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Relational Communication explores the processes by which individuals initiate, develop, maintain, and sometimes dissolve interpersonal relationships across various contexts. The course examines the verbal and nonverbal behaviors that influence relational dynamics, including topics such as self-disclosure, conflict resolution, power, intimacy, and communication competence. Students will analyze how culture, technology, and individual differences impact relational communication and will learn strategies to foster healthy, effective interpersonal connections in both personal and professional life.
Recommended Textbook
The Basics of Communication A Relational Perspective 2nd Edition by Steve W. Duck
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567 Verified Questions
567 Flashcards
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the perspective of 'communication as action' is limited in its usefulness. Answer: The perspective of 'communication as action' implies that communication has taken place whenever there has been an attempt to send a message. However, this perspective does not take into account whether or not the message has been successfully received or understood.
Q2) The perspective of 'communication as transaction' is preferred by your text's authors because:
A) It accounts for the correct timing of a message
B) It accounts for the exchange of information between two or more individuals
C) It accounts for the creation of new meanings through communication
D) It accounts for the intention to send a message
Answer: C
Q3) Symbols are arbitrary, made-up conventions for representing something, so their meanings are culturally determined or socially constructed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) We often define concepts by negation, or by explaining what something is not.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The element of purpose in Burke's pentad refers to:
A) Why the act happened
B) Where the act happened
C) Who was involved
D) What happened in time
Answer: A
Q3) Two types of meaning are connotative meaning and denotative meaning.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The term denotation refers to:
A) Understanding the implications and background behind words
B) The use of language to identify something in a specific or literal way
C) Failing to understand the implications and background behind words
D) The use of language to identify something in a complex and subtle way
Answer: B

Page 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how NVC serves as a relational regulator.
Answer: NVC helps to regulate engagement, politeness, coordination of action, enjoyment of the interaction, and relational attraction (which determines whether or not we will begin a relationship).
Q2) NVC and verbal communication are both influenced by culture.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The study of haptics in NVC includes:
A) Observing vocal variety in a conversation
B) Observing how people time the 'flow' of conversation
C) Observing how people casually touch each other
D) Observing eye blinks in a conversation
Answer: C
Q4) The study of proxemics in NVC would include:
A) Observing eye blinks in a conversation
B) Observing numbers of um's and you know's in a conversation
C) Observing how people claim space and territory
D) Observing how people gesture
Answer: C
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Q1) Critical listening focuses on finding fault or disagreeing with messages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When you critically examine the consistency, appropriateness, and adequacy of the support for a speaker's argument, you are using critical listening to evaluate the message's:
A) Plausibility
B) Source
C) Argument
D) Context
Q3) According to your text's authors, active listening is sufficient for effective communication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Listening is the most frequently-taught communication skill at all educational levels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define one context in which listening is important in your life, and explain why it is important.
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Q1) Personal constructs are bipolar dimensions used to measure and evaluate things.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The idea of the psychic/reflective self indicates:
A) We use objects to represent our identity
B) We enact different identities in different settings
C) We create our self partly in response to social interaction
D) We use our communicative behavior to express our inner self
Q3) Culture affects our identity experience because:
A) Cultural norms can help to shape our identity
B) Cultural norms destroy identity
C) Cultural heritage is not a part of identity
D) Cultural heritage determines identity
Q4) When people fail to act in accordance with the identity they have established, there are no consequences.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the concept of identity as the 'symbolic self.'
Q6) Discuss Baxter and Montgomery's concept of the 'openness-closedness' dialectic as it applies to self-disclosure in relationships.
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Q1) "Great job!" "I love your outfit!" "You did well on the test-and you are making great comments in class. You are obviously a good learner" are examples of:
A) Belonging and a Sense of Reliable Alliance
B) Emotional Integration and Stability
C) Provision of assistance and physical support
D) Reassurance of our worth and value
Q2) A resurrection process deals with the ways people prepare themselves for new relationships after ending an old one.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Flirtation is an example of a direct communication strategy used to change a relationship's status.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Introspective RCCUs would be most likely to:
A) Indicate that one partner is physically absent from the relationship
B) Indicate that one partner has returned to the relationship
C) Indicate that one partner wants the other to leave the relationship
D) Indicate that one partner is about to be absent from the relationship
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Q1) Explain the similarity and difference between formal and advisory groups.
Q2) Power in groups is:
A) Always held by the designated leader
B) Sometimes based on communication competence
C) Based only on roles
D) Decided by majority rule.
Q3) Cohesiveness, or the ability of group members to work in unison, is:
A) Always desirable in a group
B) Desirable if it does not lead to groupthink
C) Desirable if it helps members create romantic relationships
D) Never desirable in a group
Q4) Group expectations about behavior:
A) Always require mutual respect
B) Never break down individuality
C) Set norms for how members interact
D) Never involve punishment
Q5) Group process does not usually begin by jumping right into conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the concept of group cohesiveness.
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Q1) Intercultural communication compares the communication styles and patterns of people from very different cultural/social structures, such as nation-states.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A high-context culture emphasizes community relationships, values, and ideas. Which of the following society is an example of high-context cultures?
A) France
B) US
C) Canada
D) China
Q3) Giving up your own positions on a regular basis to satisfy others in a conflict, even when no one else compromises anything, is typical of this style of conflict management:
A) Dominating
B) Integrating
C) Obliging
D) Avoiding
Q4) Identify the differences between individualist and collectivist cultures.
Q5) Distinguish between low-context and high-context societies.
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Q1) People using screen names on the Internet are not necessarily accurately represented by their screen names.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The part of a social network that includes people with whom you have very close relationships and are in frequent contact is referred to as:
A) Core ties
B) Weak ties
C) Strong ties
D) Significant ties
Q3) Explain Cell Phones and Personal Relationships.
Q4) Ringtones do not simply inform someone of an incoming call or message; they can be viewed as a method of identity construction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fears about the impact of technology on communication are unique to today's generation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) People often use multiple media simultaneously/concurrently.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The idea that media texts are 'polysemic' means that:
A) Interpretation of media texts is unanimous
B) Interpretation of media texts is not affected by cultural backgrounds/beliefs
C) Interpretation of media texts is not affected by media knowledge/experience
D) Interpretation of media texts is affected by media knowledge/experience
Q3) The concept of the socialization impact of media implies:
A) People do not attend to role behaviors they receive through the media
B) People learn how to enact role behaviors they receive through the media
C) People do not receive role behaviors through the media
D) People do not learn role behaviors through direct experience
Q4) Your authors believe that we talk about media in everyday communication because:
A) We have nothing better to talk about than the media
B) We gain insight into the media by discussing it with others
C) We fail to gain secondary information by discussing the media with others
D) We fail to gain critical thinking skills by discussing the media with others
Q5) Identify four relational needs satisfied through the shared use of media.
Q6) Summarize the basic idea behind 'uses and gratifications' theory.
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Q1) When invited to give a presentation, a speaker should ask:
A) What topics has this audience already heard?
B) What will be the rate of pay for the presentation?
C) What will the audience be doing after the presentation?
D) What is the easiest topic for me to talk about?
Q2) Which of the following is possible for a speaker to accomplish in a presentation:
A) Changing the audience's attitudes, beliefs, and values
B) Changing the audience's attitudes
C) Changing the audience's attitudes and values
D) Changing the audience's values
Q3) A speaker who knows that the audience views his/her topic favorably will need to:
A) Spend more time establishing his/her credibility
B) Spend more time defending his/her approach to the topic
C) Spend more time clarifying and defining his/her approach to the topic
D) Spend more time answering questions before the presentation
Q4) Identify what a speaker should do in selecting a topic for a presentation.
Q5) Explain the strategies a speaker should use to appeal to a captive audience.
Q6) Distinguish between attitudes, beliefs, and values.
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Q1) Providing audience with any background information needed on the topic during the introduction is referred to as:
A) Reinforcement
B) Emergence
C) Conflict
D) Orientation
Q2) Argumentation is not the same as disagreement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In developing the body of a speech, the speaker should seek to have:
A) As many main points as possible
B) Only two main points
C) Two to three well-developed main points
D) One main point
Q4) Quotations are less effective in an introduction if:
A) The speaker does not explain how/why the quotation relates to the topic
B) The speaker does not imitate the original source of the quotation
C) The audience knows the quotation
D) The audience knows the source of the quotation
Q5) Identify six components of conclusions.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Informative expository speeches are most often given to provide:
A) Little prior knowledge of the subject
B) More in-depth knowledge of the subject
C) Prior interest in the subject
D) Basic information on the subject
Q2) When seeking to change an audience's way of thinking, a speaker must:
A) Point out that he/she has the audience's best interests in mind
B) Point out that he/she will benefit from the audience's change of perspective
C) Point out that he/she has more knowledge than the audience
D) Point out that he/she has less knowledge than the audience
Q3) In applying social judgment theory to a persuasive presentation, a speaker must:
A) Be extremely vague about his/her goals
B) Be extremely vague about his/her position
C) Be very specific about his/her goals and position
D) Be very specific about the audience
Q4) An important principle to follow in giving an informative presentation is:
A) Use extremely complex language
B) Use extremely complex visuals
C) Use as many visuals as possible
D) Use clear, simple language
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Q1) Effective public speakers discuss their nervousness with the audience.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The difference between dynamism and inspiring is that:
A) Dynamism is how enthusiastic you make others; inspiring is how enthusiastic you are
B) Both are part of speaker credibility
C) Dynamism is how enthusiastic you are; inspiring is how enthusiastic you make others
D) Dynamism and inspiring are part of sociability
Q3) If you need to acknowledge making a mistake in a presentation, you should:
A) Do so while apologizing in great detail
B) Explain extensively what caused the mistake to occur
C) Do so without apologizing in great detail
D) Blame other sources for causing the mistake to occur
Q4) To help increase audience understanding, effective speakers:
A) Express emotion appropriately
B) Avoid expressing emotion
C) Express emotion in an extremely dramatic way
D) Express very little emotion to focus on the facts
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Q1) _______________________ interviews are those which are greatly controlled by the interviewer.
Q2) Which type of interview are you least likely to find in a typical workplace?
A) Performance interviews
B) Exit interviews
C) Helping interviews
D) Employment interviews
Q3) Directive interviews are those in which control for the direction of the interview is primarily given to the interviewee.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________________ questions are those that do not indicate a preferred response.
A) Neutral
B) Closed
C) Probing
D) Mirror
Q5) Interviews are generally less structured than other types of communication.
A)True
B)False

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