Rehabilitation Techniques Exam Practice Tests - 315 Verified Questions

Page 1


Rehabilitation Techniques Exam Practice

Tests

Course Introduction

This course explores a comprehensive range of rehabilitation techniques employed in clinical and community settings to restore function, enhance mobility, and promote optimal recovery in individuals affected by injury, disease, or disability. Students will study principles of physical, occupational, and speech therapy, as well as technological and manual interventions such as therapeutic exercises, functional training, orthotic and prosthetic usage, and assistive devices. Emphasis will be placed on evidence-based practice, interdisciplinary team approaches, and patient-centered care planning, preparing learners to assess patient needs, design appropriate rehabilitation strategies, and evaluate outcomes for diverse populations.

Recommended Textbook

Michlovitzs Modalities for Therapeutic Intervention 6th Edition by James W. Bellew PT EdD

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17 Chapters

315 Verified Questions

315 Flashcards

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2

Chapter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following modalities is most appropriate for the proliferative stage of tissue healing?

A) Ice massage

B) Diathermy

C) TENS

D) Cold whirlpool

Answer: B

Q2) What type of energy does diathermy use to heat biological tissues?

A) High-frequency sound waves

B) Electromagnetic radiation

C) Compressive and distractive forces

D) Convective currents

Answer: B

Q3) In the patient care management model, therapeutic modalities include the use of physical agents to provide which of the following?

A) Palliative care alone

B) Therapeutic benefits

C) Discharge planning

D) Assessment of patient prognosis

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Cold Therapy Modalities

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why does the presence of thick adipose tissue under the skin tend to block decreases in tissue temperature when cryotherapy is applied to the skin?

A) Adipose tissue has a low thermal conductivity.

B) Resting membrane currents are higher.

C) Adipose tissue has no thermal sensory receptors.

D) More blood flows to the skin through capillaries in adipose tissue.

Answer: A

Q2) The physiological effects of cryotherapy are primarily a result of which of the following?

A) Stimulation of free nerve endings in the skin

B) Release of vasodynamic hormones

C) Increase in nerve conduction velocity

D) Decrease in tissue temperature

Answer: D

Q3) Which of the following is an abnormal response to the application of cold?

A) Reddening of the skin

B) Raised, red, irregularly shaped areas on the skin

C) Numbness of the skin

D) Feelings of burning or aching of the skin

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Therapeutic Heat

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Sample Questions

Q1) The effects of heat on connective tissue include all of the following except

A) Increased elasticity

B) Increased viscosity

C) Decreased joint stiffness

D) Increased muscle flexibility

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following represents a risk one should consider when applying external heating modalities?

A) Increased tissue oxygen demand exceeds delivery of oxygen-rich blood.

B) Anti-inflammatory effect of heat results in increased joint effusion.

C) Heating a large volume of tissue results in compensatory cutaneous vasodilation, which increases risk for surface burns.

D) Systemic response of decreased heart rate results in cardiovascular complications. Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Ultrasound

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Sample Questions

Q1) The best estimate of effective radiating area (ERA) of the ultrasound applicator is

A) Area of the faceplate of the applicator

B) Area of the piezoelectric crystal

C) Area of the total applicator including handle

D) There is no way to estimate the ERA.

Q2) Added heat buildup at the periosteal junction of bone can occur most likely as a result of

A) Acoustic wave reflection producing standing waves

B) Acoustic wave absorption in the very dense periosteum

C) Acoustic wave refraction into bone

D) Acoustic wave absorption into bone

Q3) In general, ultrasound seems to be most effective in treating

A) Inflammatory conditions

B) Limitations in range of motion

C) Painful conditions

D) Deficits in nerve conduction

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6

Chapter 5: Hydrotherapy: the Use of Water As a Therapeutic Agent

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Sample Questions

Q1) If your patient has an in-dwelling catheter can he or she participate in pool therapy?

A) No, in-dwelling catheters are a contraindication for pool therapy.

B) Yes, however, all catheters must be removed prior to entering the pool.

C) No, patients with open wounds cannot enter a therapeutic pool.

D) Yes, however, all catheters must be clamped and fixed prior to entering the pool.

Q2) You have been using pulsed lavage with suction (PLWS) for a patient with a noninfected venous ulcer. You have noted no increase in new granulation tissue in the wound for 1 week. Which of the following is most appropriate at this time?

A) Increase treatment pressure to 20 psi and continue daily PLWS treatments.

B) Discontinue PLWS and consult with the patient's physician.

C) Debride 50% of the granulation tissue and resume PLWS.

D) Discontinue PLWS and start warm whirlpool treatments for the wound.

Q3) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for pool therapy?

A) Fear of losing balance or sinking in water

B) History of seizures currently under control with anti-seizure medication

C) Impaired cognitive function

D) Decompensated congestive heart failure

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Electromagnetic Modalities: Laser, Diathermy, and

Pulsed Electromagnetic Fields

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient has a medical history of impaired sensation in her lower extremities. If you chose laser for treatment of a condition in her lower extremities, which of the following laser therapy treatments must be performed with caution?

A) High-intensity lasers and superluminescent light-emitting diode (SLED) arrays

B) Infrared laser at a dosage of 2 J/point

C) HeNe laser at a dosage of 8 J/point

D) Nd-YAG pulsed laser at 12 J/point

Q2) Your patient has a chronic flexion contracture of the left knee. Which of the following dosages would be most appropriate if you chose to apply diathermy prior to stretching the knee?

A) Nonthermal

B) Mild heat sensation

C) Moderate heat sensation

D) Vigorous heating

Q3) Which of the following is true about electromagnetic energy?

A) Has matter that is equal in mass to its frequency

B) Transfers heat via conduction

C) Travels through space without a transport medium

D) Requires contact with the body or another conducting pathway

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Spinal Traction

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Sample Questions

Q1) How much traction force is required to overcome friction of the lower body when doing lumbar traction?

A) One-half to three-quarters of body weight

B) Approximately 20 pounds

C) Up to approximately one-half of body weight

D) Greater than 150 pounds

Q2) A recently published clinical prediction rule for cervical traction includes which of the following?

A) Positive shoulder abduction test

B) Age of 50 years or younger

C) Negative upper limb tension test

D) Increased symptoms with manual distraction

Q3) Which of the following is an appropriate guideline regarding the patient's response to traction?

A) Some discomfort is expected during traction and may temporarily increase afterward.

B) Traction should relieve pain in an extremity but may increase neck or back pain.

C) Pain increases during traction are common but should diminish afterward.

D) The patient should not have an increase in symptoms during or after traction.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Intermittent Pneumatic Compression

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Sample Questions

Q1) Shortness of breath following IPC may indicate

A) The pressure was set too high during treatment and must be reduced next treatment.

B) The duration of the treatment was too long and must be reduced next session.

C) There may be a fluid overload in the lungs or a pulmonary embolism.

D) This is a normal response to IPC and there is no cause for concern.

Q2) Which of the following is a common benign response following an IPC treatment?

A) Slight transient dizziness and unsteadiness

B) Numbness of the extremity

C) Persistent shortness of breath for several hours

D) Depressed circumferential lines on limb

Q3) Which of the following parameters for IPC should be chosen for a patient who has a lower extremity venous ulcer?

A) Slow inflation cycles

B) Long inflation times and slow deflation times

C) Rapid inflation cycles

D) Slow inflation times and rapid deflation times

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Chapter 9: Foundations of Clinical Electrotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which electrochemical effects match the given electrode polarity?

A) Hydrochloric acid produced under the anode results in softening of hard scar tissue.

B) The alkaline reaction under the cathode results in softening of the underlying tissues.

C) Sodium hydroxide that builds up under the anode results in sclerosis of tissues.

D) The chemical reactions that occur under the cathode are related to an increase in acidity.

Q2) According to Ohm's law, when using a device that has a constant voltage, what will happen to the current when the skin resistance increases?

A) The current increases.

B) The patient will feel a short-duration shock.

C) There is no change in current.

D) The current decreases.

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11

Chapter 10: Clinical Electrical Stimulation: Application and Techniques

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following correctly describes "pulse duration"?

A) Time from the beginning of the first phase to the end of the second phase

B) Total time elapsed from beginning to end of all phases, including interphase interval

C) Total time elapsed from beginning to end of all phases, not including any interphase intervals

D) Time of one pulse, not including any phases or intervals

Q2) Which pair of parameters is most commonly varied or manipulated to elicit the various forms of TENS such as conventional, acupuncture, and burst train?

A) Frequency and amplitude

B) Frequency and rise time

C) Frequency and pulse duration

D) Pulse duration and waveform shape

Q3) Patients with vasospastic disorders may benefit from which of the following types of stimulation to improve peripheral blood flow?

A) NMES to large muscles closest to the body part that is affected

B) Iontophoresis with dexamethasone

C) Motor-level stimulation for 15 to 30 minutes

D) Subsensory stimulation using direct current for 10 to 15 minutes

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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Pain and Use of Therapeutic Modalities

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Sample Questions

Q1) Electrode placement for TENS should be selected based on which of the following?

A) Chronicity of pain

B) The mode of TENS used

C) In accordance with the painful area or over the peripheral nerve responsible for the pain

D) The cost of the electrodes

Q2) Which of the following best reflects the evidence-based recommendations for the duration of a TENS treatment when used for knee osteoarthritis?

A) Less than 15 minutes

B) 40 minutes

C) 1 hour

D) Several hours of continuous stimulation

Q3) ___________ is a form of amplitude modulated alternating current and __________ is a form of burst modulated alternating current.

A) Interferential; Aussie

B) Interferential; brief intense

C) Russian; Aussie

D) Russian; interferential

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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Modalities for Improving Range of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following modalities is most appropriate to use on a patient with decreased ROM due to restrictions in the posterior hip capsule?

A) Pulsed ultrasound

B) Pulsed shortwave diathermy

C) Heating pad

D) Extracorporeal shockwave therapy

Q2) Which of the following best describes the current amplitude necessary when neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) is used to increase ROM through muscle activation?

A) An amplitude that is greater than 80% of the maximal voluntary isometric contraction

B) An amplitude that elicits fasciculations, but below the level of tetany

C) An amplitude that elicits muscle contractions capable of moving the joint through the desired ROM

D) An amplitude that is just below the motor threshold

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14

Chapter 13: Electrotherapy for Musculoskeletal Disorders

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16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The recommended amplitude for NMES to achieve a given level of muscle force is termed which of the following?

A) Dosage

B) Quantum

C) Threshold

D) Frequency

Q2) A possible limitation of NMES is which of the following?

A) The inability of NMES to achieve greater than 50% maximum voluntary contraction (MVC).

B) Recruitment of fast fibers occurs before recruitment of slow fibers.

C) Firing frequencies of muscle fibers are lower than frequencies used during NMES.

D) Duration of NMES treatments is much longer than comparable voluntary strengthening programs.

Q3) When selecting a stimulator for NMES, which of the following types of stimulators will be effective?

A) Only large line-powered NMES devices

B) Only portable battery-operated NMES devices

C) Either line-powered or battery-operated NMES devices

D) Any device, including TENS and direct current (DC) devices

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation Nmes

and Functional Electrical Stimulation Fes in Patients With

Neurological Diagnoses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which parameters would most likely be effective when the goal of NMES is to enhance strength?

A) 75 pps, 10 seconds on : 50 seconds off, 10 minutes

B) 30 pps, 10 seconds on : 30 seconds off, 10 contractions

C) 75 pps, 4 seconds on : 4 seconds off, 10 contractions

D) 30 pps, 4 seconds on : 4 seconds off, 10 minutes

Q2) Which of the following is known about the use of biofeedback for patients who have had a stroke?

A) Current evidence does not show support.

B) Studies confirm it is useful for recovery.

C) It is ineffective for stroke victims because of spasticity.

D) It can be combined with NMES for retraining of gait.

Q3) Which set of parameters is most appropriate for treating urge incontinence?

A) 50 pps, 5 seconds on: 50 seconds off, 30 minutes, three times/day

B) 12 pps, 5 seconds on: 15 seconds off, 30 minutes, three times/day

C) 50 pps, 5 seconds on: 15 seconds off, 60 minutes, three times/week

D) 12 pps, 10 seconds on: 50 seconds off, 60 minutes, three times/week

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Therapeutic Modalities for Tissue Healing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a proposed chemical effect of IPC that promotes wound healing?

A) Decreased production of substance P

B) Increased release of endogenous opioids

C) Decreased release of sensory neuropeptides

D) Increased production of nitrous oxide

Q2) Which of the following is a proposed mechanical effect of intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) that promotes wound healing?

A) Increased peak blood flow velocity

B) Decreased arterial blood pressure

C) Increased venous blood pressure

D) Decreased oxygenated blood

Q3) What does the current research literature on the use of MIRE for the treatment of sensory neuropathy show?

A) Research is conclusive that MIRE is effective in restoring sensation.

B) No studies demonstrate that MIRE is effective for this condition.

C) No consistent body of evidence exists supporting MIRE for this condition.

D) Research remains inconclusive regarding effectiveness and concern about harmful side effects.

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Alternative Modalities for Pain and Tissue

Healing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a proposed physiological effect of ESWT?

A) Release of myofascial adhesions

B) Cellular electrolyte formation

C) Hyperstimulation analgesia

D) Remodeling of scar tissue

Q2) Which of the following conditions has some support in research literature for possible beneficial effects from treatment with MIRE?

A) Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dysfunction

B) Osteoarthritis of the knees

C) Low back pain

D) Peripheral neuropathy

Q3) Which of the following best describes extracorporeal shockwave therapy (ESWT)?

A) Single-impulse, focused acoustical sound wave that generates a rapid rise in pressure

B) Pressure force originating outside the body that generates electrical shocks

C) Magnetic pulse that drives waves of energy through the corporeal tissues

D) Multiple array of diodes that focuses sound waves into a slowly rising pressure

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Electrophysiological Testing of Nerves and Muscles

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Sample Questions

Q1) During an electromyography (EMG) exam of a patient there is a brief burst of electrical activity when the needle electrode is inserted into the muscle. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this finding?

A) Neuromuscular junction disease

B) Myopathic disorder

C) Demyelination of the motor neuron

D) Normal response caused by movement of the needle electrode

Q2) Which of the following patients will typically not benefit from a referral for ENMG testing?

A) Those with numbness and pain involving the sensory division of the peripheral nervous system

B) Those having weakness of the right arm and leg following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

C) Those having paresthesias in the left foot and toes involving the sensory division of the peripheral nervous system

D) Those having weakness of right hand grasp involving the motor division of the peripheral nervous system

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