Rehabilitation Sciences Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Rehabilitation Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the assessment, treatment, and management of physical, cognitive, and emotional impairments to improve individuals' functional abilities and quality of life. This course covers the principles, methods, and applications of rehabilitation within diverse populations, exploring topics such as physiology of injury and recovery, therapeutic interventions, assistive technology, and policy considerations. Students will gain a foundational understanding of how rehabilitation professionals collaborate in healthcare teams and apply evidence-based practices to support patient independence and community reintegration.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 6th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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22 Chapters
359 Verified Questions
359 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Information
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ulna is where in relation to the humerus?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: D
Q2) A movement of one bone on another bone to cause an increase in joint angle is called
A) flexion.
B) extension.
C) rotation.
D) circumduction.
Answer: B
Q3) When a person grasps an overhead exercise bar and pulls it down,what type of motion is occurring at the shoulder joint?
A) Angular motion
B) Linear motion
C) Kinematic motion
D) Torque motion
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scapula is an example of which type of bone?
A) Short
B) Flat
C) Irregular
D) Sesamoid
Answer: B
Q2) The membrane that surrounds the bone and contains nerves and blood vessels is the
A) epiphysis.
B) periosteum.
C) medullary canal.
D) metaphysis.
Answer: B
Q3) The type of bone that makes up most of the appendicular skeleton is the A) irregular bone.
B) flat bone.
C) long bone.
D) sesamoid bone.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Articular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Forearm pronation occurs in which plane and around which axis?
A) Transverse plane through a transverse axis
B) Transverse plane through a vertical axis
C) Sagittal plane through a frontal axis
D) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis
Answer: B
Q2) The hip is an example of which type of joint?
A) Nonaxial
B) Uniaxial
C) Biaxial
D) Triaxial
Answer: D
Q3) The two bones of a joint are held together and supported by which of the following structures?
A) Tendon
B) Bursa
C) Ligament
D) Fibrocartilage
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Arthrokinematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motions occurring within the joint that are necessary for joint motion but are not under voluntary control are called
A) osteokinematic movement.
B) accessory movement.
C) springy block.
D) manipulation.
Q2) Hip abduction is an example of which type of motion?
A) Arthrokinematic
B) Osteokinematic
C) Angular
D) Torque
Q3) The type of arthrokinematic motion characterized by rotation of one surface on a fixed adjacent surface is called
A) roll.
B) spin.
C) glide.
D) Any of the above
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6
Chapter 5: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of muscle contraction that occurs with fixed speed,fixed resistance,and no joint motion is
A) ISOK.
B) ISOM.
C) ISOT.
D) tenodesis.
Q2) You can make a tighter fist with your wrist extended than with your wrist flexed because of
A) active insufficiency of the finger flexors.
B) active insufficiency of the finger extensors.
C) passive insufficiency of the finger flexors.
D) passive insufficiency of the finger extensors.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of an eccentric contraction?
A) Contraction produces a greater force than a concentric contraction.
B) Contraction is used as an acceleration activity.
C) Muscle attachments move farther apart.
D) Movement occurs with gravity.
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Chapter 6: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The innermost layer of the protective membrane that contains the blood vessels to the brain is the
A) dura mater.
B) subarachnoid mater.
C) pia mater.
D) ventricular mater.
Q2) A common pathology of the CNS characterized by issues with production,absorption,or flow of cerebrospinal fluid is which of the following?
A) Autonomic dysreflexia
B) Spina bifida
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Brown-Séquard's syndrome
Q3) A person experiencing "foot drop" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
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8
Chapter 7: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main branch artery that supplies blood to the knee is which of the following?
A) External iliac
B) Femoral
C) Posterior tibial
D) Popliteal
Q2) At which vertebral level does the descending aorta branch into the common iliac arteries?
A) T10
B) T12
C) L2
D) L4
Q3) Each of the following differences between a lymph vessel and a vein are accurate EXCEPT
A) lymph vessels are wider than veins.
B) lymph vessels have thicker walls than veins.
C) lymph vessels contain more valves than veins.
D) lymph vessels contain nodes.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Basic Biomechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a PTA wishes to manually resist the knee extensors for an athlete and wishes to make the exercise as difficult as possible for the client,the best placement of her hand would be which of the following?
A) Proximal to the knee joint
B) Just distal to the tibial tuberosity
C) Midpoint of the tibia
D) Just proximal to the talus
Q2) Most concentric exercises done in the body are considered to be which type of lever?
A) First class
B) Second class
C) Third class
D) Fourth class
Q3) Two forces acting in equal but opposite directions and resulting in a turning effect is called a
A) stabilizing force.
B) dislocating force.
C) moment of force.
D) force couple.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weakness of the rhomboid muscles could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Cranial nerve XI
B) Dorsal scapular nerve
C) Long thoracic nerve
D) Medial pectoral nerve
Q2) Weakness of the pectoralis minor muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Cranial nerve XI
B) Dorsal scapular nerve
C) Long thoracic nerve
D) Medial pectoral nerve
Q3) A person experiencing pain on the superior lateral aspect of the scapula may have pathology involving which of the following structures?
A) Acromion process
B) Glenoid fossa
C) Coracoid process
D) Deltoid tubercle
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11
Chapter 10: Shoulder Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can contribute to joint subluxation of the glenohumeral joint EXCEPT
A) weight of the upper extremity.
B) gravity.
C) shallow glenoid fossa.
D) strong lateral capsular ligaments.
Q2) Your next client has shoulder pain and loss of motion due to inflammation and fibrosis of the shoulder joint.The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
A) Impingement syndrome
B) Calcific tendonitis
C) Adhesive capsulitis
D) Subluxation of long head of biceps tendon
Q3) Damage to which of the following nerves could result in weakness of the deltoid muscle?
A) Radial nerve
B) Musculocutaneous nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Suprascapular nerve
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12
Chapter 11: Elbow Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Measured from the position of the forearm in neutral or midposition,which of the following is true regarding normal ROM for pronation and supination?
A) There is more supination than pronation.
B) There is more pronation than supination.
C) There are equal amounts of available pronation and supination.
D) It depends on how much elbow extension the arm is placed in to measure the motion.
Q2) The muscles that would act on the forearm to neutralize forearm supination would be which of the following muscles?
A) Triceps and pronator teres
B) Pronator teres and pronator quadratus
C) Brachialis and brachioradialis
D) Triceps and anconeus
Q3) Which muscle originates on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts on the anterior surface of the proximal radius?
A) Anconeus
B) Pronator teres
C) Pronator quadratus
D) Supinator
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Chapter 12: Wrist Joint
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ligament that attaches to the styloid process of the radius and to the scaphoid and trapezium bones is the
A) radial collateral ligament.
B) ulnar collateral ligament.
C) dorsal radiocarpal ligament.
D) interosseous membrane.
Q2) If you are instructed to work on closed-chain upper extremity activity and you have your patient stand and place her hand on a table with her fingers facing forward and rock forward to touch an object with the other hand,which motion is occurring at the wrist that is on the table?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Radial deviation
D) Ulnar deviation
Q3) Which wrist muscle is the direct antagonist of the palmaris longus?
A) Flexor carpi ulnaris
B) Extensor carpi ulnaris
C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D) Pronator quadratus
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of which of the following nerves?
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Median
D) Brachial
Q2) Which type of grip is used to pick up a coin?
A) Lumbrical grip
B) Pincer grip
C) Cylindrical grip
D) Spherical grip
Q3) The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle flexes all but which of the following joints of the fingers?
A) Distal interphalangeal joints (DIP)
B) Proximal interphalangeal joints (PIP)
C) Metacarpophalangeal joints (MCP)
D) This muscle flexes all of these joints.
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Chapter 14: Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which prime movers of the TMJ are innervated by the facial nerve?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Lateral pterygoid
D) None of the above
Q2) Which muscle originates on the styloid process of the temporal bone and inserts on the hyoid bone?
A) Geniohyoid
B) Stylohyoid
C) Sternohyoid
D) Omohyoid
Q3) Normal ROM for mouth opening in an adult would be which of the following?
A) One finger between the upper and lower teeth
B) Half a finger between the upper and lower teeth
C) Two to three fingers between the upper and lower teeth
D) Four fingers between the upper and lower teeth
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Chapter 15: Neck and Trunk
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Sample Questions
Q1) The facet joints of the lumbar spine primarily run in which plane to allow good spinal flexion and extension?
A) Frontal plane
B) Sagittal plane
C) Transverse plane
D) A and C
Q2) The erector spinae are prime movers in which of the following motions?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Lateral bend
D) B and C
Q3) Which cervical muscle,when contracted unilaterally,rotates the head to the opposite side?
A) Splenius capitis
B) Sternocleidomastoid
C) Erector spinae
D) Scalene
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Chapter 16: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) You read in a trauma patient's chart that he has rib fractures and a collapsed lung.Another term for collapsed lung is which of the following?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pneumonia
C) Pleurisy
D) Hyperventilation
Q2) Patients in hospitals will often use an instrument called an incentive spirometer to assist in fully expanding the lungs after surgery or prolonged bedrest.This has the patient focus on deep inspiration and activates all of the following muscles EXCEPT the A) diaphragm.
B) external intercostals.
C) scalenes.
D) rectus abdominis.
Q3) Quiet inspiration requires the use of which of the following?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Gravity
D) Recoil of the diaphragm
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18
Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The supporting ligament of the symphysis pubis that attaches to the pubic tubercles is the
A) sacrospinous ligament.
B) iliolumbar ligament.
C) inferior pubic ligament.
D) superior pubic ligament.
Q2) The rotation of the pelvis when the left foot begins the swing phase in gait is
A) anterior left rotation.
B) posterior left rotation.
C) anterior right rotation.
D) posterior right rotation.
Q3) The rotation of the pelvis just before the right foot begins stance phase is
A) anterior left rotation.
B) anterior right rotation.
C) posterior left rotation.
D) posterior right rotation.
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Chapter 18: Hip Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one-joint muscle extends the hip?
A) Biceps femoris
B) Semitendinosus
C) Vastus intermedialis
D) Gluteus maximus
Q2) Which muscle originates on the pubis and inserts on the medial proximal tibia?
A) Adductor longus
B) Rectus femoris
C) Adductor brevis
D) Gracilis
Q3) The pectineus is a prime mover in which hip motion?
A) Extension
B) Abduction
C) Medial rotation
D) Adduction
Q4) All of the hamstring muscles are innervated by the sciatic nerve EXCEPT the A) long head of biceps femoris.
B) short head of biceps femoris.
C) semitendinosus.
D) semimembranosus.
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Chapter 19: Knee Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle has its origin at the anterior inferior iliac spine and its insertion at the tibial tuberosity?
A) Sartorius
B) Rectus femoris
C) Vastus intermedialis
D) Vastus medialis
Q2) Which muscles are prime movers in knee extension?
A) Rectus femoris,vastus medialis,vastus lateralis
B) Biceps femoris,semitendinosus,semimembranosus
C) Vastus medialis,plantaris,vastus intermedialis
D) Semitendinosus,gluteus maximus,semimembranosus
Q3) You are asked to instruct your client in eccentric strengthening of the quadriceps.The BEST instruction would be which of the following?
A) Seated,extend the knee
B) Seated with knee extended,slowly lower the foot,flexing the knee
C) Supine with knee flexed over a bolster,extend the knee
D) Prone with knee flexed,lower foot,extending the knee
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Ankle Joint and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle has its origin on the lateral tibia and interosseus membrane and inserts on the first cuneiform and first metatarsal?
A) Anterior tibialis
B) Posterior tibialis
C) Extensor hallucis longus
D) Extensor digitorum longus
Q2) If a patient has damage to the nerve supplying the anterior compartment of the lower leg,you would expect to focus efforts on strengthening which group of muscles?
A) Ankle evertors
B) Ankle plantar flexors
C) Toe flexors
D) Ankle dorsiflexors
Q3) Which of the following would be an effective closed chain exercise for strengthening all muscles of the ankle and foot?
A) Mini squats
B) Step-ups
C) Lunges
D) All of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) In observing standing posture,you note a flattened longitudinal arch of the foot.You would document this as which of the following?
A) Pes planus
B) Pes cavus
C) Claw toe
D) Hammer toe
Q2) Postural sway is a normal phenomenon that is largely controlled by gravity and which of the following muscle groups?
A) Quadriceps and hamstrings
B) Hip extensors and flexors
C) Ankle plantar flexors and dorsiflexors
D) Ankle invertors and evertors
Q3) If your patient's treatment plan asks her to work on dynamic posture,which of the following activities would be appropriate to have your patient do?
A) Seated stationary posture at a computer station
B) Loading office supplies into a file cabinet
C) Moving files from one shelf to another in a storeroom
D) B and C
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Chapter 22: Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has a tendency to cross the unsupported limb in front of the other during swing phase.This could indicate spasticity of which of the following muscle groups?
A) Hip flexors
B) Hip adductors
C) Knee extensors
D) Ankle plantar flexors
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the changes in gait that occur with an elderly person?
A) Increased time in stance phase
B) Shorter step length
C) Decreased vertical displacement
D) All of the above are true regarding gait changes with age.
Q3) Having paralysis of the ankle dorsiflexors would cause which type of gait?
A) Steppage gait
B) Bell clapper gait
C) Sore foot limp
D) Rocking horse gait
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