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This course provides an in-depth introduction to relational database systems, focusing on the fundamental principles, architecture, and practical applications. Topics include data modeling with the Entity-Relationship (ER) model, relational algebra and calculus, SQL query language, database design and normalization, indexing, transaction management, and database security. Students will gain hands-on experience designing, creating, and manipulating relational databases, as well as understanding concurrency, recovery, and performance optimization. By the end of the course, students will be equipped with the essential skills to develop and maintain efficient, reliable, and secure database systems in real-world environments.
Recommended Textbook Database Systems Design Implementation and Management 13th Edition by Carlos Coronel
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Q1) One advantage of a database system over previous data management approaches is that the database system is considerably less complex.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) _____ relates to the activities that make the database execute transactions more efficiently in terms of storage and access speed.
A) Performance tuning
B) Database design
C) Query access
D) Database management
Answer: A
Q3) A(n) _____ is a spur-of-the-moment question.
Answer: ad hoc query
Q4) _____ exists when different and conflicting versions of the same data appear in different places.
Answer: Data inconsistency
Q5) _____ is the result of processing raw data to reveal its meaning.
Answer: Information
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Q1) _____ is a language based on OO concepts that describes a set of diagrams and symbols used to graphically model a system.
Answer: UML (Unified Modeling Language)
Unified Modeling Language (UML)
Unified Modeling Language
UML
Q2) Each column in a relation represents a(n) _____.
Answer: attribute
Q3) The relational data model was developed in the _____.
A) 1960s
B) 1970s
C) 1980s
D) 1990s
Answer: B
Q4) A(n) _____ is anything about which data are to be collected and stored.
A) attribute
B) entity
C) relationship
D) constraint
Answer: B

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Q1) When two or more tables share the same number of columns, and when their corresponding columns share the same or compatible domains, they are said to be
A) intersect-compatible
B) union-compatible
C) difference-compatible
D) select-compatible
Answer: B
Q2) The row's range of permissible values is known as its domain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Relational algebra defines the theoretical way of manipulating table contents using relational operators.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Proper data _____ design requires carefully defined and controlled data redundancies to function properly.
Answer: warehousing

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Q1) In a 1:M relationship, to avoid the possibility of referential integrity errors, the data of the "1" side must be loaded first.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Knowing the minimum and maximum number of _____ occurrences is very helpful at the application software level.
A) object
B) attribute
C) data
D) entity
Q3) Participation is _____ if one entity occurrence does not require a corresponding entity occurrence in a particular relationship.
Q4) The conceptual model can handle _____ relationships and multivalued attributes.
A) 1:1
B) M:N
C) 1:M
D) 1:N
Q5) The Crow's Foot notation depicts the strong relationship with a(n) _____ line between the entities.
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Q1) A partial completeness constraint is represented by _____.
A) a dotted line
B) two dashed lines
C) a single horizontal line under a circle
D) a double horizontal line over a circle
Q2) Composite keys are useful as identifiers of weak entities, where the weak entity has a strong _____ relationship with the parent entity.
Q3) The _____ is the result of adding more semantic constructs to the original entity relationship (ER) model.
Q4) While using a surrogate key, one must ensure that the candidate key of the entity in question performs properly through the use of the "_____" and "not null" constraints.
Q5) The "_____" characteristic of a primary key states that the selected primary key must not be composed of any attribute(s) that might be considered a violation.
A) unique values
B) nonintelligent
C) preferably single-attribute
D) security-compliant
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Q1) An ERD is created through a(n) _____ process.
Q2) A table is in 4NF if it is in 3NF, and _____.
A) all attributes must be dependent on the primary key and must be dependent on each other
B) all attributes are unrelated
C) it has no multivalued dependencies
D) no column contains the same values
Q3) When designing a new database structure based on the business requirements of the end users, the database designer will construct a data model using a technique such as _____.
Q4) Normalization works through a series of stages called normal forms. For most purposes in business database design, _____ stages are as high as you need to go in the normalization process.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Q5) What steps are involved in the conversion to third normal form?
Q6) What characteristics do tables that conform to the concept of well-informed relations have?
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Q1) The conditional LIKE must be used in conjunction with wildcard characters.
A)True
B)False
Q2) SQL is considered difficult to learn; its command set has a vocabulary of more than 300 words.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) _____ is an alternate name given to a column or table in any SQL statement.
A) alias
B) data type
C) stored function
D) trigger
Q4) A(n) _____ join returns not only the rows matching the join condition (that is, rows with matching values in the common columns) but also the rows with unmatched values.
A) outer
B) inner
C) equi-
D) cross
Q5) The syntax of theEXCEPT statement in Oracle is _____.
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Q1) SQL requires the use of the _____ command to enter data into a table.
A) INSERT
B) SELECT
C) COMMIT
D) NOT NULL
Q2) The Oracle equivalent to an MS Access AutoNumber is a(n) _____.
A) auto-number
B) sequence
C) TO_NUMBER function
D) trigger
Q3) MySQL allows multiple triggering conditions per trigger.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To remedy the lack of procedural functionality in SQL, and to provide some standardization within the many vendor offerings, the SQL-99 standard defined the use of persistent stored modules.
A)True
B)False
Q5) To delete an index, one must use the _____ command.
Q6) _____ words are words used by SQL to perform specific functions.
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Q1) List and briefly describe the three types of system maintenance activities.
Q2) In a(n) _____, only the objects that have been updated or modified since the last full backup are backed up.
A) transaction log backup
B) conservative backup
C) differential backup
D) adaptive backup
Q3) The database contents are loaded during the _____ phase of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC).
A) analysis
B) detailed systems design
C) implementation
D) maintenance
Q4) _____ are usually provided by the database management system (DBMS) to check for access violations.
Q5) The _____ stage uses data modeling to create an abstract database structure that represents real-world objects in the most realistic way possible.
Q6) The term _____ describes the strength of the relationships found among a module's entities.
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Q1) An optimistic approach is based on the assumption that the majority of the database operations do not conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transaction is a _____ unit of work that must be either entirely completed or aborted.
A) time
B) practical
C) logical
D) physical
Q3) In a page-level lock, the DBMS will lock an entire diskpage.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does a shared/exclusive lock schema increase the lock manager's overhead?
Q5) Although the DBMS is designed to recover a database to a previous consistent state when an interruption prevents the completion of a required set of transactions, the transactions themselves are defined by the end user or programmer and must be _____ correct.
Q7) What is transaction isolation and why it is important? Page 12
Q6) What are the three basic techniques to control deadlocks?
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Q1) The _____ process analyzes SQL queries and finds the most efficient way to access data.
A) optimizer
B) scheduler
C) listener
D) user
Q2) When setting optimizer hints, _____ instructs the optimizer to minimize the overall execution time, that is, to minimize the time it takes to return the total number of rows in the query result set. This hint is generally used for batch mode processes.
A) ALL_ROWS
B) FIRST_ROWS
C) INDEX(P_QOH_NDX)
D) OPTIMIZATION_ROWS
Q3) Maximizing disk contention is one of the general recommendations for the physical storage of databases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) _____ is good for simple and fast lookup operations based on equality conditions.
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Q1) The database description, known as the distributed _____ schema, is the common database schema used by local transaction processors (TPs) to translate user requests into subqueries that will be processed by different data processors (DPs).
Q2) Explain the difference between homogeneous and heterogeneous distributed database management systems (DDBMS).
Q3) In a basic distributed processing environment, the distributed processing system shares the database chores among three sites connected through a(n) _____.
Q4) A user-friendly _____ is one advantage of a distributed database management system (DDBMS) .
Q5) A _____ lets a single SQL statement access the data that are to be processed by a single remote database processor.
A) remote request
B) remote transaction
C) distributed request
D) distributed transaction
Q6) The distributed database system must be _____ of the computer system hardware.
Q7) A transaction processor is also known as the _____ processor.
Q8) Explain the three types of operations defined by the DO-UNDO-REDO protocol.
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Q1) Data warehouse data are organized and summarized by table, such as CUSTOMER and ADDRESS.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In star schema representation, a fact table is related to each dimension table in a _____ relationship.
A) many-to-one (M:1)
B) many-to-many (M:M)
C) one-to many (1:M)
D) one-to-one (1:1)
Q3) Decision support datais a snapshot of the operational data at a given point in time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bill Inmon and Chuck Kelley created a set of 12 rules to define a(n) _____.
A) data warehouse
B) multidimensional cube
C) OLAP tool
D) star schema
Q5) ______ is a method or process of government.
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Q1) ______ is a tool for converting data back and forth between a relational database and the HDFS.
A) Flume
B) Pig
C) Sqoop
D) Impala
Q2) The analysis of data to produce actionable results is feedback loop processing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ______databases simply store data with no attempt to understand the contents of the value component or its meaning.
Q4) ______ refers to traditional, relational database technologies that use column-centric, not row-centric storage.
Q5) When using MapReduce,best practices suggest that the number of mappers on a given node should be ______.
A) 50 or less
B) over 100 but less than 300
C) 100 or less
D) at least 300
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Q1) An application programming interface (API) uses script files that perform specific functions based on the client's parameters that are passed to the web server.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When an end user uses a web browser to dynamically query a database, the client browser actually requests a web page from the web server.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The effects of bad database design, implementation, and management are magnified in an environment in which the number of transactions is less than one hundred.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The benefits of the web as a data access platform arise from its cross-platform functionality and the simplicity of its interface.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ webpages are at the heart of current generation websites.
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Q1) The DSO's activities are often classified as _____ management, which includes all DBA activities designed to ensure data availability following a physical calamity or a database integrity failure.
Q2) "A password must have a minimum of five characters" is an example of a _____.
A) policy
B) rule
C) procedure
D) standard
Q3) An enterprise database can be defined as the company's data representation that provides support for all present and expected future operations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the context of Oracle Enterprise Manager, a(n) _____ is a named collection of database access privileges that authorize a user to connect to the database and use its system resources.
Q5) Explain user requirements gathering as part of the DBA's end-user support services.
Q6) A(n) _____ physically stores the database's data.
Q7) Describe the DBA's managerial role.
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