Reproductive Biology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Reproductive Biology explores the fundamental principles and mechanisms underlying the reproduction of living organisms, with a primary focus on human and animal systems. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of the male and female reproductive systems, gametogenesis, hormonal regulation, fertilization, pregnancy, and parturition. It examines genetic, environmental, and technological factors affecting reproduction, including contraception, infertility treatments, and reproductive technologies such as in vitro fertilization. Students also discuss reproductive health issues, ethical considerations, and recent advances in reproductive science. This course provides a comprehensive understanding essential for careers in biological sciences, medicine, and allied health fields.
Recommended Textbook
Larsens Human Embryology 5th Edition by Gary C. Schoenwolf
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Q1) Which phase of embryogenesis is characterized by extensive cell rearrangements that result in formation of a multilayered embryo?
A) Organogenesis
B) Cleavage
C) Oogenesis.
D) Spermatogenesis,
E) Fertilization
F) Gastrulation
Answer: F
Q2) A child exhibiting early symptoms of progeria undergoes genetic testing.A gene coding for which protein is likely to be mutated?
A) Laminin
B) Fibronectin
C) Collagen
D) Lamin-A
E) Insulin
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Gametogenesis, Fertilization, and First Week
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Q1) The birth control pill acts by blocking which process?
A) Fertilization
B) Ovulation
C) Cleavage
D) Capacitation
E) Implantation
Answer: B
Q2) Increase in the levels of which hormone prevents menstruation during a cycle in which fertilization occurs?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) GnRH
D) hCG
E) Estrogen
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Second Week: Becoming Bilaminar and Fully Implanting
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Q1) A young child is diagnosed with Angelman syndrome,a syndrome in which a deletion occurs in a portion of the long arm of chromosome 15.Both Angelman syndrome and another syndrome involve the same deletion,but the two syndromes differ depending on whether the defect was inherited from the mother or father.What is the related syndrome?
A) Prader-Willi syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Treacher Collins syndrome
D) Branchio-oto-renal syndrome
E) CHARGE syndrome
Answer: A
Q2) A researcher inactivates the Sox17 gene in an animal model.As a result of this,one of the primary germ layers fails to form.What germ layer is most likely to be affected?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Extraembryonic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Third Week: Becoming Trilaminar and Establishing Body Axes
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Q1) A researcher knocks out the Tbx6 gene in a mouse.Which tissue will not form in the early embryo?
A) Neural plate
B) Notochord
C) Lateral plate mesoderm
D) Endoderm
E) Somites
Q2) Patterning of the mesoderm involves so-called dorsalizing and ventralizing factors.Inactivation of which protein(s)in the early embryo would be expected to result in dorsalized mesoderm?
A) Chordin
B) Noggin
C) Follistatin
D) Fgfs
E) Wnts
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Chapter 5: Fourth Week: Forming the Embryo
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Q1) Omphalocele and gastroschisis are examples of which type of birth defect?
A) Anterior body wall defect
B) Neural tube defect
C) Urorectal septum defect
D) Buccopharyngeal membrane defect
E) Cloacal membrane defect
Q2) A researcher ablates (removes)the neural folds of an animal embryo prior to formation of neural crest cells.What structure might not develop depending on the exact level removed?
A) Notochord
B) Somite
C) Body wall
D) Parasympathetic ganglia
E) Primitive streak
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Chapter 6: Principles and Mechanisms of Morphogenesis and Dysmorphogenesis
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Q1) A baby is born with both eye and bone defects.Genetic evaluation identified a mutation in LRP5.Which developmental signaling pathway is involved?
A) SHH
B) FGF
C) WNT
D) TGFBETA
E) NOTCH-DELTA
Q2) Mutations in which gene or its regulatory region when mutated in human embryos can cause either holoprosencephaly and preaxial polydactyly?
A) FGF10
B) HOXD13
C) WNT11
D) INTEGRINBETA4
E) SHH
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Chapter 7: Fetal Development and the Fetus As a Patient
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Q1) A woman in the third trimester of pregnancy is sent for an ultrasound because her uterus is abnormally large.A diagnosis of polyhydramnios is made.What could be the cause of this condition?
A) Fetal spina bifida
B) Fetal cleft palate
C) Fetal anencephaly
D) Posterior urethral valves
E) Renal agenesis
Q2) A baby is born to an HIV-positive mother.What statement regarding treatment options is true?
A) HIV is spread only by sexual contact, so no treatment is required.
B) HIV does not cross the placenta either before or during parturition, so no treatment is required.
C) Treatment with antiretrovirus drugs should begin immediately and continue postnatally.
D) HIV cannot be transmitted in breast milk, so no treatment is required with breastfeeding.
E) The baby should receive a blood transfusion with non-HIV-positive blood.
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Chapter 8: Development of the Skin and Its Derivatives
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Q1) Shh signaling is important for the development of the skin and many of its appendages.What is the main cellular mechanism by which Shh controls development of the ectodermal appendages?
A) Cell survival
B) Cell proliferation
C) Cell adhesion
Q2) Sweat glands use which mechanism of secretion?
A) Apocrine
B) Eccrine
C) Holocrine
Q3) Postnatally,hair is continually lost and replaced.In which region of the hair are the progenitors of the new hair cells located?
A) Inner root sheath
B) Bulge
C) Outer root sheath
D) Hair matrix
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Chapter 9: Development of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) The skeletal structures of the face develop from which tissue?
A) Neural crest cells
B) Mesoderm
C) Neuroepithelium
D) Endoderm
Q2) The vertebrae are patterned by the Hox complex of transcription factors,which are expressed in nested domains along the cranial-caudal axis.How would gain of Hox function be expected to affect the developing vertebrae?
A) Cranialize them.
B) Caudalize them.
Q3) A child is diagnosed with mutations in the gene encoding the growth factor
GDF5.Which region of the body would show developmental abnormalities?
A) Cranial vault
B) Vertebrae
C) Ribs
D) Limbs
E) Face
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Chapter 10: Development of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with cerebellar heterotopia.What developmental process likely went awry,accounting for heterotopia?
A) Cell proliferation
B) Cell death
C) Axonal pathfinding
D) Cell migration
E) Cell differentiation
Q2) A 3-year-old boy with spina bifida develops hydrocephalus.What is the likely cause of this?
A) Blockage of the subarachnoid space
B) Enlargement of the choroid plexus
C) Constriction of the foramen magnum
D) Blockage of the median or lateral apertures
E) Degeneration of the choroid plexus
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Chapter 11: Development of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) A researcher labels the second epibranchial placodes.Cells of what structure(s)will be labeled later in development?
A) Olfactory nerve
B) Vestibulocochlear nerve
C) Superior ganglion
D) Petrosal ganglion
E) Enteric ganglia
Q2) Neurogenesis in the PNS involves both positive and negative regulators.Which signaling pathway plays an essential role as a negative regulator of neurogenesis?
A) Tyrosine kinase
B) Tgfbeta
C) Integrin
D) Ephrin-Eph
E) Notch-Delta
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Chapter 12: Development of the Respiratory System and Body Cavities
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Q1) A medical student is confused when learning that the muscle of the diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerves,based on the level of origin of these nerves from the CNS.What is the explanation of how this innervation occurs during embryogenesis?
A) The phrenic nerves arise in the cervical region in association with the septum transversum and cervical myotomes, and as the myotomes migrate more caudally, they carry their innervation with them.
B) The muscle of the diaphragm arise late in development and cannot grow back to the thoracic spinal cord because the spinal nerves have already formed at this level, so they grow more cranially to the cervical region.
C) The thoracic nerves initially supplying the diaphragm die during development and are replaced by new nerves that grow from the cervical region.
D) The muscle of the diaphragm arises from the thoracic myotomes but secretes a chemoattractant that specifically attracts cervical spinal nerves.
E) The muscle of the diaphragm arises from the thoracic myotomes but secretes a chemorepellent that specifically repels thoracic spinal nerves.
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Chapter 13: Development of the Heart
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Q1) A 46-year-old female exhibits signs of congestive heart failure.After an ultrasound and MRI were performed,right ventricular hypertrophy was observed.The only other accompanying defect was an atrial septal defect in the upper portion of the interatrial wall.What might be an etiology mechanism leading to the formation of this defect?
A) Neural crest cell migration into the heart was perturbed.
B) There was an incursion of the spina vestibuli into the interatrial wall.
C) Ostium primum was not closed by the atrioventricular septum.
D) Atrioventricular cushion tissue did not form.
E) Ostium secundum was abnormally large.
Q2) A researcher places a slice of the developing heart tube into culture.In a series of experiments,different areas are labeled to tract cells.Which cells when labeled will be shown to be the primary progenitors for cushion cells within the atrioventricular septum?
A) Neural crest cells
B) Cells of the proepicardial organ
C) Myocardial cells
D) Endocardial cells
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Chapter 14: Development of the Vasculature
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Q1) In the gross anatomy lab,you find that your cadaver has an extremely large left internal thoracic artery and large intercostal arteries as well.What possible congenital anomaly might you find in this cadaver that could explain this?
A) Presence of a double aortic arch
B) Abnormal origin of the subclavian artery
C) Presence of a postductal coarctation of the aorta
D) Presence of a preductal coarctation of the aorta
E) Interrupted aortic arch
Q2) What is the source of the cells that colonize the liver and engender the liver with the capacity to make myeloid and lymphoid progenitors?
A) Extraembryonic yolk sac mesoderm
B) Intraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm
C) Cells associated with the dorsal aorta in the aortic, gonad, and mesonephros region
D) Endoderm of the thymic primordia
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Chapter 15: Development of the Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) Based on animal studies,neural crest cells forming the parasympathetic ganglia of the descending colon,sigmoid colon,and rectum originate from which levels of the axis?
A) Only somite 1-7 axial levels
B) The adrenal gland axial levels
C) Only the sacral axial levels
D) Both vagal and sacral levels
Q2) Endodermal contact with the notochord during early GI development is essential for the development of what organ?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Anorectal sphincter
D) Gallbladder
Q3) Which of these organs remains retroperitoneal throughout its development?
A) Transverse colon
B) Pancreas
C) Kidney
D) Stomach
E) Sigmoid colon
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Chapter 16: Development of the Urinary System
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Q1) The collecting tubules of the definitive kidney are derived from what tissue (cells)?
A) Metanephric blastema
B) Ureteric buds
C) Uriniferous tubules
D) Renal corpuscles
Q2) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for glomerulopathy associated with Denys-Drash syndrome?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q3) Which developing kidney system ultimately becomes the definite kidney in humans?
A) Pronephric kidney
B) Mesonephric kidney
C) Metanephric kidney
D) Nephrogenic kidney
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Chapter 17: Development of the Reproductive System
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Q1) What gene is thought to be a direct downstream target of SRY expression?
A) SOX9
B) WF1
C) AMH
D) DESERT HEDGEHOG
E) WNT4
Q2) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for persistent müllerian syndrome?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q3) What effect would a loss of Shh expression within the urethral plate have on genital development?
A) Development of enlarged genital tubercle
B) Hypospadia
C) An increase in Hoxa13 and Hoxd3 expression in the genital tubercle
D) An increase in Fgf8 expression in the urethral plate
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Chapter 18: Development of the Pharyngeal Apparatus and Face
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Q1) Which of the craniosynostosis syndromes is unusual in that it is X-linked,with females,but not males,being symptomatic?
A) Apert's syndrome
B) Pfeiffer syndrome
C) Craniofrontonasal dysplasia
D) Muenke syndrome
E) Saethre-Chotzen syndrome
Q2) At birth what is the approximate ratio of the facial skeleton to the cranial vault?
A) 1:3
B) 1:5
C) 1:7
D) 2:1
E) 2:3
Q3) The stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by which nerve?
A) Trigeminal
B) Vagus
C) Facial
D) Glossopharyngeal
E) Oculomotor
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Chapter 19: Development of the Ears
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Q1) Development of the sensory regions of the inner ear involves the formation of hair cells and supporting cells by the process of lateral inhibition controlled by Notch signaling.How would overexpression of the transcription factors Hes1 and 5,which are modulated by Notch signaling,be expected to affect the number of hair cells or supporting cells?
A) The overall number of supporting cells would increase.
B) The overall number of supporting cells would decrease.
C) The overall number of hair cells would increase.
D) The overall number of hair cells would decrease.
E) No change would occur in the number of hair cells or supporting cells.
Q2) Which muscle(s)are associated with the ear ossicles?
A) Tensor tympani and stapedius
B) Stylopharyngeus
C) Stylohyoid
D) Lateral pterygoid
Q3) The cristae detect which modality?
A) Sound vibrations
B) Gravity
C) Linear acceleration
D) Angular acceleration
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Chapter 20: Development of the Eyes
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Q1) Goldenhar syndrome is characterized by a spectrum of defects.What eye abnormality is the cardinal finding of this syndrome?
A) Epicanthal folds
B) Cryptophthalmos
C) Epibulbar dermoids
D) Distichiasis
E) Ocular telangiectasia
Q2) Mutations in the gene encoding the FOXC2 transcription factor would be expected to cause which anomaly?
A) Epicanthal folds
B) Cryptophthalmos
C) Epibulbar dermoids
D) Distichiasis
E) Ocular telangiectasia
Q3) Which is the most frequent genetic syndrome that affects the retina?
A) Osteoporosis-pseudoglioma syndrome
B) Leber congenital amaurosis syndrome
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Familial exudative vitreoretinopathy
E) Norrie disease
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Chapter 21: Development of the Limbs
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Q1) When Lmx1b is genetically inactivated in mice,how do the LMCl and LMCm motor neurons migrate?
A) All into the ventral mesenchyme
B) Randomly throughout the limb bud
C) All into the dorsal mesenchyme
Q2) Which gene is mutated in hand-foot-genital syndrome?
A) HOXA11
B) HOXA13
C) HOXD13
D) TBX3
E) TBX5
Q3) The term arachnodactyly specifically refers to which defect?
A) Absence of the entire limb
B) Absence of part of the stylopod
C) Presence of extra digits
D) Fusion of digits
E) Absence of one or more digits
F) Elongation of the digits
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