Rehabilitation Sciences Final Exam
Course Introduction
Rehabilitation Sciences is an interdisciplinary field focused on the study, development, and application of strategies to restore optimal function and quality of life to individuals experiencing physical, cognitive, or sensory impairments. The course covers foundational concepts in anatomy, physiology, movement science, and evidence-based practices, as well as exploring innovative rehabilitation interventions and technologies. Students learn to assess patient needs, develop individualized treatment plans, and collaborate in multidisciplinary teams to promote recovery, participation, and community integration for people across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 7th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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26 Chapters
512 Verified Questions
512 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During several physical therapy sessions, a patient you have been treating for low back pain learned how to perform pelvic tilt exercises in several positions (supine, sitting, quadruped, standing).With continued practice at home, your patient is now able to perform extremity movements while maintaining a stable pelvic position.This represents which stage of motor learning?
A)Cognitive
B)Continuous
C)Associative
D)Autonomous
Answer: D
Q2) The body systems react, adapt, and develop in response to forces and physical stresses placed on them.All of the following stresses help the body to develop and maintain a functional level of strength except:
A)Gravity.
B)Weight-bearing.
C)Therapeutic exercise.
D)Bed rest.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Prevention, Health, and Wellness
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the target audience for a program of physical activity designed for primary prevention of childhood obesity?
A)A group of morbidly obese children who have been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
B)A group of mildly obese children who are identified as being "at risk" for type 2 diabetes
C)A group of mildly obese children
D)A group of sedentary children whose weight is within normal limits
Answer: D
Q2) Non-communicable chronic diseases are the primary cause of death and illness in the United States (US).The top four chronic conditions in the US in terms of mortality include all of the following except:
A)Cardiovascular disease
B)Diabetes
C)Obesity
D)Chronic respiratory disease
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are treating a patient who sustained an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint.When it is permissible for the patient to begin self-assisted or active ROM of the involved shoulder within pain-free ranges, which of the following exercises places the most stress on the anterior aspect of the capsule at the end range of external rotation, therefore posing the greatest risk of re-dislocating the involved shoulder?
A)Wand exercises while lying in the supine position with both shoulders abducted to 90° (upper arms supported on the treatment table) and both elbows flexed to 90°
B)Wand exercises while sitting in a chair or standing, both arms at the patient's sides and elbows flexed to 90°
C)Self-assisted shoulder ROM guided manually by the sound hand while lying on the sound side and the involved upper arm resting on a pillow placed alongside the chest and the elbow flexed to 90°
D)Self-assisted shoulder ROM guided manually by the sound hand while the patient is lying in the supine position on a treatment table and the involved arm is at the patient's side, resting on a pillow in slight abduction and flexion and the elbow is flexed to 90°
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Stretching for Improved Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following descriptions of stretching procedures performed for several repetitions during a single treatment session and repeated over a series of stretching sessions represents the safest and most comfortable process to achieve soft tissue lengthening?
A)In an end-range position, apply several high-intensity, rapid-velocity stretch forces.
B)Slowly apply a low-load force; maintain the end-range position for an extended time period and release the stretch force slowly.
C)Apply an end-range, high-load force slowly, maintain the end-range stretch for an extended time period, and release the stretch quickly.
D)In an end-range position, apply several low-intensity, rapid-velocity stretch forces.
Q2) You are teaching a client total-body relaxation techniques as part of a pain management program.Each of the following is an indicator of relaxation except:
A)Flat facial expression.
B)Lowered heart and respiratory rates.
C)Decreased skin temperature in the extremities.
D)Decreased muscle tension evidenced by relaxed jaw and hands.
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6
Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true about joint mobilization/manipulation techniques except:
A)Techniques can be applied using gliding or oscillation techniques that involve low or high amplitudes and velocities.
B)Techniques involve the application of accessory joint movements but not physiological movements.
C)They are appropriate to use if a joint is painful or inflamed to decrease or inhibit the perception of pain.
D)Techniques can be applied to restore or maintain joint play.
Q2) To increase radial adduction of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb:
A)Glide the base of the first metacarpal in an ulnar direction on the trapezium.
B)Glide the base of the first metacarpal dorsally on the trapezium.
C)Glide the base of the first metacarpal radially on the trapezium.
D)Glide the base of the first metacarpal in a volar direction on the trapezium.
Q3) A normal accessory joint movement that occurs with roll is:
A)Sliding.
B)Swing.
C)Distraction.
D)Compression.
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7
Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are having a patient perform manual resistance exercise in a PNF pattern, specifically the D flexion pattern for the upper extremity.As the patient flexes the shoulder and brings the arm overhead against your resistance, what other muscle groups at the shoulder are being strengthened?
A)Abductors and external rotators
B)Adductors and external rotators
C)Abductors and internal rotators
D)Adductors and internal rotators
Q2) Which of the following forms of resistance training is most appropriate for a 9-year-old child with weakness of the elbow musculature as the result of an elbow sprain, followed by several weeks of elbow immobilization combined with daily active (nonresisted) ROM?
A)High-load, low-repetition biceps curls on equipment specifically designed to adjust to a child's body proportions
B)Low-load, high-repetition biceps curls on equipment usually used by the adult patient population
C)Supervised exercise by unlicensed support personnel
D)Underhand bilateral toss of a weighted ball
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Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) As part of a circuit weight training program, your patient performs 2 sets of 10 repetitions of biceps curls at 70% of a 1 repetition maximum (RM), resting briefly between sets.Which of the following energy systems is primarily being used?
A)Phosphagen system
B)Anaerobic-glycolytic system
C)Aerobic system
D)ATP-PC (adenosine triphosphate-phosphocreatine) system
Q2) A patient referred to you in your home-health practice needs to spend the next 8 weeks on bed rest because of complications of pregnancy.You design an exercise program to reduce the adverse effects of prolonged bed rest.Which of the following is least likely to occur as the result of deconditioning from prolonged bed rest?
A)Loss of muscle mass
B)Orthostatic hypotension
C)Decreased bone mineral density
D)Laxity of ligaments
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Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The semicircular canals of the vestibular system would contribute the most to balance control during which of the following activities?
A)Standing and quickly turning the head to look at a person
B)Sitting in a chair reading a newspaper
C)Standing on a bus that suddenly accelerates forward
D)Standing on an elevator that suddenly accelerates downward
Q2) While testing a patient's balance, you have the patient perform a series of activities, starting with those that require a low level of balance control and progressing to more difficult tasks.Of the following, the task that requires the greatest amount of balance control is:
A)Catching and throwing a ball while sitting.
B)Raising the opposite arm and leg while in the quadruped position.
C)Walking with one foot placed in front of the other.
D)While standing, balancing on one leg for 10 seconds.
Q3) The Romberg Test measures:
A)Anticipatory balance control.
B)Reactive balance control.
C)Static balance control.
D)Dynamic balance control.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient has lower extremity edema, which of the following principles associated with hydrotherapy (an aquatic environment) will assist with decreasing the edema?
A)Viscosity
B)Buoyancy
C)Surface tension
D)Hydrostatic pressure
Q2) Which of the following is true of pools used for aquatic therapy?
A)Ventilation is not necessary for installation of a self-contained, individual pool in your clinic.
B)Therapeutic pools should not have a depth that exceeds 6 feet because of safety requirements in case of a medical emergency.
C)One disadvantage of a self-contained individual pool is the inability to incorporate a treadmill.
D)Built-in filtration systems are available in both therapeutic pools and self-contained pools.
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Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury, Repair, and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you determine that chronic irritation and inflammation of scar tissue are the sources of progressive restriction and pain:
A)Strengthening exercises are the only intervention that can resolve the patient's problems.
B)Inflammation must be treated before stretching is initiated.
C)The pain will decrease after stretching exercises are implemented.
D)The scar must be stretched vigorously to regain ROM.
Q2) Your examination of a patient who sustained a soft tissue injury reveals that she experiences pain only at the end of the available ROM when you apply overpressure.Based on this finding, which of the following would be the most appropriate technique to include in the treatment plan to decrease the patient's pain?
A)Immobilize and rest the painful structures
B)Grades I and II joint distraction or gliding techniques
C)End-range joint or muscle stretching techniques to increase the mobility of the tight structures
D)Progressive resistance exercises to work through the pain
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Chapter 11: Joint, Connective Tissue, and Bone Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a characteristic of osteoarthritis except:
A)It typically affects only a few joints.
B)Onset typically is sudden in patients older than 40 years of age.
C)There is no evidence of systemic symptoms.
D)It can affect the spine or small or large joints of the extremities.
Q2) The articular cartilage of a synovial joint is most susceptible to damage from stress:
A)During low-impact exercise performed on a regular basis.
B)During early weight-bearing exercises after soft tissue surgery.
C)During passive stretching procedures.
D)Immediately following a period of prolonged joint immobilization.
Q3) A therapist's role in diagnosing arthritic conditions is to:
A)Identify the underlying pathological process and inform the physician.
B)Order laboratory tests or radiological imaging that may confirm or rule out the diagnosis.
C)Determine the type of arthritis that is causing the patient's symptoms.
D)Identify impairments, such as the pattern and extent of range of motion (ROM) and joint mobility limitations, contributing to a patient's activity limitations and participation restrictions.
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synovectomy, when used, typically is indicated for:
A)Long-standing osteoarthritis.
B)Tear of a joint capsule as the result of trauma.
C)Rheumatoid arthritis.
D)Postimmobilization arthritis.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A)It may occur in the greater saphenous veins.
B)It is most common in the deep arterial system of the calf muscles.
C)It usually resolves without complication if the patient is active.
D)It may result in a pulmonary embolism if undetected.
Q3) All of the following are signs and symptoms your patient may exhibit that would alert you to a possible pulmonary embolism except:
A)Sudden onset of dyspnea.
B)Chest pain alleviated with deep breathing and rib compression.
C)Rapid, shallow breathing.
D)Diaphoresis with minimal activity.
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Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient complains of numbness in the hand and forearm whenever working for prolonged periods at the computer; the hand also develops a puffy sensation and occasionally turns blue.Adson's maneuver reproduces these symptoms.All of the following should directly help your patient with this problem and will be part of your treatment approach for TOS except:
A)Stretch the scalene muscles.
B)Teach posture correction.
C)Teach relaxed diaphragmatic breathing.
D)Apply mechanical traction at 20 lb for 20 minutes.
Q2) The chronic phase of recovery following nerve injury occurs when:
A)The patient has significant residual effects from lack of regeneration and must learn to compensate for lost function.
B)The nerve is regenerating, and strength and sensory recovery are emphasized in the rehabilitation program.
C)Innervation is complete and emphasis is placed on retraining and re-education.
D)The surrounding connective tissue can withstand normal tensile stresses, and the patient can return to all functional activities.
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Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, Function, and Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient describes increased pain in the back in the morning before getting out of bed.The patient should be:
A)Advised never to sleep prone.
B)Evaluated for sleeping posture and advised in mechanically safe adaptations.
C)Advised to sleep in a recliner or with a pillow under her knees to accentuate hip flexion.
D)Advised to place a board under a soft mattress.
Q2) Which of the following best describes scoliosis?
A)A transverse plane deviation of the vertebrae usually involving the thoracic and lumbar regions
B)A lateral curvature of the spine wherein rotation of the vertebral bodies is toward the convexity of the curve
C)An irreversible lateral curvature with fixed rotation of the vertebrae caused by lordotic posture
D)A collapse of intervertebral space resulting from weakness of the deep segmental muscle of the spine
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16
Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are techniques to increase temporomandibular joint (TMJ) motion except:
A)Place tongue blades between the front teeth and progressively adding more as tolerated.
B)Place your thumb and index finger against the patient's incisors or molars and press the mandible caudally.
C)Teach self-manipulation of the joints by placing dental rolls between the patient's molars and asking him to bite down while attempting to close the front teeth.
D)Instruct the patient to chew gum for at least 10 minutes, three times a day to build endurance.
Q2) Extreme caution should be used when manipulating the spine of patients with rheumatoid arthritis.There is high potential for subluxation of the vertebrae and damage to the spinal cord secondary to:
A)Ligamentous necrosis.
B)Joint effusion.
C)Synovial hypertrophy.
D)Pain.
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Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient to be able to learn good body mechanics for lifting:
A)The abdominal muscles must be strong enough to maintain a posterior pelvic tilt.
B)The patient must be able to maintain a neutral spinal posture against the force being lifted.
C)The spine needs to be braced in extension by the trunk muscles.
D)Emphasis should be placed on strengthening the lower extremity musculature, not the spinal musculature.
Q2) Positional traction is used to:
A)Allow the patient to relax the musculature and therefore get greater separation of the vertebrae.
B)Isolate a passive distraction stretch to a specific facet.
C)Substitute for mechanical traction when a traction unit is not available.
D)Apply traction when the therapist is not strong enough to apply a sufficient amount of manual traction.
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Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient exhibits a forward head posture and excessive thoracic kyphosis.Considering the muscles that typically are weak with this faulty posture, which of the following muscles of the shoulder girdle are most important to strengthen?
A)Pectoralis minor and levator scapulae
B)Serratus anterior and levator scapulae
C)Upper and lower trapezius and serratus anterior
D)Upper and lower trapezius and pectoralis minor
Q2) Each of the following is a true statement about rehabilitation following dislocation of the glenohumeral joint except:
A)After an initial dislocation and a course of nonoperative management, recurrence of a dislocation is higher in older patients (greater than 40 years of age) than in younger patients (less than 30 years of age).
B)Anterior dislocation is far more common than posterior dislocation.
C)A compression fracture of the posterolateral margin of the humeral head is an associated lesion that may occur as the result of a traumatic anterior dislocation.
D)A fall on the arm when it is positioned in flexion, adduction, and internal rotation can result in a posterior dislocation.
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Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tennis elbow may involve all of the following structures except the:
A)Extensor carpi radialis brevis.
B)Extensor communis.
C)Pronator teres.
D)Annular ligament.
Q2) You are educating your patient about returning to functional activities following a radial head resection with an implant.What should you tell her about returning to high-demand, high-impact activities?
A)Avoid these activities on a permanent basis.
B)Because she had a radial head implant, she may return to these activities after 6 months.
C)She may return to heavy lifting after 6 months, but not high-impact (tennis or golf) activities because of the ballistic force these activities create.
D)She should have had a TEA if she wanted to return to these activities.
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20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a relative or absolute contraindication for wrist arthroplasty despite debilitating pain in the wrist region and diminished hand and upper extremity function from advanced arthritis?
A)Significant, arthritis-related, ipsilateral limitation of motion of joints proximal and distal of the wrist
B)Subluxation or dislocation of the radiocarpal joint
C)Previous arthritis-related arthrodesis of the opposite wrist where arthrodesis of both wrists would potentially reduce, rather than improve, function
D)The need to perform high-load, high-impact occupational tasks postoperatively
Q2) Prerequisites for successful PIP arthroplasty include all of the following except:
A)Adequate bone stock.
B)No history of chronic synovitis.
C)Intact neurovascular system.
D)Functioning flexor/extensor mechanism.
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Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term hybrid total hip arthroplasty refers to a(n):
A)Hip replacement with a cemented femoral component and a noncemented acetabular component.
B)Total hip replacement that is all metal.
C)Alternate term for bipolar hemiarthroplasty of the hip.
D)Alternate term for minimally invasive arthroplasty.
Q2) Each of the following principles is important when designing a therapeutic exercise program to correct hip muscle length/strength imbalances except:
A)When stretching the hip musculature, the spine and pelvis must be stabilized against the force.
B)Contraction of the muscle opposite the range-limiting muscle (i.e., contracting the antagonist of the tight muscle) to assist with the stretching maneuver has the benefit of training the antagonist muscle to function in any newly gained range.
C)Because of the functional demands placed on the lower extremities, it is more important to have full hip ROM than to have "normal" strength of hip musculature.
D)Strengthening exercises should include closed-chain exercises to prepare for functional activities in weight-bearing postures.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Knee
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of recurrent dislocation of the patella underwent a surgical procedure for realignment of the extensor mechanism.Considering the position of immobilization postoperatively, you would expect to find each of the following impairments when it is permissible to begin exercises except:
A)Lack of full or almost full passive knee extension.
B)Quadriceps (extensor) lag.
C)Lack of full knee flexion.
D)Weakness of the quadriceps and hamstrings.
Q2) A surgical procedure for a repair of a chondral defect of the medial femoral condyle involves the following: harvesting multiple plugs of intact articular cartilage along with some subchondral bone of the patient's own tissue from a donor site (typically a nonweight-bearing portion of the joint surface) and implanting the plugs (using a press fit) into the site forming a bone-to-bone graft.This procedure is called:
A)Autologous chondrocyte implantation.
B)Mosaicplasty.
C)Microfracture.
D)Débridement and lavage.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following special tests may be used to confirm or rule out a rupture of the Achilles tendon during a patient's physical examination?
A)Thompson test
B)Anterior drawer of the ankle
C)Talar tilt test
D)Test for Homan's sign
Q2) Your patient has RA and is complaining of pain in her ankles and feet when walking.You observe her gait and notice short steps and poor push-off.This is consistent with what deformity in RA?
A)Everted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
B)Inverted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
C)Everted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
D)Inverted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
Q3) Each of the following is an expected improvement after TAA for advanced arthritis except:
A)Increased mediolateral stability of the ankle.
B)Alleviation of pain.
C)Sufficient range of motion (ROM) of the ankle for functional activities.
D)Decreased joint deformity.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) For an individual to be able to execute functional activities, it is necessary to have the ability to maintain the position of the body in equilibrium within the environment.This state of equilibrium is called:
A)Power.
B)Endurance.
C)Postural stability.
D)Strength.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the "amortization phase" of plyometric exercises?
A)The contracting muscle reverses action from deceleration to acceleration of the load.
B)The contracting muscle reverses action from acceleration to deceleration of the load.
C)The time frame of this phase is increased as the plyometric activity is progressed.
D)The stretch reflex is activated during this phase.
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25
Chapter 24: Exercise in the Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exercise is described as planned, structured, and repetitive in nature.All of the following are examples of exercises for the older adult except:
A)Tai Chi classes.
B)Aerobic classes.
C)Fixing meals.
D)Walking with a weighted vest.
Q2) Standardized testing should be used with all patients to establish a baseline for initiation of activities.The design of an exercise program for the older adult should include performance of specific tests to measure performance levels and tolerance for activities.Which of the following will provide a measure of self-perceived intensity of exercise based on level of exertion?
A)Fracture risk assessment tool (FRAX
B)Timed-up-and-Go test (TUG)
C)Stopping Elderly Accidents, Deaths, & Injuries tool (STEADI)
D)Borg scale of perceived exertion
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Chapter 25: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common postural changes/deviations that develop or become exaggerated during pregnancy include each of the following except:
A)Decreased thoracic kyphosis.
B)Increased internal rotation of the shoulders.
C)Excessive lumbar lordosis.
D)Genu recurvatum.
Q2) Which of the following is true about testing for a diastasis recti?
A)The fingertips are placed vertically at the midline of the abdomen (parallel along the linea alba) at the level of the umbilicus to assess the size of the separation.
B)Place the heel of your hand across the abdomen and apply light compression at the level of the umbilicus and have the patient cough.
C)The test is performed with the patient in a hook-lying position and having her perform an abdominal contraction by lifting her head, shoulders, and trunk off the support surface.
D)The fingertips are placed horizontally at the midline of the abdomen (perpendicular to the linea alba) at the level of the umbilicus to assess the size of the separation.
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Chapter 26: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the severity of lymphedema from least to most severe?
A)Pitting, brawny, weeping
B)Brawny, pitting, weeping
C)Weeping, brawny, pitting
D)Pitting, weeping, brawny
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes components of a comprehensive program and related procedures for management of lymphedema?
A)Compressive bandaging or garments are worn only during rest, not during exercise.
B)During manual lymphatic drainage (massage), the proximal areas, such as the groin or axilla, are cleared of fluid before the peripheral areas.
C)Active exercises but not resistive exercises are included in the exercise program.
D)A sequential pneumatic compression pump is used as an alternative, not an adjunct, to complex decongestive therapy.
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