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Rehabilitation Sciences in Cardiopulmonary Disorders
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles and practices of rehabilitation in individuals with cardiopulmonary disorders, focusing on the assessment, management, and therapeutic interventions aimed at improving cardiovascular and respiratory function. Students will gain an understanding of the pathophysiology of common cardiopulmonary conditions, as well as evidence-based strategies for physical rehabilitation, exercise prescription, patient education, and long-term health promotion. Emphasis is placed on multidisciplinary approaches, clinical decision-making, and the role of rehabilitation professionals in enhancing quality of life and functional independence among affected populations.
Recommended Textbook
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition by Donna Frownfelter
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45 Chapters
861 Verified Questions
861 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1316
2
Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing Contemporary Physical
Therapy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) As with ischemic heart disease,risk factors for high blood pressure consist of nonmodifiable and modifiable risk factors.Modifiable risk factors include:
A) alcohol consumption and reduced physical activity.
B) alcohol consumption and age.
C) obesity and age.
D) obesity and race.
Answer: A
Q2) Lifestyle-related conditions can no longer be considered adult conditions or age related because children with sedentary lifestyles,low activity levels,and poor nutrition are manifesting lifestyle-related conditions earlier than previous generations and are expected to:
A) die prematurely from them but still have longer life expectancies than their parents.
B) have less morbidity associated with these conditions throughout their lives.
C) have fewer age-related conditions and add more years to their lives.
D) die prematurely from them and have shorter life expectancies than their parents.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the following equation,CO = SV ¥ HR,a change in preload would translate into an initial modification in which variable?
A) Cardiac output
B) Heart rate
C) Stroke volume
D) Myocardial contractility
Answer: C
Q2) What is the minimum intracellular oxygen pressure needed to support metabolism?
A) 5 mm Hg
B) 3 mm Hg
C) 23 mm Hg
D) 15 mm Hg
Answer: B
Q3) What is the normal hematocrit value for men?
A) 38%
B) 40%
C) 42%
D) 44%
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phrenic nerve passes through the diaphragm along with the inferior vena cava.Both of these structures pierce the diaphragm and create which opening?
A) Vena caval opening
B) Esophageal opening
C) Aortic opening
D) Lymphatic opening
Answer: A
Q2) The accessory action of the serratus anterior muscles is said to be:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) both inspiration and expiration.
D) neither inspiration nor expiration.
Answer: A
Q3) Identify the structures that carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart to the lungs.
A) Pulmonary arteries
B) Systemic arteries
C) Pulmonary veins
D) Systemic veins
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve,a shift in the curve to the left results in decreased oxygen affinity and a greater dissociation of oxygen and hemoglobin.What condition might have this effect on the curve?
A) Working skeletal muscle
B) Emphysema
C) Polycythemia
D) None of the above
Q2) During active respiration,the thorax enlarges as the diaphragm contracts,creating a pressure change in the thorax.For the lungs to expand,the tissue must be:
A) healthy.
B) compliant.
C) rigid.
D) fibrous.
Q3) The period of time in the cardiac cycle when the ventricles fill with blood is known as:
A) ventricular systole.
B) ventricular isovolumic.
C) ventricular diastole.
D) ventricular ejection.
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can present during an asthma attack EXCEPT:
A) chest tightness.
B) the expiratory phase of breathing is prolonged.
C) breath sounds diminish with progressive hyperinflation.
D) the inspiratory phase of breathing is prolonged.
Q2) In patients with moderate COPD,the pulmonary function tests usually result in a predicted FEV /FVC ratio of ____ and FEV of ____:
A) <40%, 60%
B) <50%, 80%
C) <70%, 50% to 80%
D) <70% and 30% to 40%
Q3) What condition results in hemodynamic maladaptations,stiff central arteries,cardiac hypertrophy,and blood pressure variability?
A) Athletic heart syndrome
B) Systemic hypertension
C) Obstructive lung disease
D) Pulmonary hypertension
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heart and lungs should be seen as a continuous system in as much as changes in one will ultimately affect the other.If the right side of the heart falters in operation,it could result in increased pressure and create a condition known as:
A) right heart failure.
B) pulmonary failure.
C) left heart failure.
D) pulmonary hypertension.
Q2) Patients with Parkinson disease are typically have increased muscle tone and subsequent rigidity.As part of a planned program of intervention,the physical therapist should consider which of the following?
A) Program of general muscle strengthening
B) Program of cardiovascular endurance training
C) Program of stretching and tone reduction activities
D) Program of tone reduction and thoracic mobility activities
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8
Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principle is not a consideration regarding performing tests and measures?
A) Care must be taken to use procedures that can be replicated for future comparisons.
B) Measures should be made with a subjective and open mind.
C) Documenting the conditions in which a measure was made is also important.
D) In clinics where more than one therapist is likely to evaluate or treat a patient, written procedures for performing measurements are needed.
Q2) Which is true regarding validity?
A) Measurements are always reliable and valid.
B) Measurements provide meaningful information and accurately reflect the characteristic for which the measure is intended.
C) Concurrent validity is when a measurement accurately reflects measurements made outside of an accepted standard.
D) Measurements with predictive validity can be used to only estimate the probability of occurrence of a past event.
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9
Chapter 8: History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true regarding wheezing?
A) Wheezing in cardiac patients is a manifestation of widened airways and thickened bronchial walls as a result of pulmonary edema.
B) Is commonly caused by laryngotracheal narrowing from a tracheostomy scar, trauma of intubation, laryngeal paralysis, epiglottitis, or tumors.
C) It's de ned as shortness of breath at rest but not during exertion.
D) If rst reported in patients older than the age of 40 years, is often related to heart failure.
Q2) Which is not a basic cause of dyspnea?
A) An abnormality in the ventilatory system itself
B) An increase in the work of breathing
C) A decrease in the work of breathing
D) An increased awareness of normal breathing
Q3) Which is not phase of the couch mechanism?
A) Compressive phase
B) Inspiratory phase
C) Expansive phase
D) Expiratory phase
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can occur when the dead space of the lungs increases?
A) A larger percentage of the tidal volume is ventilating the dead space, leaving a smaller percentage for alveolar ventilation.
B) The patient does not have to work as hard to fill the alveoli.
C) There is better lung perfusion.
D) Patient fatigue lessens.
Q2) Which is not true regarding lung capacities?
A) Lung capacity is all of the lung volumes added together.
B) Total lung capacity (TLC) is the amount of gas the lung contains at the end of a maximum inspiration.
C) Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum amount of gas that can be expelled from the lungs by forceful effort after a maximum inspiration.
D) Inspiration capacity (IC) is the maximum amount of air that can be inspired when starting at the resting expiratory level.
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11
Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes cyanosis?
A) An abnormal acid-base balance in which the acids dominate
B) The presence of a bluish color to the skin, mucous membranes, and nail beds
C) An abnormal acid-base balance in which the bases dominate
D) An inability of the kidneys to excrete the normal metabolic acids
Q2) What are the normal values of the partial pressure of oxygen?
A) 80 to 100 mm Hg
B) 60 to 80 mm Hg
C) 20 to 40 mm Hg
D) 100 to 120 mm Hg
Q3) What is the purpose of hemoglobin?
A) It is crucial for oxygen transport.
B) It is crucial for carbon dioxide transport.
C) It is crucial for H CO transport.
D) It is unable to cross the capillary membrane.
Q4) What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere?
A) 79%
B) 10%
C) 20.9%
D) 100%
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging technique is used to measure conditions that affect blood flow?
A) Radiography
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Radionuclide ventilation-perfusion scan
Q2) Which of the following is considered the standard views for chest radiographs?
A) A superoanterior (PA) and a left lateral view
B) A posteroanterior (PA) and a left lateral view
C) A posteroanterior (PA) and a right lateral view
D) A superoanterior (PA) and a right lateral view
Q3) What general anatomy should be identified in a chest radiograph?
A) Spine, sternum, and pelvis
B) Mediastinum and great vessels
C) Heart and esophagus
D) Main bronchi and femoral artery
Q4) When assessing the skeleton on a chest radiograph,what should you look for?
A) Facet joint alignment
B) Sacroiliac alignment
C) Stenosis
D) Fractures
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ECG that shows both positive and negative deflections of the QRS complex from the baseline would be likely showing:
A) PVCs occurring at regular intervals.
B) bigeminy.
C) a multifocal PVC.
D) disruption of the P wave.
Q2) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC)may occur at regular intervals in an established pattern.Which of the following is the result of this occurring every other beat?
A) Bigeminy
B) Trigeminy
C) Quadrigeminy
D) Couplet
Q3) Which of the following causes the plateau phase during repolarization?
A) Outward flow of K ions is balanced by an inward flow of Ca² ions.
B) Influx of Na ions is much slower than Ca² ions.
C) K pumps are inactive after depolarization.
D) The amount of Na ions on both sides of the membrane are balanced at this point of the action potential.
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14
Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a normal total cholesterol level for a man younger than the age of 40 years?
A) 50 mg/dL
B) 100 mg/dL
C) 150 mg/dL
D) 300 mg/dL
Q2) Which product of the adrenal glands inhibits the action of insulin and thus the uptake of glucose by cells?
A) Dopamine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Norepinephrine
Q3) What is a normal hemoglobin value for a man?
A) 10 g/dL
B) 15 g/dL
C) 20 g/dL
D) 25 g/dL
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Chapter 14: Special Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not one of the three basic components of a radionuclide imaging system?
A) Radiopharmaceutical agent
B) Radiation detector or camera
C) Computer
D) Surgical scalpels and sutures
Q2) What is the normal range for left ventricular ejection fractions?
A) <40%
B) 35% to 50%
C) 50% to 85%
D) >85%
Q3) Which of the following is primarily used to assess the extent of regurgitant jets across "leaky valves?"
A) Color-flow Doppler echocardiography
B) Computed tomography
C) Cardiac ventriculography
D) PET scan
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Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the Cardiovascular
and Pulmonary
Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tone derived from mediate percussion describes a high-pitched,medium-duration tone heard over hollow structures such as the stomach?
A) Tympanic
B) Flat
C) Dull
D) Resonant
Q2) Which area of the chest will assist the therapist in auscultation of the tricuspid valve?
A) Second intercostal space at the right sternal border
B) Second intercostal space at the left sternal border
C) Fourth and fifth intercostal space at the left sternal border
D) Cardiac apex, fifth intercostal space, and midclavicular line
Q3) Which adventitious breath sounds are described as discontinuous,low-pitched sounds?
A) Crackles
B) Rhonchi
C) Wheezes
D) Whistles
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Chapter 16: Monitoring Systems, catheters, and Devices in the Intensive Care Unit
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A) Decreased peripheral blood pressure
B) Changes in consciousness
C) Pallor and skin dryness
D) Hyporeflexia
Q2) Which of the following factors contribute to an individual's overall stress,leading to possible complication in the form of acute distress disorder?
A) Pain management
B) Length of ICU stay
C) ICU experience
D) All of the above
Q3) If a patient's chest tube becomes dislodged during mobilization,what is the appropriate protocol for a physical therapist?
A) Attempt to replace the tube immediately before notifying a nurse.
B) Monitor the patient's pulse and breathing after notifying a nurse.
C) Apply immediate compression to the site and notify a nurse.
D) Keep the site clean and clear of linens or other objects while notifying a nurse.
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Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an
Individuals Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering that clinical decision making is based largely on the results of tests and measurements,it is essential that:
A) measurements need not have certain characteristics.
B) measurements can be adjusted to fit the therapist's needs.
C) measurements can fall under various different categories.
D) measurements have certain characteristics.
Q2) The physical therapist has a major role in preventing infections of all types but:
A) respiratory infections.
B) renal infections.
C) cardiopulmonary infections.
D) blood infections.
Q3) Clinical reasoning is the process of critically analyzing the patient's status with respect to the individual's:
A) environmental context.
B) psychological context.
C) cultural context.
D) all of the above.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment, evaluation,
and Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hospitalized patients whose oxygen transport capacity is reduced or threatened tend to be:
A) hypermetabolic
B) hypometabolic
C) catabolic
D) dehydrated
Q2) The goal of mobilization is to:
A) enable the patient to return home and go back to work.
B) exploit the acute effects of exercise to optimize oxygen transport.
C) lower the metabolic demand on a patient.
D) to optimize gravitational stress.
Q3) Metabolic costs increase with illness and injury as a result of:
A) insurance coverage.
B) the length of the hospital stay.
C) severity of the injury.
D) healing and repair.
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Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Body positions that simulate the normal physiological effects of gravity and position change on oxygen transport are:
A) the clinical priority.
B) the patient's objective.
C) the principles for prescribing therapeutic body positioning.
D) the specific indications for body positioning.
Q2) Side-lying increases end-diastolic ventricular pressure on the dependent side secondary to compression of the viscera beneath the diaphragm and to:
A) atelectasis formation.
B) central pneumothorax lesion.
C) increased lung compliance on that side.
D) reduced lung compliance on that side.
Q3) The head-down position augments oxygen transport in some patients by:
A) improving pulmonary mechanics.
B) inhibiting pulmonary mechanics.
C) improving cardiac mechanics.
D) inhibiting cardiac mechanics.
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21
Chapter 20: Body Positioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exercise has many positive effects on the body; in a study by Oldenberg,exercise was shown to increase:
A) alveolar filling time.
B) mucociliary transport in patients with chronic bronchitis.
C) completion of the oxygen transport chain.
D) mucociliary dysfunction in patients with chronic bronchitis.
Q2) All of the following refer to bronchial hygiene techniques EXCEPT:
A) chest physical therapy.
B) tracheal tapping.
C) bronchial drainage.
D) chest physiotherapy.
Q3) Vibration is applied throughout exhalation concurrent with:
A) slight compression to the chest wall.
B) mild compression to the chest wall.
C) significant compression to the chest wall.
D) maximal compression to the chest wall.
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Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) In selecting a technique,the effectiveness of the technique is measured both ________ and _______
A) intrinsically, extrinsically
B) initially, terminally
C) practically, functionally
D) subjectively, objectively
Q2) A breathing technique that uses expiratory airflow to mobilize bronchial secretions is:
A) automatic drainage.
B) breathing control.
C) autogenic drainage.
D) controlled drainage.
Q3) The aim of loosening retained secretions by the use of percussion is so that:
A) they can be sent to the laboratory for culturing.
B) they may be removed by suctioning or expectoration.
C) they can be picked up and removed by the lymphatic system.
D) they may be redirected through collateral circulation.
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Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with emphysema have overdistended lungs and:
A) difficulty in exhalation.
B) difficulty in inhalation.
C) difficulty in mobilization.
D) difficulty clearing their airway.
Q2) Deficiencies in glottal openings and expulsion are often related to:
A) brain injuries and coordination difficulties.
B) muscle injuries coordination difficulties.
C) skeletal injuries and movement.
D) spinal cord injuries and mobilization difficulties.
Q3) The most effective assistive-cough technique for the widest cross-section of patients with:
A) musculoskeletal disorders.
B) chest wall muscle weakness.
C) neurologic disorders.
D) cardiovascular disorders.
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24
Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's subjective feeling of shortness of breath is known as:
A) eupnea.
B) hyperpnea.
C) dyspnea.
D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
Q2) All of the following are significant ventilatory movement strategies for patients with spinal cord injuries EXCEPT:
A) pair trunk flexion activities with exhalation.
B) pair upward eye gaze with inspiration.
C) pair downward eye gaze with exhalation.
D) pair trunk flexion activities with inspiration.
Q3) Individuals with breathing impairments (whether primary or secondary in origin)require interventions aimed at optimizing ventilation an improving:
A) oxygen consumption.
B) oxygen delivery.
C) oxygen diffusion.
D) oxygen supply.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Over the past 20 years,heart transplant had become an accepted therapy for:
A) end-stage heart failure.
B) multivalve failure.
C) conduction blocks.
D) increasing ejection fractions.
Q2) Chronic heart failure is usually hallmarked by:
A) right ventricular dysfunction.
B) left ventricular dysfunction.
C) upper ventricular dysfunction.
D) lower ventricular dysfunction.
Q3) Prevention and rehabilitation programs are aimed at reducing an individual's cardiac risk factors.All of the following are factors that can change from participation EXCEPT:
A) age.
B) smoking.
C) blood pressure.
D) cholesterol level.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) The exercise limitations of individuals with connective tissue conditions result in part from the restrictive component associated with which of the following body systems?
A) Pulmonary
B) Circulatory
C) Muscular
D) Neurologic
Q2) Compared with the general population,what two things are more common in persons with Down syndrome?
A) Cardiac defects and sleep apnea
B) Cardiac defects and diabetes
C) Pulmonary dysfunction and sleep apnea
D) Pulmonary dysfunction and anemia
Q3) Exercise is central to the prevention and management of osteopenia and osteoporosis; _________ activities are beneficial for osteogenesis.
A) anaerobic
B) aerobic
C) non-weight-bearing
D) weight-bearing
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respiratory muscle weakness is not frequently observed in patients with:
A) asthma.
B) chronic bronchitis.
C) acute respiratory failure.
D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Q2) Inspiratory and expiratory training enhances the:
A) respiratory muscle in patients with Parkinson disease.
B) neuromuscular junction in patients with neuromuscular disease (NMD).
C) respiratory muscle performance in patients with chronic heart failure (CAD).
D) respiratory muscle performance in patients with neuromuscular disease (NMD).
Q3) Inspiratory muscles are mainly involved in:
A) repetitive contractions with high-intensity training strategies.
B) repetitive contractions with low-intensity training strategies.
C) repetitive contractions with high intensity and endurance.
D) repetitive contractions with low intensity and endurance.
Q4) About 75% to 80% of patients who are mechanically ventilated can be:
A) expected to have respiratory muscle dysfunction.
B) weaned to breath spontaneously without difficulty.
C) expected to have poorer prognoses.
D) weaned to breath spontaneously but with much difficulty.
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Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As
Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions
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Q1) Craniosacral therapy is a:
A) form of hands-on therapy with the goal being to enhance relaxation and emotional awareness
B) manual therapy that uses light touch to balance energy flow, partly by balancing the flow of cerebral spinal fluid during its circulation around the meninges of the cranium and down the spinal column
C) manipulation of tissue through the skin with the intention of bringing about a change in the present condition of the mind/body
D) belief that illness and disease result from vertebral misalignment and regular manipulation can maintain energy flow to organs and the body/mind
Q2) Complementary and alternative medical (CAM)therapies alter the mechanics of the:
A) musculoskeletal pump of the thorax
B) cardiopulmonary system
C) nervous system
D) spinal cord
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Chapter 28: Patient Education
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Q1) The graduate physical therapist is required to be able to:
A) determine the effectiveness of patient education.
B) formulate and prioritize goals.
C) effectively educate others using culturally appropriate teaching methods that are commensurate with the needs of the learner.
D) determine what concepts are pertinent to patient education.
Q2) Twentieth century behavioral scientists developed a variety of:
A) learning theories and models that try to explain the complexities of human behavior.
B) health care contracts to implement patient education objectives.
C) learning needs assessments.
D) self-efficacy techniques in order to enhance patient education.
Q3) Self-efficacy is:
A) believing in one's ability to achieve a certain level of performance.
B) one way to help in implementing the behavior-modification approach.
C) a way to make a positive change in an individual's or group's health behaviors.
D) the most important aspect of planning for patient education.
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Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions
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Q1) You have been consulted to evaluate and treat a patient in the cardiac step-down unit.The patient is 2 days post acute myocardial infarction.Upon meeting the patient,you assess the vital signs and objectively get the following measures: blood pressure (BP),134/65 mm Hg; heart rate (HR),99 beats/min; and pulse oximeter reading,98%.Which of the following treatment decisions would be MOST appropriate?
A) Ten minutes of ambulation in the hallway with a HR of 119 beats/min
B) Ten minutes of biking with a HR of 135 beats/min
C) Ten minutes of running on treadmill with a HR of 165 beats/min
D) All of the above are contraindicated
Q2) All of the following are true with regard to chronic bronchitis EXCEPT:
A) chronic bronchitis is common in smokers.
B) chronic bronchitis can be diagnosed after 1 year.
C) chronic bronchitis occurs in the presence of decreased functional cilia.
D) chronic bronchitis is characterized by tenacious, purulent sputum.
Q3) All of the following statements about cystic fibrosis are true EXCEPT:
A) cystic fibrosis is only genetic in origin.
B) lung involvement is the only clinical manifestation.
C) cystic fibrosis can result in hyperinflation of the chest.
D) chronic staphylococcal infections accompany cystic fibrosis.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are consulted on a patient after resection of the right lung for treatment of lung cancer.The patient has had no postoperative precautions,but you wish to implement treatment plans that will sustain alveolar inflation and functional residual capacity.According to the textbook,_______________________ is/are the most appropriate course of action to achieve these goals.
A) placing the patient in a recumbent position
B) maximal inspiratory maneuvers alone
C) mobilization and position changes
D) forced coughing
Q2) All of the following are goals of immediate extubation after surgery EXCEPT:
A) maximize lung capacity.
B) decrease functional residual capacity.
C) increase cough effectiveness.
D) optimize alveolar ventilation.
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE regarding the typical pattern of breathing after surgery?
A) Spontaneous deep breaths are normal.
B) Tachypnea and tachycardia are rare.
C) Breath sounds are decreased and lung bases.
D) Mucus is not heard typically on auscultation.
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Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Bronchiectasis is:
A) characterized by dilation and anatomic distortion of the airways.
B) rarely a side effect of chronic lung infections.
C) associated with autoimmune diseases.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE about coronary artery disease (CAD)?
A) CAD is associated with depression.
B) CAD is worsened by mental stress.
C) CAD is typically seen in people with type B personalities.
D) CAD is associated with increased morbidity.
Q3) The goal of physical therapy with a patient with valve dysfunction is to:
A) optimize oxygen transport.
B) decrease quality of life.
C) increase work of the heart.
D) provide long doses of exercise.
Q4) Where are primary lung tumors typically found?
A) Near the carina
B) In the posterior lower lobes
C) In the upper lobes
D) In the trachea
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Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a principle symptom of systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)?
A) Arthralgic stiffness
B) Myalgic stiffness
C) Fatigue
D) All of the above are symptoms
Q2) In the case of cerebral palsy (CP),which of the following would be the MOST appropriate education to provide parents?
A) The importance of assisting with changes in position
B) The necessity of ambulation at all cost
C) The possibly risks and signs of aspiration
D) a and c
Q3) You are treating a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS).Your patient presents with poor airway management and increased secretions.Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate treatment intervention to consider?
A) Body positioning and postural drainage
B) Maximal aerobic exercise in a warm environment
C) Regimented intensity and duration of strengthening exercises
D) Incentive spirometry
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit
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Q1) When establishing treatment goals for an ICU patient,what information is necessary for the physical therapist to consider?
A) State of patient arousal
B) Acid-base imbalances
C) Balance of electrolytes
D) All of the above
Q2) Which monitoring system give the therapist information of fluid loading and the ability of the right side of the heart to cope with changes in circulating body fluids?
A) Central venous pressure
B) Swan-Ganz catheter
C) ECG
D) Cardiovascular stress alert
Q3) What might be the cause for apparent impairment of neuromuscular status in a patient in the ICU?
A) Increased cardiac output
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Decreased intracranial pressure
D) Hypercapnia
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Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) While treating a patient with obstructive lung disease,what complicating factor(s)might you expect to find?
A) Rigid barrel-shaped chest wall
B) Decreased oxygen consumption
C) Decreased work of the heart
D) Effective cough mechanism
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)?
A) Promotes venous return
B) Maintains airway patency during spontaneous ventilation
C) Improves myocardial perfusion
D) Promotes greater opportunity for gas exchange
Q3) What intervention should the therapist concentrate on during a session of physical therapy with the cardiac patient including a short period of restricted mobility?
A) Aggressive coughing exercises
B) Positioning with the foot of the bed elevated
C) Rhythmic breathing exercises
D) Bed exercises while moving bilateral lower extremities at the same time.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following does not contribute to impaired mucociliary transport and secretion accumulation?
A) Bronchospasm
B) Increased airway diameter
C) Impaired mobility
D) Inability to cough effectively
Q2) Which of the following body positions will reduce respiratory distress to the greatest extent in a patient with neuromuscular dysfunction?
A) Supine in bed with the feet elevated
B) Sitting in bed with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees
C) Upright and leaning forward
D) Sitting in a chair at the bedside
Q3) Which of the following findings would you not expect with a patient with a flail chest segment?
A) Increased elevation of chest segment during inspiration
B) Instability of the chest wall
C) Chest depression over segment during inspiration
D) Asynchronous movement of the chest wall
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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications
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Q1) What mineral losses are most commonly associated with severe alkalemia?
A) Sodium and potassium
B) Sodium and chloride
C) Potassium and chloride
D) Potassium and calcium
Q2) Which of the following is not a cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) Insult to the lung and injury of the alveolar-capillary membrane
B) Inhaled toxins
C) Shock
D) Overwhelming pneumonia
Q3) Which of the following methods would not reduce the risk of infection with use of a mechanical ventilator?
A) Drain condensation from the hose toward the ventilator.
B) Use a mask and gloves when connecting the patient to the ventilator.
C) Do not directly handle ventilator attachments that communicate with air flow channels.
D) Avoid draining condensation from the hose toward the patient.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns
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Q1) Which of the following is not a common trigger for asthma symptoms and exacerbations?
A) Weight loss
B) Allergens
C) Tobacco smoke
D) Extreme temperatures
Q2) Which of the following is a risk factor for transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTNB)?
A) Female sex
B) Birth weight less than 4000 g
C) Cesarean section delivery
D) Paternal asthma
Q3) Which of the following interventions for infants and children with a tracheostomy who have been intubated for long periods of time vibration of which lung segments?
A) Right lung, upper lobe segments
B) Right lung, lower lobe segments
C) Left lung, upper lobe segments
D) Left lung, lower lobe segments
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Page 39
Chapter 38: The Aging Patient
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Q1) Chest wall stiffness comes with many related factors,which include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) a decrease in intervertebral disk height.
B) an increase in medial to lateral chest width.
C) changes in the rib to vertebrae articulations.
D) costal cartilage calcification.
Q2) Which of the following is not a suspected mechanism of VO max reduction?
A) Decrease in maximum heart rate
B) Decrease in cardiac output
C) Decrease in blood pressure
D) Decrease in stroke volume
Q3) Although the improvements in increasing VO max in elderly people are not clear,which of one the following is consistent?
A) Improvement in thoracic mobility leading to better O saturation with lung expansion
B) Greater extraction of oxygen caused by wider arteriovenous oxygen content
C) Decreases in O demands in the peripheral muscles
D) An increase in maximum heart rate
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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired
Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control
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Q1) The primary muscles involved in the soda can model of respiratory and postural control include which group?
A) Pectorals, upper trapezius, abdominals and gluteals
B) Intercostals, scalenes, lower abdominals, and back extensors
C) Diaphragm, scalenes, pectorals, and lower abdominals
D) Back extensors, abdominals, diaphragm, and intercostals
Q2) Changes to the child's thorax from 3 to 6 months of age include which of the following?
A) A more rectangular shape because of strengthening of the lower abdominals
B) A more rectangular shape because of strengthening of the anterior chest wall and intercostals
C) Development of slight concave configuration to the thorax
D) Breathing maintained in one plane of motion
Q3) The soda can model of respiratory and postural control outlines the needs for which of the following organ systems?
A) Skeletal supports for a weakened muscular system
B) Muscular support for poor development of organ systems
C) Muscular support for an incapable skeletal frame
D) Skeletal support for an incapable respiratory system
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Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient
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Q1) What is the primary need of heart transplant in children younger than the age of 1 year?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Mitral valve prolapse
D) Congenital abnormalities
Q2) What is the most common diagnosis referred for lung transplant?
A) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B) COPD
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
Q3) Which of the following is not a risk factor for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
A) Respiratory failure
B) Pulmonary function results
C) Lung pathology
D) Development of COPD
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Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community
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Q1) What is the definition of optimal health or function?
A) How the patient's health and function is related to his or her personal circumstances
B) Completion of a rehabilitation program
C) Limitations of third-party payers
D) Decisions made by the health care team supporting the patient to discontinue treatment
Q2) How can a patient best carry out an effective plan?
A) The patient is taught to identify problems and manage them.
B) The patient is given a list of exercises to complete each day.
C) The patient is placed in a skilled nursing facility to begin rehabilitation.
D) The caregivers request the patient be place at home because of the previous independent status at home.
Q3) Which of the following is a priority among impairments found during the recovery of an episode of cardiac or pulmonary issues according to the text?
A) Ineffective sleep
B) Nonemergent breathing problems
C) Nutritional concerns
D) Pain
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43
Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients
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Q1) Which patient position limits the effect of gravity on anterior expansion of the lungs?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Hook-lying
D) Prone
Q2) When standing,where is the body's approximate center of gravity?
A) Near 35% of the body's total height from the ground
B) Near 55% of the body's total height from the ground
C) Near the heart
D) Near the diaphragm
Q3) Which position is generally best for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Hook-lying
D) Prone
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Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review
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Q1) Which device is most commonly used with high-flow oxygen systems?
A) Partial rebreathing mask
B) Nonrebreathing mask
C) Venturi mask
D) Transtracheal oxygen catheter
Q2) When may humidification therapy be indicated?
A) In the presence of thick, tenacious secretions
B) When an endotracheal tube is in place
C) When a tracheostomy tube is in place
D) All of the above
Q3) Which aspect of a patient is especially important to evaluate when a nasal cannula is used?
A) Skin integrity
B) Blood pressure
C) Thirst and appetite
D) Sleeping patterns
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Chapter
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Q1) Which method of airway clearance is most hazardous to health care professionals?
A) Mucociliary escalator
B) The cough reflex
C) Suctioning
D) A cough machine
Q2) Which complication of tracheostomy can occur immediately because of laceration of the mediastinal pleura?
A) Air embolism
B) Pneumothorax
C) Subcutaneous emphysema
D) Aspiration
Q3) Which term refers to the removal of an artificial airway?
A) Decannulation
B) Intubation
C) Excision
D) Tracheostomy
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Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions
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Q1) Which can be inhaled to liquefy mucus?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Mucolytics
C) Anticholinergics
D) All of the above
Q2) Which is a possible side effect of epinephrine?
A) Anxiety
B) Headache
C) Palpitations
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is controlled primarily by the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) Increasing heart rate
B) Increasing ventilation capacity
C) Blood pressure elevation
D) Digestion
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