B) Developmental theory
C) Family stress theory
D) Family assessment
Q2) When assessing a family,the nurse determines that the parents exert little or no control over their children.What is this parenting style called?
A) Permissive
B) Dictatorial
C) Democratic
D) Authoritarian
Q3) Which outcome is most characteristic of the physical punishment of children,such as spanking?
A) The psychological impact is usually minimal.
B) Children rarely become accustomed to spanking.
C) The development of children's reasoning increases as a result of physical punishment.
D) Misbehaviour is likely to occur when parents are not present.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Social, cultural, and Religious Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maria is a Spanish-speaking 5-year-old girl who has started kindergarten in an English-speaking school.Crying most of the time,she appears helpless and unable to function in this new situation.What is the best explanation for her behaviour?
A) She lacks adequate culture for attending school.
B) She lacks the maturity needed to attend school.
C) She is experiencing culture shock.
D) She is experiencing minority group discrimination.
Q2) A nurse observes that the families who do not show up for scheduled clinic appointments are usually from minority cultural groups.The best explanation for this behaviour is that these families often differ from the dominant culture in which of the following ways?
A) Lack of education
B) Avoidance of health care
C) Forgetfulness
D) Perception of time
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Chapter 33: Developmental Influences on Child Health
Promotion
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which behaviour is most characteristic of the concrete operations stage in cognitive development?
A) Progression from reflex activity to imitative behaviour
B) Inability to put oneself in another's place
C) Increasingly logical and coherent thought processes
D) Ability to think in abstract terms and draw logical conclusions
Q2) What type of play involves children engaged in a similar or identical activity without organization,division of labour,or a mutual goal?
A) Solitary
B) Parallel
C) Associative
D) Cooperative
Q3) A mother reports that her 6-year-old child is highly active and irritable.She has irregular habits and adapts slowly to new routines,people,or situations.According to Chess and Thomas,which temperament category best describes this child?
A) Easy child
B) Difficult child
C) Slow-to-warm-up child
D) Fast-to-warm-up child
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Chapter 34: Communication, history, physical, and Developmental Assessment
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is having difficulty communicating with a hospitalized 6-year-old child.What technique is most helpful in improving communication?
A) Suggest that the child keep a diary.
B) Suggest that the parent read fairytales to the child.
C) Ask the parent if the child is always uncommunicative.
D) Ask the child to draw a picture.
Q2) Which parameter correlates best with measurements of the body's total protein stores?
A) Height
B) Weight
C) Skin-fold thickness
D) Upper arm circumference
Q3) The nurse is seeing an adolescent boy and his parents in the clinic for the first time.What should the nurse do first?
A) Introduce him- or herself.
B) Make the family comfortable.
C) Explain the purpose of the interview.
D) Give an assurance of privacy.
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Chapter 35: Pain Assessment and Management
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lumbar puncture is needed on a school-age child.Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to apply to provide analgesia during this procedure?
A) Tetracaine-adrenaline-cocaine ( TAC ) 15 minutes before procedure
B) Transdermal fentanyl ( Duragesic ) patch immediately before procedure
C) Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics ( EMLA ) 1 hour before procedure
D) EMLA 30 minutes before procedure
Q2) Which of the following statements represents accurate information about the physiological assessment of children's pain?
A) The best indicator of pain in children of all ages
B) Essential to determine whether a child is telling the truth about pain
C) Of most value is when children also report having pain
D) Of limited value as sole indicator of pain
Q3) Which statement is true about non-pharmacological strategies for pain management?
A) They may reduce pain perception.
B) They make pharmacological strategies unnecessary.
C) They usually take too long to implement.
D) They trick children into believing they do not have pain.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: The Infant and Family
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33766
Sample Questions
Q1) A mother tells the nurse that she doesn't want her infant immunized because of the discomfort associated with injections.What should the nurse explain to the mother in response to her statement?
A) This cannot be prevented.
B) Infants do not feel pain as adults do.
C) This is not a good reason for refusing immunizations.
D) A topical anaesthetic can be applied before injections are given.
Q2) Which behaviour indicates that an infant has developed object permanence?
A) Recognizes familiar face, such as mother
B) Recognizes familiar objects, such as a bottle
C) Actively searches for a hidden object
D) Secures objects by pulling on a string
Q3) At which age can most infants sit steadily unsupported?
A) 4 months
B) 6 months
C) 8 months
D) 10 months
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Chapter 37: The Toddler and Family
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33767
Sample Questions
Q1) Kimberly's parents have been using a rearward-facing convertible car seat since she was born.Most car seats can be safely switched to the forward-facing position when the child reaches which weight,in kilograms?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q2) What is a characteristic of physical development for a 30-month-old child?
A) Birth weight has doubled.
B) Primary dentition is complete.
C) Left- or right-handedness is established.
D) The anterior fontanel is open.
Q3) The parent of 16-month-old Chris asks,"What is the best way to keep Chris from getting into our medicines at home?" What should the nurse advise?
A) "All medicines should be locked securely away."
B) "The medicines should be placed in high cabinets."
C) "Chris just needs to be taught not to touch medicines."
D) "Medicines should not be kept in the homes of small children."
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Chapter 38: The Preschooler and Family
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is guiding parents in selecting a daycare facility for their child.When making the selection,which one of the following factors is it especially important to consider?
A) Structured learning environment
B) Socioeconomic status of children
C) Cultural similarities of children
D) Teachers knowledgeable about development
Q2) Which phrase is most descriptive of a preschooler's understanding of time?
A) A preschooler has no understanding of time.
B) A preschooler associates time with events.
C) A preschooler can tell time on a clock.
D) A preschooler uses terms like "yesterday" appropriately.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a hospitalized 4-year-old boy,Ryan.His parents tell the nurse that they will be back to visit at 6 p.m.When Ryan asks the nurse when his parents are coming,what is the nurse's best response?
A) "They will be here soon."
B) "They will come after dinner."
C) "Let me show you on the clock when 6 p.m. is."
D) "I will tell you every time I see you how much longer it will be."
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Page 40
Chapter 39: The School-Age Child and Family
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes moral development in older school-age children?
A) They are able to judge an act by the intentions that prompted it rather than just by the consequences.
B) Rules and judgements become more absolute and authoritarian.
C) They view rule violations in an isolated context.
D) They know the rules, but cannot understand the reasons behind them.
Q2) Which statement best describes fear in school-age children?
A) They are increasingly fearful for body safety.
B) Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family.
C) They should be encouraged to hide their fears to avoid ridicule from peers.
D) Those who have numerous fears need continuous protective behaviour from parents to eliminate them.
Q3) What should the nurse include in her lesson when teaching injury prevention to school-age children?
A) The need to fear strangers
B) The basic rules of water safety
C) To avoid cooking with microwave ovens
D) Caution against engaging in competitive sports
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Chapter 40: The Adolescent and Family
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33770
Sample Questions
Q1) Which sentence best describes anorexia nervosa?
A) It occurs most frequently in adolescent males.
B) It occurs most frequently in adolescents from lower socioeconomic groups.
C) It results from a posterior pituitary disorder.
D) It results in severe weight loss in the absence of obvious physical causes.
Q2) The school nurse tells adolescents in the clinic that confidentiality and privacy will be maintained unless a life-threatening situation arises.Which of the following statements is true regarding this practice?
A) It is not appropriate in a school setting.
B) It is never appropriate because adolescents are minors.
C) It is important in establishing trusting relationships.
D) It is suggestive that the nurse is meeting his or her own needs.
Q3) Which statement is true about smoking in adolescence?
A) Smoking is related to other high-risk behaviours.
B) Smoking is more common among athletes.
C) Smoking is less common when the adolescent's parent(s) smokes.
D) Smoking among adolescents is becoming more prevalent.
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42
Chapter 41: Chronic Illness, disability, and End-Of-Life Care
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33771
Sample Questions
Q1) A school-age child is diagnosed with a life-threatening illness.The parents want to protect their child from knowing the seriousness of the illness.What should the nurse explain to the parents?
A) This denial will help the child cope effectively.
B) This attitude is helpful to give parents time to cope.
C) Terminally ill children know when they are seriously ill.
D) Terminally ill children usually choose not to discuss the seriousness of their illness.
Q2) The parents of a child born with disabilities ask the nurse for advice about discipline.What information about discipline should the nurse's response be based upon?
A) It is essential for the child.
B) It is too difficult to implement with a special needs child.
C) It is not needed unless child becomes problematic.
D) It is best achieved with punishment for misbehaviour.
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Chapter 42: Cognitive and Sensory Impairment
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be included in the care of a child with Down syndrome?
A) Delay feeding solid foods until the tongue thrust has stopped.
B) Modify diet as necessary to minimize the diarrhea that often occurs.
C) Provide calories appropriate to the child's age.
D) Use a cool-mist vaporizer to keep mucous membranes moist.
Q2) Which one of the following is an implanted ear prosthesis for children with sensorineural hearing loss?
A) Hearing aid
B) Cochlear implant
C) Auditory implant
D) Amplification device
Q3) An adolescent gets hit in the eye during a fight.The school nurse,using a flashlight,notes the presence of a gross hyphema (hemorrhage into anterior chamber).What should the nurse do?
A) Apply a Fox shield.
B) Instruct the adolescent to apply ice for 24 hours.
C) Have the adolescent rest with eye closed and ice applied.
D) Notify the parents that the adolescent needs to see an ophthalmologist.
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44
Chapter 43: Family-Centred Home Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is likely to be the most effective option for case management?
A) One nursing case manager
B) The insurance company
C) A panel of experts
D) A multidisciplinary team
Q2) One of the supervisors for a home health agency asks the nurse to give the family a survey to evaluate the nurses and other service providers.The nurse should recognize this request as which one of the following?
A) Inappropriate, unless nurses are able to evaluate family
B) Appropriate to improve the quality of care
C) Inappropriate, unless nurses and other providers agree to participate
D) Inappropriate, because the family lacks the knowledge necessary to evaluate professionals
Q3) What is one important thing home care nurses should do when communicating with other professionals?
A) Ask others what they want to know.
B) Share everything known about the family.
C) Restrict communication to clinically relevant information.
D) Recognize that confidentiality is not possible.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Reaction to Illness and Hospitalization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old girl needs to have another intravenous (IV)line started.She keeps telling the nurse,"Wait a minute," and,"I'm not ready." What should the nurse recognize about this behaviour?
A) This is normal behaviour for a school-age child.
B) This behaviour is usually not seen past the preschool years.
C) The child thinks the nurse is punishing her.
D) The child has successfully manipulated the nurse in the past.
Q2) The nurse is caring for an adolescent who had an external fixator placed after suffering a fracture of the wrist during a bicycle accident.Which statement by the adolescent would be expected about separation anxiety?
A) "I wish my parents could spend the night with me while I am in the hospital."
B) "I think I would like my siblings to visit me, but not my friends."
C) "I hope my friends don't forget about visiting me."
D) "I will be embarrassed if my friends come to the hospital to visit."
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Chapter 45: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Katie,4 years old,is admitted to outpatient surgery for the removal of a cyst on her foot.Her mother puts the hospital gown on her,but Katie is crying because she wants to leave her underpants on.What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Allow Katie to wear her underpants.
B) Discuss with her mother why this is important to Katie.
C) Ask her mother to explain to her why she cannot wear them.
D) Explain in a kind, matter-of-fact manner that removing all clothing is hospital policy.
Q2) The nurse is planning how to prepare a 4-year-old child for some diagnostic procedures.Which guideline should be included to prepare this preschooler?
A) Plan for a short teaching session of about 30 minutes.
B) Tell the child that procedures are never a form of punishment.
C) Keep equipment out of the child's view.
D) Use correct scientific and medical terminology in explanations.
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Chapter 46: Respiratory Dysfunction
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a child with pneumonia?
A) Encourage rest.
B) Encourage the child to lie on the unaffected side.
C) Administer analgesics.
D) Place the child in the Trendelenburg position.
Q2) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is begun on a toddler.Which pulse is usually palpated because it is the most central and accessible?
A) Radial
B) Carotid
C) Femoral
D) Brachial
Q3) Which statement best describes acute otitis media (AOM)?
A) The etiology is unknown.
B) Permanent hearing loss often results.
C) It can be treated by intramuscular antibiotics.
D) It can be treated with antibiotics.
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Chapter 47: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33777
Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses must be alert for increased fluid requirements when a child has which one of the following?
A) Fever
B) Mechanical ventilation
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
Q2) An infant is brought to the emergency department with poor skin turgor,weight loss,lethargy,and tachycardia.What are these signs suggestive of?
A) Overhydration
B) Dehydration
C) Sodium excess
D) Potassium excess
Q3) What is the primary therapeutic management for most children with Hirschsprung's disease?
A) Daily enemas
B) Low-fibre diet
C) Permanent colostomy
D) Surgical removal of affected section of bowel
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Chapter 48: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33778
Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing a school-age child and the family for heart surgery,what should the nurse consider?
A) Don't show the child unfamiliar equipment.
B) Let the child hear the sounds of an electrocardiograph monitor.
C) Avoid mentioning postoperative discomfort and interventions.
D) Explain that an endotracheal tube will not be needed if the surgery goes well.
Q2) What is the most important thing for the nurse to know when caring for a child with Kawasaki disease?
A) The child's fever is usually responsive to antibiotics within 48 hours.
B) The principal area of involvement is the joints.
C) Aspirin is contraindicated.
D) Therapeutic management includes administration of gamma globulin and aspirin.
Q3) When discussing hyperlipidemia with a group of adolescents,the nurse should explain that high levels of what substance are thought to protect against cardiovascular disease?
A) Cholesterol
B) Triglycerides
C) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Hematological and Immunological Dysfunction
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33779
Sample Questions
Q1) What is one common clinical manifestation of Hodgkin's disease?
A) Petechiae
B) Bone and joint pain
C) Painful, enlarged lymph nodes
D) Enlarged, firm, non-tender lymph nodes
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the pathological changes of sickle cell anemia?
A) Sickle-shaped cells carry excess oxygen.
B) Sickle-shaped cells decrease blood viscosity.
C) Increased red blood cell destruction occurs.
D) Decreased red blood cell destruction occurs.
Q3) Which of the following sentences is a good explanation for teaching children about white blood cells?
A) They carry the oxygen you breathe from your lungs to parts of your body.
B) They help to keep germs from causing infections.
C) They are small parts of cells that make bleeding stop.
D) They are the liquid portion of your blood.
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Chapter 50: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are Wilms' tumours (nephroblastomas)located?
A) Bone
B) Brain
C) Kidney
D) Lymphatic system
Q2) What is a major complication in a child with chronic renal failure?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Water and sodium retention
D) Excessive excretion of blood urea nitrogen
Q3) Which statement describes renal transplantation in children?
A) It is an acceptable means of treatment after age 10 years.
B) It is the preferred means of renal replacement therapy in children.
C) Children can receive kidneys only from other children.
D) The decision for transplantation is difficult since a relatively normal lifestyle is not possible.
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Chapter 51: Cerebral Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is closely monitoring a child who is unconscious after a fall and notices that he suddenly has a fixed and dilated pupil.How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A) Eye trauma
B) Neurosurgical emergency
C) Severe brainstem damage
D) Indication of brain death
Q2) Which statement best describes a subdural hematoma?
A) Bleeding occurs between the dura and the skull.
B) Bleeding occurs between the dura and the cerebrum.
C) Bleeding is generally arterial, and brain compression occurs rapidly.
D) The hematoma commonly occurs in the parietotemporal region.
Q3) Which drug is used to treat a child who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP)resulting from cerebral edema?
A) Mannitol
B) Epinephrine hydrochloride
C) Atropine sulfate
D) Sodium bicarbonate
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Chapter 52: Endocrine Dysfunction
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33782
Sample Questions
Q1) A goiter is an enlargement,or hypertrophy,of which gland?
A) Thyroid gland
B) Adrenal gland
C) Anterior pituitary gland
D) Posterior pituitary gland
Q2) What is a common clinical manifestation of juvenile hypothyroidism?
A) Insomnia
B) Diarrhea
C) Dry skin
D) Accelerated growth
Q3) At what age is sexual development in boys and girls considered to be precocious?
A) Boys, 11 years; girls, 9 years
B) Boys, 12 years; girls, 10 years
C) Boys, 9 years; girls, 8 years
D) Boys, 10 years; girls, 9.5 years
Q4) Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of which of the following structures?
A) Anterior pituitary
B) Posterior pituitary
C) Adrenal cortex
D) Adrenal medulla
54
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Chapter 53: Integumentary Dysfunction
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is often a cause of cellulitis?
A) Herpes zoster
B) Candida albicans
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Streptococcus or Staphylococcus organisms
Q2) Which of the following is an effective strategy to reduce the stress of burn dressing procedures?
A) Give the child as many choices as possible.
B) Reassure the child that dressing changes are not painful.
C) Explain to the child why analgesics cannot be used.
D) Encourage the child to master stress with controlled passivity.
Q3) A toddler sustains a minor burn on the hand from hot coffee.What is the first action to take in treating this burn?
A) Apply ice to burned area.
B) Hold the burned area under cool running water.
C) Break any blisters with a sterile needle.
D) Clean the wound with soap and warm water.
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Chapter 54: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of traction uses skin traction on the lower leg and a padded sling under the knee?
A) Dunlop
B) Bryant
C) Russell
D) Buck extension
Q2) The nurse is teaching a family how to care for their infant in a Pavlik harness to treat developmental dysplasia of the hip.What should be included in this teaching?
A) Apply lotion or powder to minimize skin irritation.
B) Remove the harness several times a day to prevent contractures.
C) Return to the clinic every week for assessment.
D) Place a diaper over the harness, preferably using a superabsorbent disposable diaper that is relatively thin.
Q3) Osteosarcoma is the most common bone cancer in children.What is the most common primary tumour site?
A) Femur
B) Humerus
C) Pelvis
D) Tibia
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Chapter 55: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33785
Sample Questions
Q1) Which set of the following symptoms are characteristic of spastic cerebral palsy?
A) Hypertonicity and poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion
B) Athetosis and dystonic movements
C) Wide-based gait and poor performance of rapid, repetitive movements
D) Tremors and lack of active movement
Q2) The nurse is caring for a neonate born with a myelomeningocele.Surgery to repair the defect is scheduled for the next day.What is the most appropriate way to position and feed this neonate?
A) Left lateral and tube feed
B) Prone, turn head to side, and nipple feed
C) Supine in infant carrier and nipple feed
D) Supine, with defect supported with rolled blankets, and nipple feed
Q3) What clinical manifestation is suggestive of spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffmann disease)in an infant?
A) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
B) Hypertonicity
C) Lying in the frog position
D) Motor deficits on one side of body
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