Rehabilitation Sciences
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Rehabilitation Sciences is an interdisciplinary field focused on the study of methods and principles for restoring function and improving quality of life in individuals affected by physical, cognitive, or sensory impairments. The course covers foundational knowledge in anatomy, physiology, and pathology, as well as assessment techniques, intervention strategies, and evidence-based practices used in rehabilitation settings. Students explore topics such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech and language rehabilitation, and the psychosocial aspects of disability and recovery, preparing them for roles in clinical practice, research, and public health initiatives aimed at promoting health and functional independence across diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 7th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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26 Chapters
512 Verified Questions
512 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Part of a preseason screening program for high school athletes includes testing the stability of the glenohumeral and scapulothoracic joints.If you identify an athlete with signs of shoulder instability but has no activity limitations or participation restrictions, you might suggest an exercise program designed to prevent or reduce the risk of injury during the season.This is an example of what type of prevention?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Indirect
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not a prerequisite for motor skill acquisition and retention?
A)Augmented feedback
B)Understanding the task or goal
C)Being able to activate the motor system
D)Being able to retrieve motor memories over time
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, Health, and Wellness
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Perceived Wellness Survey (PWS) and the Model of Healthy Living Assessment Wheel were developed from models of wellness and various initiatives to improve the health and wellness of society as advocated by the Healthy People 2020 program.Which of the following best describes these tools?
A)They are complex and require special training to administer and interpret.
B)They have no clinical relevance to the role of physical therapy and are intended to be anecdotal for the public.
C)If used as part of the examination and history taking during the initial visit, they could provide a baseline to establish goals and report outcomes when incorporating wellness into physical therapy practice.
D)They were program assessments that were used to evaluate the success of the Healthy People 2010 program and to improve the subsequent initiative, Healthy People 2020.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) During active ROM exercises, which of the following structures is most elongated with full active extension and ulnar deviation of the wrist if the fingers remain relaxed?
A)Flexor carpi ulnaris
B)Flexor carpi radialis
C)Flexor digitorum profundus
D)Flexor digitorum superficialis
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following best describes ROM exercises?
A)Functional excursion of a muscle
B)Passive or active stretching exercise beyond the available range of movement
C)Active muscle insufficiency
D)Passive, assisted, or active movement of a body segment through the available range of motion
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Stretching for Improved Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about a muscle's response to immobilization?
A)When a muscle is immobilized for a period of time, atrophy occurs more rapidly and extensively in fast-twitch fibers than in slow-twitch fibers.
B)As the immobilized muscle atrophies, an increase in fibrous and fatty tissue in the muscle occurs.
C)Atrophy of an immobilized muscle will begin after the first 30 days of inactivity, resulting in contractile weakness.
D)A muscle immobilized in a shortened position will have an increased ability to produce maximum tension at its resting length because of sarcomere absorption.
Q2) You are teaching a client total-body relaxation techniques as part of a pain management program.Each of the following is an indicator of relaxation except:
A)Flat facial expression.
B)Lowered heart and respiratory rates.
C)Decreased skin temperature in the extremities.
D)Decreased muscle tension evidenced by relaxed jaw and hands.
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Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following techniques combines the application of sustained accessory joint movements by a therapist and active end-range physiological movements performed by the patient?
A)Manipulative thrust techniques
B)Facilitative mobilization techniques
C)Muscle energy techniques
D)Mobilization with movement techniques
Q2) Mobilizations to increase extension of the wrist include all the following except:
A)Stabilize the trapezium-trapezoid unit and volar glide the scaphoid.
B)Stabilize the lunate and volar glide the capitate.
C)Stabilize the radius and volar glide the lunate.
D)Stabilize the scaphoid and volar glide the radius.
Q3) To determine the point of tissue resistance and how sensitive a joint is, you would use which of the following grades of sustained mobilization?
A)Grade I
B)Grade II
C)Grade III
D)Grade IV
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Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding isokinetic exercise?
A)Joint compressive forces increase with increased velocity of exercise.
B)Load is dependent on the velocity of limb movement through the arc of motion.
C)Slow-velocity training is more appropriate for carryover to functional activities than medium and fast velocities.
D)Depending on the type of isokinetic dynamometer used, the rate of limb movement may range from 0° to 500° per minute.
Q2) A patient has mild joint swelling and pain during active ROM, but resisted tests of the muscles that cross the swollen joints do not cause pain.Your goal is to maintain or possibly increase strength through the available ROM.The most appropriate choice of exercise is:
A)Muscle setting exercises at the end of the ROM.
B)High-velocity isokinetic exercise.
C)Multiple-angle isometric exercise against resistance.
D)Eccentric/concentric, closed-chain exercise against body weight throughout the ROM.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a correct statement about maximum heart rate and exercise heart rate?
A)The most accurate method of determining maximum heart rate is by using the formula 220 minus age.
B)Karvonen's formula (heart rate reserve) is used to determine maximum heart rate.
C)If a young or middle-aged individual is carefully screened and has been jogging or running for some time, it is appropriate to use the results of a submaximal field test to determine maximum heart rate.
D)Individuals with cardiopulmonary disease should have a target exercise heart rate of at least 70% of their maximum heart rate.
Q2) A stress test should be terminated if:
A)There is a significant drop in systolic blood pressure in response to an increasing workload.
B)Cheeks become flushed.
C)Blood pressure increases 7 to 10 mm Hg per MET of physical activity.
D)Respiratory rate and depth increase without shortness of breath.
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9
Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important neural structures for the integration and processing of sensory information for balance control are:
A)Basal ganglia, primary motor area, and cerebellum.
B)Basal ganglia, thalamus, and supplementary motor area.
C)Supplementary motor area, cerebellum, and basal ganglia.
D)Supplementary motor area, cerebellum, and thalamus.
Q2) During an examination of a patient who has a history of episodic falls, you observe the patient performing functional tasks to determine how she loses her balance.You note that the patient becomes unsteady whenever she picks up objects from the floor or reaches for objects in a kitchen cupboard.These findings most likely indicate a control deficit in:
A)Anticipatory balance.
B)Reactive balance.
C)Static balance.
D)Sensory organization.
Q3) The Romberg Test measures:
A)Anticipatory balance control.
B)Reactive balance control.
C)Static balance control.
D)Dynamic balance control.
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Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dynamics of circulation may be affected by immersing a body part in deep water because of the effects of:
A)Viscosity.
B)Laminar flow.
C)Buoyancy.
D)Hydrostatic pressure.
Q2) Increasing the amount of resistance to limb movement in water can be achieved by:
A)Increasing agitation, moving the limb closer to the surface of the water, moving the limb quickly.
B)Moving the limb further from the surface of the water, moving the limb quickly, and using a device to increase the effective limb volume.
C)Decreasing water temperature, moving the limb further from the surface of the water, slowing limb movement.
D)Moving the limb quickly, increasing water temperature, agitating the water.
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11
Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury, Repair, and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transient or intermittent pain that occurs during the chronic stage of soft tissue healing is best relieved by:
A)Stretching and strengthening the healing tissues.
B)Applying cold.
C)Applying heat and massage.
D)Resting.
Q2) Muscle guarding is best treated by:
A)Applying modalities and then massaging the muscle.
B)Identifying and treating the cause of the guarding.
C)Gentle muscle setting exercises with the muscle in a shortened position.
D)Massaging the muscle.
Q3) Which of the following stages of soft tissue healing is characterized by remodeling and maturation of collagen in the scar?
A)Chronic stage
B)Early subacute stage
C)Late subacute stage
D)Acute stage
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12
Chapter 11: Joint, Connective Tissue, and Bone Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has osteoarthritis of the left hip and states he experiences hip and thigh pain after walking for more than 20 to 30 minutes.As a therapist, which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for you to recommend?
A)A period of complete rest or immobility
B)Application of heat and massage after periods of walking
C)Measures to decrease the mechanical stresses on the hip joint, such as use of a cane when walking over an extended period of time
D)Use of anti-inflammatory medication
Q2) A balance of bone resorption that equals bone replacement occurs normally during growth and development until peak bone mass is reached.This typically occurs:
A)At about age 18 for females and 21 for males.
B)During the third decade of life.
C)At puberty.
D)During the sixth decade of life.
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a relative or absolute contraindication for use of total joint replacement arthroplasty except:
A)Severe loss of bone stock.
B)Active systemic infection or infection in the joint.
C)Significant paralysis of the muscles surrounding the joint.
D)Significant joint deformity.
Q2) You are part of a team presenting a preoperative education program for a group of patients scheduled to undergo total knee or hip replacement during the next month at a large medical center where you are employed.As a therapist, you most likely would be responsible for presenting information on each of the following topics except:
A)An explanation and demonstration of exercises a patient is expected to do the day of or after surgery.
B)An explanation of early postoperative precautions, such as weight-bearing restrictions or safe and unsafe positioning.
C)An explanation of the administration of postoperative pain medication, such as patient-controlled analgesics.
D)Use of assistive devices, such as a walker or crutches, for early ambulation.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonoperative management of carpal tunnel syndrome emphasizes:
A)Vigorous stretching to gain mobility of the structures in the carpal tunnel.
B)Activity modification and joint, nerve, and tendon mobilization.
C)Strengthening exercises, especially to the muscles of the thenar eminence.
D)Immobilization.
Q2) Your patient sustained a traumatic injury to his shoulder 3 weeks ago.You have been treating him because of decreased shoulder ROM and strength and general lack of functional reaching and overhead use of the upper extremity.Today he reports that he has been experiencing increased pain, swelling, and stiffness of his hand.What can you conclude?
A)These signs are the result of a thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS); begin treating this region as well.
B)The patient is possibly developing complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS); treatment should be initiated to reduce swelling, maintain range, and increase use of the hand.
C)These signs are a normal reaction to trauma; it is important to tell the patient he is engaging in too much activity.
D)These are signs of a possible clot; immediately send him to the emergency room.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, Function, and Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are generally true of the nucleus pulposus except:
A)It is the axis of motion for the functional units of the spine.
B)It takes on and/or releases water in response to compressive loads.
C)It is centrally aligned within the annulus fibrosis at all levels of the spine to provide uniform shock absorption.
D)It is covered superiorly and inferiorly by a cartilaginous end-plate.
Q2) Motion at a functional unit of the spine is defined by what is occurring with the:
A)Anterior portion of the body of the superior vertebrae.
B)Anterior portion of the body of the inferior vertebrae.
C)Spinous process of the superior vertebrae.
D)Spinous process of the inferior vertebrae.
Q3) The difference between a lordotic posture and a slouched posture is:
A)Only the lordotic posture has lumbar lordosis.
B)Flexion in both the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine occurs with the slouched posture.
C)Extension of the pelvis on the femurs occurs with the lordotic posture.
D)There is no difference; both affect the pelvis and lumbar spine the same way.
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Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has signs of an acute lumbar intervertebral disk protrusion.On testing, he experiences decreased symptoms when applying manual traction.To use mechanical traction effectively as part of the treatment plan during the early stages:
A)Use sustained traction for 20 minutes with a dosage of at least 50% of the body weight.
B)Use intermittent traction for 20 minutes with a dosage of at least 50% of the body weight.
C)Use sustained traction for less than 10 minutes with a dosage of at least 50% of the body weight.
D)Use intermittent traction for less than 15 minutes with a dosage of less than 50% of the body weight.
Q2) All resistive flexion and extension activities and exercises are contraindicated when there is an acute disk lesion because:
A)They cause increased pain.
B)They cause swelling of the nucleus against pain-sensitive structures.
C)They increase the intradiscal pressure.
D)Resisted extension is all right-but not flexion because it increases the bulge.
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Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To effectively apply a manipulation technique to improve cervical flexion, you would:
A)Position the patient supine with knees flexed and her arms at her side and use a two-thumb contact on the spinous process while pressing in a caudal direction.
B)Stand on one side of the patient with your body facing caudally and contact the cervical pillar on that side with the second metacarpal phalangeal joint and apply a caudally directed force.
C)Position the patient prone and use a two-thumb contact on the transverse processes of the superior restricted segment of the three-joint complex and apply a caudally directed force.
D)Position the patient prone and apply force through the thumbs to slide the superior vertebra in a cephalad-anterior direction.
Q2) The first step in training a patient with spinal stabilization techniques should be:
A)Performing posterior pelvic tilt followed by alternating arm and leg motions.
B)Developing muscular endurance prior to strength.
C)Teaching awareness of safe spinal motions and functional position.
D)Developing control of extremity motions while in the functional position.
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Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) After closed reduction of an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint, which of the following is the safest and most effective procedure to increase mobility of the joint for external rotation of the shoulder?
A)With the shoulder in the resting position, apply a grade II distraction of the humerus.
B)With the shoulder in the resting position, apply a grade III anterior glide of the humerus.
C)With the shoulder placed at the end of the available range of external rotation, apply a grade III anterior glide of the humerus.
D)With the shoulder in the resting position, externally rotate the shoulder and apply a grade III distraction of the humerus.
Q2) Muscles that typically are shortened in patients with increased thoracic kyphosis; forward head; and protracted, forward tilted scapula are the:
A)Teres major and minor, subscapularis, infraspinatus, and triceps.
B)Pectoralis major and minor, latissimus dorsi, infraspinatus, and teres minor.
C)Pectoralis major, teres major and minor, and serratus anterior.
D)Pectoralis minor, subscapularis, and levator scapulae.
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Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a period of continuous immobilization of the elbow is required after trauma or surgery, the elbow often is positioned in only a moderate amount of flexion (20° to 30°) rather than 90° of flexion.This position is selected to:
A)Decrease the risk of ulnar neuropathy from compression of the ulnar nerve in the cubital tunnel.
B)Decrease the risk of radial neuropathy from compression of the radial nerve in the cubital tunnel.
C)Decrease the risk of median nerve neuropathy from compression in the cubital tunnel.
D)Decrease the risk of overstretching the lateral collateral ligament complex of the elbow that could cause posterior translation of the radial head.
Q2) Your goal is to increase end-range elbow flexion using joint-mobilization techniques.Which of the following techniques is appropriate?
A)Stabilize the distal humerus and apply a proximal glide of the ulna
B)Apply a valgus stress at the elbow
C)Stabilize the humerus and apply a dorsal glide to the head of the radius
D)Stabilize the distal humerus and apply an ulnar (lateral) glide of the ulna
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Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true regarding management of the patient with RA of the hands except:
A)Progressive resistance exercise is contraindicated so long as there are signs of inflammation.
B)Principles of joint protection and energy conservation are integral components of patient education to reduce deforming forces on involved joints and reduce excessive fatigue.
C)Application of an orthosis should be avoided in the rheumatoid hand because it promotes loss of joint mobility.
D)With MP joint deformities, forceful pinch and grip exercises are contraindicated.
Q2) You are evaluating a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) of the hand and wrist.You notice several deformities, including hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints and flexion of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of digits 2, 3, and 4.This deformity is called:
A)Swan-neck deformity.
B)Heberden's deformity.
C)Boutonnière deformity.
D)Saddleback deformity.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an elderly patient, which of the following types of hip fracture is managed most often with hemireplacement of the hip (hemiarthroplasty)?
A)Noncomminuted intertrochanteric fracture
B)Displaced subcapital (intracapsular) fracture
C)Unstable subtrochanteric fracture
D)Hemiarthroplasty is equally indicated for intracapsular and extracapsular fractures.
Q2) The term hybrid total hip arthroplasty refers to a(n):
A)Hip replacement with a cemented femoral component and a noncemented acetabular component.
B)Total hip replacement that is all metal.
C)Alternate term for bipolar hemiarthroplasty of the hip.
D)Alternate term for minimally invasive arthroplasty.
Q3) Recent advances in arthroscopy of the hip now allow all of the following procedures to be performed using this less invasive technique except:
A)Microfracture to stimulate fibrocartilage growth.
B)Acetabular labral repair.
C)Resurfacing arthroplasty.
D)Capsulorrhaphy for capsular laxity.
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Chapter 21: The Knee
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Q1) Each of the following is true about patellar tendon versus hamstring tendon autografts for ACL reconstruction except:
A)A longer healing time and a more slowly progressed rehabilitation program are required with a hamstring tendon graft than with a patellar tendon graft.
B)A patellar tendon graft is most appropriate for the skeletally immature patient.
C)Anterior knee pain and difficulty kneeling are somewhat frequent complications with a patellar tendon graft but not with a hamstring tendon graft.
D)A patellar tendon graft involves bone-to-bone fixation, whereas a hamstring tendon graft involves tendon-to-bone fixation.
Q2) The primary value of a patient performing quadriceps setting exercises when the knee is immobilized in a long leg cast for an extended period of time is to:
A)Strengthen the quadriceps muscle.
B)Maintain mobility of the patella.
C)Stretch the anterior portion of the knee capsule.
D)Prevent a knee extension contracture.
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Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Q1) Which of the following special tests may be used to confirm or rule out a rupture of the Achilles tendon during a patient's physical examination?
A)Thompson test
B)Anterior drawer of the ankle
C)Talar tilt test
D)Test for Homan's sign
Q2) Which one of the following ligaments of the ankle is most frequently stressed with an inversion sprain?
A)Posterior talofibular
B)Anterior talofibular
C)Calcaneofibular
D)Deltoid
Q3) Your patient has RA and is complaining of pain in her ankles and feet when walking.You observe her gait and notice short steps and poor push-off.This is consistent with what deformity in RA?
A)Everted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
B)Inverted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
C)Everted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
D)Inverted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Q1) Contraindications to the use of plyometrics include all of the following except:
A)Individuals under 10 years or over 70 years.
B)Painful joints.
C)Acute inflammation.
D)Unstable joints.
Q2) Each of the following describes the concept and/or mechanism of plyometrics except:
A)High-velocity eccentric to concentric muscle loading.
B)Stretch-strengthening drills.
C)Stretch-lengthening drills.
D)Reactive neuromuscular training.
Q3) For an individual to be able to execute functional activities, it is necessary to have the ability to maintain the position of the body in equilibrium within the environment.This state of equilibrium is called:
A)Power.
B)Endurance.
C)Postural stability.
D)Strength.
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25
Chapter 24: Exercise in the Older Adult
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Q1) The Wellness Aging Model Related to Illness, Injury, and Mobility (WAMI-3) exemplifies the concept that physical activity and exercise add life to years.All of the following behaviors will produce a leftward shift on the WAMI-3 indicating a decline in function except:
A)Bed rest.
B)Early mobilization.
C)Hypokinesis.
D)Osteoporosis.
Q2) Which of the following is a consideration when designing aerobic exercise programs for an older adult population?
A)Aerobic exercise is contraindicated after age 80 unless it is performed in water.
B)Maximum heart rate is age-related and decreases with age.
C)Blood pressure decreases because of increased peripheral vascular resistance.
D)Heart rate increases, resulting in greater cardiac stroke volume.
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Chapter 25: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Which of the following activities should be used initially to correct a diastasis recti postpartum?
A)Have the patient lie supine, arms at sides, and do a partial sit-up (until scapulae clear the surface).
B)Have the patient lie supine, arms across the abdomen, and perform leg lowering from a 90° position.
C)Have the patient lie supine, arms across the abdomen, and perform head lifts.
D)Have the patient avoid all abdominal exercises until the diastasis corrects itself.
Q2) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to participating in an exercise program during pregnancy?
A)Diastasis recti
B)Gestational diabetes
C)Maternal type 1 diabetes
D)Obesity
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Chapter 26: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Axillary web syndrome is a relatively common condition that develops after treatment for breast cancer.It is recognized by which of the following signs and symptoms?
A)A feeling of heaviness in the upper extremity during active flexion and adduction, indicating the initial sign of lymphedema
B)Muscle guarding and tenderness of the cervical muscles with fibrosis of the sternocleidomastoid muscle limiting ROM of the neck
C)Cording of the lymphatic vessels from the axilla to the antecubital space and/or forearm restricting shoulder mobility
D)Weakness of the serratus anterior after lymph node dissection resulting from surgical damage to the long thoracic nerve
Q2) The purpose of the lymphatic system is to collect and transport fluid from the:
A)Lungs to the venous system.
B)Interstitial spaces to the venous system.
C)Interstitial spaces to the kidneys.
D)Interstitial spaces to the blood capillaries.
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