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Rehabilitation Sciences Test Bank - 861 Verified Questions

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Rehabilitation Sciences Test

Bank

Course Introduction

Rehabilitation Sciences is an interdisciplinary field focused on the study and application of strategies to restore, maintain, and enhance physical, cognitive, and emotional function following injury, illness, or disability. The course introduces students to the foundational concepts, principles, and evidence-based practices central to rehabilitation, including assessment, intervention, and evaluation methods. It explores the roles of various rehabilitation professionals, ethical considerations, and the impact of social, cultural, and policy factors on service delivery. Students also gain insight into patient-centered care, interdisciplinary collaboration, and innovations in technology to improve outcomes in diverse populations.

Recommended Textbook

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition by Donna Frownfelter

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45 Chapters

861 Verified Questions

861 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1316 Page 2

Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing

Contemporary Physical Therapy Practice

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26194

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about smoking-related conditions is correct?

A) Smoking is the second leading cause of preventable death in the world, including the United States.

B) In the United States, COPD ranks second behind ischemic heart disease the leading cause of mortality.

C) Long-term smokers have lower incidences of all-cause morbidity and mortality.

D) Smoking cessation is the most cost-effective intervention for smokers with heart disease in terms of risk reduction.

Answer: D

Q2) An individual entering the health care system presents with insulin resistance,high blood pressure,elevated triglycerides and cholesterol,and obesity.What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Genetic syndrome

B) Cardiac syndrome

C) Metabolic syndrome

D) Stockholm syndrome

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26195

Sample Questions

Q1) Basal metabolic rate (BMR)is a measure of an individual's resting metabolic rate; this rate is said to be constant among individuals under similar circumstances.The BMR takes into account the resting function of all but which of the following?

A) Breathing

B) Brain function

C) Thermoregulation

D) Digestion

Answer: D

Q2) A patient is seen with a complaint of an inability to breathe.The patient describes episodes whereby he is unable to "catch [his] breath." After completing an examination,it is determined that the left chest wall is incongruent with the right during inspiration.This physical change could be precipitated by what physiologic change?

A) Impaired bronchial smooth muscle

B) Ineffective cilia coupled with thick mucus

C) Airway obstruction

D) Disruption of the intrapleural pressure gradient

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26196

Sample Questions

Q1) The palatine tonsils can be found in which area of the upper airways?

A) Larynx

B) Pharynx

C) Oropharynx

D) Laryngopharynx

Answer: C

Q2) The accessory action of the internal intercostal muscles is said to be:

A) inspiration.

B) expiration.

C) both inspiration and expiration.

D) neither inspiration nor expiration.

Answer: C

Q3) The bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left mainstem bronchi occurs near what anatomic landmark?

A) Angle of Louis

B) Sternal notch

C) Articulation of the sternum and manubrium

D) Articulation of the sternum and xiphoid process

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a history of smoking has a recent decrease in oxygen saturation and is seen for a wellness program.The physical therapist determines that the PCO level is normal but the PO level is decreased.All other measures of the pulmonary system taken that day appear normal; this patient likely has a problem with:

A) perfusion.

B) diffusion.

C) ventilation.

D) none of the above.

Q2) Considering the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve,a shift in the curve to the left results in decreased oxygen affinity and a greater dissociation of oxygen and hemoglobin.What condition might have this effect on the curve?

A) Working skeletal muscle

B) Emphysema

C) Polycythemia

D) None of the above

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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient recovering from cardiac surgery is at risk for developing which type of dysrhythmia?

A) Sinus tachycardia

B) Ventricular tachycardia

C) Conduction block

D) Atrial fibrillation

Q2) Patients seen after having a myocardial infraction (MI)recover at various rates depending on the complicated versus uncomplicated nature of the MI.What is the most important factor for determining the prognosis of a patient for a physical therapist planning a rehabilitation program for that patient after MI?

A) Persistence of angina

B) Extent of ventricular damage

C) Use of nitrates versus antiarrhythmic agents

D) Pre-insult exercise intensity

Q3) All of the following can present during an asthma attack EXCEPT:

A) chest tightness.

B) the expiratory phase of breathing is prolonged.

C) breath sounds diminish with progressive hyperinflation.

D) the inspiratory phase of breathing is prolonged.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What substance is responsible for stimulating the synthesis of surfactant,which assists in holding the alveolar sac open for oxygenation to occur?

A) Thyroid hormone

B) Antidiuretic hormone

C) Corticotrophin hormone

D) Lipolytic hormone

Q2) A patient with left-sided heart failure would likely have changes in which of the following systems?

A) Integumentary system

B) Endocrine system

C) Metabolic system

D) Lymphatic system

Q3) Patients with Parkinson disease are typically have increased muscle tone and subsequent rigidity.As part of a planned program of intervention,the physical therapist should consider which of the following?

A) Program of general muscle strengthening

B) Program of cardiovascular endurance training

C) Program of stretching and tone reduction activities

D) Program of tone reduction and thoracic mobility activities

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Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a type or level of measurement?

A) Nominal

B) Ordinal

C) Ratio

D) Segmental

Q2) Which best describes sensitivity?

A) Sensitivity is the ability of a measurement to identify individuals who have negative results or who do not have the characteristic.

B) A false-positive result means that the test result was positive but the characteristic was present.

C) A false-positive result means that the test result was negative but the characteristic was absent.

D) Sensitivity is the ability of a measurement to identify the characteristic that is being measured.

Q3) Which is the best example of a ratio measurement?

A) 0° Celsius

B) A classification of heart failure

C) 0° Kelvin

D) Grade 1 angina

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Page 9

Chapter 8: History

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is true regarding dyspnea on exertion?

A) Dyspnea on exertion is not a common complaint of patients with cardiopulmonary dysfunction.

B) Dyspnea during exercise or exertion usually follows dyspnea at rest.

C) Dyspnea during exercise or exertion usually precedes dyspnea at rest.

D) It is not a concern with those with congestive heart failure.

Q2) Which is not true regarding pleural chest pain?

A) Chest pain originates from the parietal pleura or endothoracic fascia.

B) Chest pain originates from the parietal pleura or visceral pleura.

C) Pleuritic chest pain worsens sharply with inspiration.

D) Deep breathing, coughing, and laughing are extremely painful.

Q3) Which best describes orthopnea?

A) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the recumbent position

B) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the sitting position

C) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the standing position

D) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the inverted position

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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which best describes an obstructive condition of the lungs?

A) A condition that limits the amount of volume coming into the lungs

B) A condition that increases air volume coming into the lungs

C) A condition that increases the volume in exhalation

D) A condition that relates to problems in exhalation airflow

Q2) Which of the following would not contribute to preoperative complications with pulmonary function tests?

A) Smoking

B) Younger age

C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

D) Obesity

Q3) What can occur when the dead space of the lungs increases?

A) A larger percentage of the tidal volume is ventilating the dead space, leaving a smaller percentage for alveolar ventilation.

B) The patient does not have to work as hard to fill the alveoli.

C) There is better lung perfusion.

D) Patient fatigue lessens.

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Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true regarding acceptable ranges for arterial blood gases?

A) pH of 5.30 to 6.50

B) pH of 7.45 and above alkalemia

C) pH of 7.35 and below alkalemia

D) PCO of 10 to 20 mm Hg

Q2) In regards to respiratory failure,which is true?

A) Positional changes can affect the oxygenation status.

B) During the chronic phase, the kidneys have not started to compensate, and the base HCO is within normal limits.

C) Acute respiratory failure can be noted by an increased PCO , a pH within normal limits, and a low PO .

D) When hyperoxygenation is noted, treatment consists of oxygen therapy, CPAP or biphasic positive airway pressure, and alleviation of the cause of hyperoxygenation.

Q3) What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere?

A) 79%

B) 10%

C) 20.9%

D) 100%

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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does a CT scan use for imaging?

A) Ionizing radiation

B) Magnetic energy

C) Radioactive isotopes

D) Radiolabeled glucose

Q2) How might chronic obstructive pulmonary disease appear on chest imaging?

A) A barrel-shaped chest

B) A narrow chest in all planes

C) A peaked diaphragm in the transverse plane

D) Decreased density of the pulmonary markings

Q3) Which imaging technique shows the function of the organs?

A) PET scan

B) CT scan

C) MRI

D) Ultrasonography

Q4) On a radiograph,what does the white area represent?

A) Pockets of air within the body

B) Fatty areas within the body

C) Muscle and other soft tissues

D) Bones within the body

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification

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20 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where does an ectopic focus originate?

A) A beat or rhythm that originates in the SA node

B) A beat or rhythm that does not originate in the SA node

C) A beat or rhythm that originates in the AV node

D) A beat or rhythm that does not originate in the AV node

Q2) An impulse originating from an ectopic focus in the ventricles that is outside of the normal conduction pathway has which of the following characteristics?

A) Slower propagation because of the syncytial arrangement of the myocardial cells

B) Uncoordinated contraction

C) Decrease in ejection of blood volume

D) All of the above

Q3) Sinus tachycardia and sinus bradycardia are both rhythms that have systemic affects.Which of the following are complications of tachycardia?

A) Increase O demand, ischemia exacerbation of the heart, and increased workload on the heart

B) Syncope, increased O demand, and reduction in cardiac output

C) Lightheadedness, decreased O demand, and heart rate less than 60 beats/min

D) Heart rate greater than 100 beats/min, syncope, and reduced cardiac output

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14

Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26206

Sample Questions

Q1) Which test is used to diagnose and monitor the treatment of acute pancreatitis?

A) CBC

B) Amylase test

C) Electrolyte levels

D) Creatinine test

Q2) Which of the following is not a test of peripheral vascular function?

A) Peripheral pulses

B) Capillary filling time

C) Ankle systolic pressures

D) Fibrin clotting time

Q3) Which of the following describes the average volume and constituents of blood in an adult?

A) 3 L of plasma; 2 L of cells

B) 5 L of plasma; 2 L of cells

C) 1 L of plasma; 4 L of cells

D) 2 L of plasma; 5 L of cells

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15

Chapter 14: Special Tests

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which test for the cardiovascular system would be most appropriate for a patient with an irregular heart beat who has difficulty exercising?

A) Treadmill stress test

B) First-pass study

C) Gated equilibrium scan

D) Pharmacologic stress study

Q2) Which is not one of the three basic components of a radionuclide imaging system?

A) Radiopharmaceutical agent

B) Radiation detector or camera

C) Computer

D) Surgical scalpels and sutures

Q3) Which is not an advantage of using technetium radionuclides versus thallium radionuclides?

A) Higher count rates

B) Higher energy

C) It redistributes readily

D) None of the above

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Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary

Systems

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following describes hyperresonant tones derived from mediate percussion?

A) High-pitched, medium-duration sounds

B) Low-amplitude, medium- to high-pitched, short-duration sounds

C) High-pitched, short-duration sounds

D) Very-low-pitched, prolonged-duration sounds

Q2) What is the normal respiratory rate for newborns?

A) 14 to 20 breaths/min

B) 15 to 25 breaths/min

C) 20 to 40 breaths/min

D) 30 to 60 breaths/min

Q3) When should discharge planning begin in the acute-care setting?

A) The first day of treatment

B) The second day of treatment

C) The second week of treatment

D) The second-to-last day of treatment

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Chapter 16: Monitoring Systems, catheters, and Devices in the Intensive Care Unit

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a patient's chest tube becomes dislodged during mobilization,what is the appropriate protocol for a physical therapist?

A) Attempt to replace the tube immediately before notifying a nurse.

B) Monitor the patient's pulse and breathing after notifying a nurse.

C) Apply immediate compression to the site and notify a nurse.

D) Keep the site clean and clear of linens or other objects while notifying a nurse.

Q2) Which of the following is most likely symptomatic of fluid excess?

A) Jugular vein distention

B) Blood pressure decrease

C) Decreased skin turgor

D) All of the above

Q3) Where should chest drainage systems be located?

A) Higher than chest level

B) At chest level

C) Lower than chest level

D) At the head of the hospital bed

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18

Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an Individuals Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) With respect to cardiopulmonary complications,a 1- or 2-hourly:

A) exercise regimen is commonly accepted.

B) turning regimen is commonly accepted.

C) walking regimen is commonly accepted.

D) sitting regimen is commonly accepted.

Q2) Physical therapists have an active role on wellness and its promotion in the form of:

A) structured programs.

B) one-on-one care.

C) evidence-based planning.

D) a and

Q3) The prescription must be reviewed at each treatment session and:

A) changed whether or not improvement has been made.

B) changed only if the patient requests.

C) kept the same as the previous week for a 4-week period.

D) modified accordingly.

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Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment,

evaluation, and Training

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Sample Questions

Q1) Return to work is often related to oxygen transport capacity in terms of:

A) aerobic and muscle power.

B) mobilization and exercise.

C) stress level and social contact.

D) capacity for activity and participation.

Q2) The goal in prescribing mobilization and exercise is to ensure a safety margin wherein:

A) every patient will follow the same exercise or mobilization program.

B) the patient can become accustomed to a lack of oxygen and make adjustments.

C) the patient's demand for oxygen does not exceed the available supply or delivery.

D) the metabolic demand and oxygen consumption in patients will be considered.

Q3) Early mobilization is a key component of cardiopulmonary physical therapy in the: A) addition of challenges and compromising functional capacity.

B) estimation of limits that a patient has for mobilization.

C) management of patients who are chronically ill.

D) management of patients who are acutely ill.

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Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training

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Sample Questions

Q1) Prescription of body positioning is based on an analysis of the factors that:

A) contribute to impaired oxygen transport for each patient.

B) contribute to improved oxygen transport for each patient.

C) contribute to improved cardiovascular function for each patient.

D) contribute to decreased cardiovascular function for each patient.

Q2) There is mounting physiological and scientific justification for use of the prone position to enhance arterial oxygenation and reduce the work of:

A) patients with congenital cardiovascular conditions.

B) breathing in patients with musculoskeletal dysfunction.

C) breathing in patients with cardiopulmonary dysfunction.

D) breathing in patients with neurogenic dysfunction.

Q3) A common practice is to progressively turn patients in:

A) small increments.

B) one-half turns.

C) one-third turns.

D) one-quarter turns.

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Chapter 20: Body Positioning

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Sample Questions

Q1) Vibration is applied throughout exhalation concurrent with:

A) slight compression to the chest wall.

B) mild compression to the chest wall.

C) significant compression to the chest wall.

D) maximal compression to the chest wall.

Q2) All of the following refer to bronchial hygiene techniques EXCEPT:

A) chest physical therapy.

B) tracheal tapping.

C) bronchial drainage.

D) chest physiotherapy.

Q3) It has been suggested that exercise can replace:

A) all or part of the stored fats with muscle.

B) the need for physical therapists after cardiovascular insult.

C) the need for pulmonary inhalers.

D) all or part of a conventional chest physiotherapy routine in some patients.

Q4) An indication for airway clearance is:

A) nonproductive cough.

B) atelectasis.

C) respiratory muscle weakness.

D) asthma.

22

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Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques

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Sample Questions

Q1) Inhalation of prescribed bronchodilator medications should take placed before:

A) administration of supplemental oxygen to improve alveolar respiration.

B) airway clearance maneuvers to improve secretion removal by opening the airways.

C) determining the patients resting vital signs.

D) after airway clearance maneuvers to maintain open airways.

Q2) Postural drainage is accomplished by positioning the patient so that the angle of the lung segment to be drained allows:

A) is closest to the physical therapist.

B) farthest from the physical therapist.

C) aligned with the bronchial tree.

D) gravity to have its greatest effect.

Q3) The aim of loosening retained secretions by the use of percussion is so that:

A) they can be sent to the laboratory for culturing.

B) they may be removed by suctioning or expectoration.

C) they can be picked up and removed by the lymphatic system.

D) they may be redirected through collateral circulation.

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Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques

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Sample Questions

Q1) Three self-assisted techniques are:

A) prone on elbows head flection, long sitting, and hands-and-knees rocking.

B) costophrenic, intraabdominal, and prone on elbows head flection.

C) long-sitting, hands-and-knees rocking, and costophrenic.

D) intraabdominal, hands-and-knees rocking, hands-and-knees rocking.

Q2) Speech and language pathologists work with patients who have swallowing dysfunction (dysphagia)by:

A) helping them to learn techniques and procedures for safe swallowing.

B) helping them to learn proper breathing techniques to aid in swallowing.

C) helping them to learn proper airway clearing techniques to aid in swallowing.

D) working in conjunction with a physical therapist on a treatment plan.

Q3) Three manually assisted techniques are:

A) anterior chest compression, long sitting, and hands-and-knees rocking.

B) anterior chest compression, counterrotation, and prone on elbows head flection.

C) costophrenic, anterior chest compression, and long sitting.

D) costophrenic, anterior chest compression, and counterrotation.

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Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies

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Sample Questions

Q1) To improve exhalation potential,increase the patient's:

A) relative trunk extension.

B) relative trunk flexion.

C) relative pelvic posterior rotation.

D) relative pelvic anterior rotation.

Q2) The trapezius muscle assists in superior expansion of the: A) chest.

B) throat.

C) diaphragm.

D) trachea.

Q3) Positioning the patient for respiratory success is important before beginning the patient's therapy or daily-living activities.All of the following positions are associated with the respiratory pattern EXCEPT:

A) trunk flexion.

B) trunk extension.

C) shoulder adduction, internal rotation.

D) shoulder abduction, external rotation.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary

Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Health education a major component of________________ and constitutes a skill in its own right.

A) exercise testing

B) cardiac rehabilitation

C) pulmonary fit testing

D) physical rehabilitation

Q2) Peak functional capacity depends on muscle strength and endurance in individuals with chronic heart failure depends on which of the following?

A) Breathing control

B) Weigh control

C) Muscle endurance

D) Muscle performance

Q3) Heart failure can be characterized as:

A) diastolic.

B) systolic.

C) neither a nor b.

D) both a and b.

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary

Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Exercise is central to the prevention and management of osteopenia and osteoporosis; _________ activities are beneficial for osteogenesis.

A) anaerobic

B) aerobic

C) non-weight-bearing

D) weight-bearing

Q2) Limitation of mitochondrial oxidative capacity has been ruled out as a limiter of exercise capacity in patients with which of the following conditions?

A) Connective tissue disorders

B) Chronic renal failure

C) Rheumatoid arthritis

D) Hepatopulmonary

Q3) Management of patients with systemic atherosclerosis and circulatory dysfunction is similar to management of patients with which of the following pathologies?

A) Stroke

B) Heart and lung failure

C) End-stage renal disease

D) Hypertension

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Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training

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Sample Questions

Q1) Inspiratory muscle weakness is __________ and underlies ventilatory insufficiency and symptoms in patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).

A) rare

B) significant

C) infrequent

D) prominent

Q2) About 75% to 80% of patients who are mechanically ventilated can be:

A) expected to have respiratory muscle dysfunction.

B) weaned to breath spontaneously without difficulty.

C) expected to have poorer prognoses.

D) weaned to breath spontaneously but with much difficulty.

Q3) People with Parkinson disease can exhibit:

A) musculoskeletal weakness.

B) chronic lung dysfunction.

C) respiratory muscle weakness.

D) chronic respiratory dysfunction.

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Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As

Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Friedman and Rosenman defined the Type A personality as:

A) an anxiety disorder in which the patient experiences ongoing depression and heightened stress levels

B) an emotional syndrome characterized by a continuously harrying sense of time urgency and easily aroused free-floating hostility

C) a risk factor for developing coronary artery disease

D) psychological factor related to personality factors, character traits and social isolation

Q2) Manual therapies involve the use of hands on the body/mind surface to:

A) stimulate mechanical force

B) stimulate bioelectromagnetic force

C) stimulate energetic force

D) optimize conditions for metabolism

Q3) Psychosocial management has been identified as a:

A) mind/body technique that that includes cognitive behavioral interventions

B) pathophysiological basis for applying CAM therapies to cardiovascular conditions

C) specific intervention that addresses psychological stress and hypertension

D) core component of cardiac rehabilitation/secondary prevention programs

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Chapter 28: Patient Education

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Sample Questions

Q1) The primary mode of transmission of culture is:

A) friendship.

B) spirituality.

C) education.

D) language.

Q2) Physical therapists believe that:

A) patient-clinician rapport is the most important education objective.

B) meditation should always be included in patient education.

C) patient education is an important part of patient care.

D) relaxation and emotional awareness should be a main focus in patient education.

Q3) The graduate physical therapist is required to be able to:

A) determine the effectiveness of patient education.

B) formulate and prioritize goals.

C) effectively educate others using culturally appropriate teaching methods that are commensurate with the needs of the learner.

D) determine what concepts are pertinent to patient education.

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Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Emphysema is characterized by:

A) productive cough.

B) bronchial breath sounds in peripheral lobes.

C) decreased lung elastic recoil.

D) absence of bullae.

Q2) You are following a 5-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis.She presents with constant mucociliary clearance issues and productive coughing.You decide to implement a home program for postural drainage and percussion but realize that the caregiver has rheumatoid arthritis in her hands and will not be able to provide the necessary treatment.Which of the following options should be used to assist this patient with her secretion clearance at home?

A) Flutter device

B) High-frequency chest wall oscillation

C) Active cycle of breathing

D) All of the above

Q3) Patients with tuberculosis present with:

A) dry, nonproductive cough.

B) weight gain.

C) fever.

D) increased appetite.

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Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE about thoracic and cardiovascular surgery?

A) Patients are at increased risk of aspiration postoperatively.

B) Irritation or compression of the phrenic nerve is not possible during surgery.

C) Artificial airways decrease the risk of postoperative complications.

D) Blood gasses do not indicate the need for mechanical ventilation.

Q2) Which of the following would promote postoperative complications after thoracic or cardiovascular surgery?

A) Deep breathing

B) Ambulation

C) Reduced arousal

D) Huffing

Q3) The most common incision(s)used for thoracic surgery is/are ___________________?

A) posterolateral thoracotomy

B) median sternotomy

C) supraclavicular thoracotomy

D) a and b

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32

Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Angina is caused by:

A) valve dysfunction.

B) electrical dysfunction.

C) atherosclerosis.

D) bacterial infection.

Q2) The hallmark sign of peripheral arterial disease is:

A) claudication.

B) angina.

C) confusion.

D) back pain.

Q3) The goal of physical therapy with a patient with valve dysfunction is to:

A) optimize oxygen transport.

B) decrease quality of life.

C) increase work of the heart.

D) provide long doses of exercise.

Q4) Bronchiectasis is:

A) characterized by dilation and anatomic distortion of the airways.

B) rarely a side effect of chronic lung infections.

C) associated with autoimmune diseases.

D) all of the above.

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Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary

Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction

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Q1) Patients with scleroderma are:

A) hypotonic.

B) hypermobile.

C) rigid.

D) fibrotic.

Q2) All of the following are examples of musculoskeletal thoracic deformities that can affect breathing or coughing EXCEPT:

A) scoliosis.

B) rib fractures.

C) spondylolisthesis.

D) ankylosing spondylitis.

Q3) Which of the following should be monitored when working with a patient with muscular dystrophy?

A) Rate pressure product

B) Rate of perceived exertion

C) Blood pressure

D) All of the above

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit

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Q1) Which of the following is a contraindication for manual techniques performed in the head-down position?

A) Hemorrhage

B) Acute chest trauma

C) Myocardial infarction

D) Gastric reflux

Q2) What might be the cause for apparent impairment of neuromuscular status in a patient in the ICU?

A) Increased cardiac output

B) Increased blood pressure

C) Decreased intracranial pressure

D) Hypercapnia

Q3) What would be the most appropriate way to address a pressure sore developing on the sacrum of a patient in the ICU to prevent further deterioration?

A) Provide a special mattress for the patient.

B) Begin a regular positioning program to relieve pressure on sacrum.

C) Begin routine skin examinations to monitor the sacrum.

D) Smooth the patient's hospital gown when he or she returns to bed.

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Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals

With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction

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Q1) Which of these interventions would not achieve the goal of trying to minimize oxygen demand on the patient?

A) Body positioning

B) Relaxation techniques

C) Coordinating treatment with other interventions

D) Coordinating treatment before medications take effect

Q2) What condition is described with the pathophysiological features of marked airway resistance secondary to bronchospasm,edema,and mucous secretion and retention?

A) Acute respiratory failure

B) Obstructive lung disease

C) Status asthmaticus

D) COPD

Q3) Which of the following is the primary goal of physical therapy to optimize oxygen transport in a patient with COPD?

A) Improve oxygen tension.

B) Reduce oxygen saturation.

C) Increase carbon dioxide levels.

D) Reduce PaO .

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Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals

With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction

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Sample Questions

Q1) How should you position the bed to reduce intracranial pressure in a patient with a head injury?

A) Head of the bed elevated to 30 to 40 degrees

B) Head of the bed elevated to 50 to 60 degrees

C) Head of the bed declined to 30 to 40 degrees

D) Head of the bed declined to 50 to 60 degrees

Q2) Which of the following findings would you not expect with a patient with a flail chest segment?

A) Increased elevation of chest segment during inspiration

B) Instability of the chest wall

C) Chest depression over segment during inspiration

D) Asynchronous movement of the chest wall

Q3) While working with a patient,the patient begins to experience deterioration in level of consciousness,pupillary reflexes,ocular reflexes,pattern of respiration,and exaggerated muscle tone and posture.What do you suspect is occurring with this patient?

A) Fatigue from therapy session

B) Cerebral edema with increased intracranial pressure

C) Myocardial infarction

D) Hemorrhage

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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications

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Q1) In what manner is a cardiac dysrhythmia in the presence of respiratory failure and absence of cardiac disease usually managed?

A) Use of Swan-Ganz catheter

B) Mechanical ventilation

C) Electrocardiographic monitoring

D) Correction of blood-gas abnormalities

Q2) Which of the following are common signs of fluid retention with prolonged mechanical ventilation?

A) Systemic edema, weight gain, increased pulmonary compliance, and reduced oxygen transport

B) Pulmonary edema, weight gain, increased pulmonary compliance, and reduced oxygen transport

C) Pulmonary edema, weight gain, decreased pulmonary compliance, and reduced oxygen transport

D) Systemic edema, weight loss, decreased pulmonary compliance, and reduced oxygen transport

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38

Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns

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Q1) How does chest physical therapy differ in neonates and infants compared with children ages 2 years and older in terms of primary goals?

A) CPT in neonates includes improving airway clearance and emphasizes muscles of respiration.

B) CPT in children includes improving airway clearance and improving ventilation and the efficiency of breathing.

C) There are no differences.

D) CPT in children should only include airway clearance.

Q2) Which intervention would be the most appropriate in treating a patient with muscular dystrophy who experiences nocturnal hypoventilation?

A) Vibration of right lower lobe segments

B) Postural drainage before sleep

C) Continuous positive airway pressure

D) Teaching deep breathing, coughing

Q3) How is the diaphragm of a newborn different than that of an adult?

A) The diaphragm of a newborn has fewer type II muscle fibers.

B) The diaphragm of a newborn has fewer type I muscle fibers.

C) The diaphragm of a newborn has more type I muscle fibers.

D) The diaphragm of a newborn has more type III muscle fibers.

Page 39

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Chapter 38: The Aging Patient

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chest wall stiffness comes with many related factors,which include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) a decrease in intervertebral disk height.

B) an increase in medial to lateral chest width.

C) changes in the rib to vertebrae articulations.

D) costal cartilage calcification.

Q2) Diastolic changes to the heart that occur with aging include which of the following?

A) Prolonged myocardial relaxation

B) Decreases in filling pressures of older men with increased age

C) Increases in peak left ventricular diastolic filling rate in older men

D) Decreases in ventricular stiffness.

Q3) Increases in functional capacity are seen in young elderly patients who demonstrated which of the following variables?

A) Were younger in age

B) Had a shorter length of training

C) Started with a lower VO max before training

D) Had a shorter duration of training sessions

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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired

Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control

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Q1) Why is pectus excavatum is the end result of continued function of the upper respiratory and diaphragm breathing?

A) The abdominal pressure is greater than that of the thoracic pressure because of the strength of the abdominals and weakness of the intercostals.

B) The pull of the upper respiratory accessory muscles is unopposed.

C) The intercostal do not sufficiently oppose the pull of the negative pressure in the thorax, causing a collapse.

D) The pull of the diaphragm is less than that of the intercostals.

Q2) The inefficiency of the diaphragm in patients with lung disease,who have greater pressure in the thoracic cavity than in the abdominal cavity,stems from which of the following?

A) The inability of the diaphragm to rebound into the thoracic cavity because of increased pressure

B) The inability of the diaphragm to overcome pressure in the abdomen

C) The ability of the intercostals to maintain greater pressure in the thoracic cavity

D) The ability of the abdominals to overcome the pressure created in the abdomen.

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41

Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is important to know about heart rate transplant patients when sitting up these patient for the first time?

A) An overcompensation of the orthostatic hypertension response

B) No orthostatic hypotension response

C) Slower changes in heat rate and stroke volume

D) Faster changes in heart rate and stroke volume

Q2) What type of medication is often used after transplant surgery for the lung patient to ensure proper function of the lungs?

A) Vitamins and supplements

B) Diuretics

C) Antipsychotics

D) Paralytics

Q3) Which of the following is not a risk factor for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A) Respiratory failure

B) Pulmonary function results

C) Lung pathology

D) Development of COPD

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Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community

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Q1) To increase functional gains made during therapy,the rehabilitation team should perform which of the following?

A) Encourage the patient during therapy to work as hard as possible.

B) Help the patient complete tasks even if patient effort is minimal.

C) Incorporate therapy goals into all aspects of care.

D) Set goals that just out of reach to help the patient strive.

Q2) When considering patient education about returning home,the therapist should gain understanding of which of the following?

A) The caregiver and patient's ability to interpret the medication schedule

B) The therapist's ability to monitor the patient's signs and symptoms in response to activity

C) The validity and reliability of the therapist's assessments

D) The patient's ability to determine the need for emergency services

Q3) The pulse oximeter is a used to evaluate oxygen saturation of which of the following?

A) Arterial blood

B) Venous blood

C) Capillary blood

D) Heart rate

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Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients

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Q1) Which occupations account for more than half of the annual prevalence of low back pain among health care personnel?

A) Physicians and laboratory technicians

B) Anesthesiologists and dentists

C) Nurses and therapists

D) Paramedics and ambulance drivers

Q2) Which term describes the counting and identifying of technical attachments?

A) Cord count

B) Tube index

C) Foley record

D) Line measurement

Q3) How do upright postures create a challenge to breathing?

A) By adding the component of balance

B) By increasing the effect of gravity on rib expansion

C) By narrowing airways

D) By decreasing heart rate

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Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which location is included in the scope of a respiratory therapist?

A) Hospitals

B) Long-term care

C) Patients' homes

D) All of the above

Q2) Which oxygen delivery method is most helpful for patients with obstructive sleep apnea?

A) Liquid oxygen

B) Partial rebreathing mask

C) CPAP

D) Heliox

Q3) Which term refers to breathing through a ventilator circuit without assistance?

A) Intermittent mandatory ventilation

B) Spontaneous breathing

C) Controlled mechanical ventilation

D) Assist control of ventilation

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Chapter

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Q1) Which airway device is a speaking valve that allows inspiration only and forces exhalation through the upper airway?

A) Olympic tracheostomy button

B) Passy-Muir valve

C) Montgomery T tube

D) None of the above

Q2) Which is a purpose for an artificial airway?

A) To bypass upper airway obstruction

B) To assist or control respirations over prolonged periods

C) To prevent aspiration of oral and gastric secretions

D) All of the above

Q3) Which complication of tracheostomy can occur immediately because of laceration of the mediastinal pleura?

A) Air embolism

B) Pneumothorax

C) Subcutaneous emphysema

D) Aspiration

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Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is a cardioselective -adrenergic blocking drug?

A) Metoprolol

B) Ephedrine

C) Doxazosin

D) All of the above

Q2) Which of the following is controlled primarily by the parasympathetic nervous system?

A) Increasing heart rate

B) Increasing ventilation capacity

C) Blood pressure elevation

D) Digestion

Q3) Which is a possible side effect of epinephrine?

A) Anxiety

B) Headache

C) Palpitations

D) All of the above

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