Rehabilitation Science Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Rehabilitation Science is an interdisciplinary field focused on understanding, enhancing, and restoring functional abilities and quality of life for individuals experiencing physical, cognitive, or psychosocial impairments. The course covers foundational principles of human anatomy, physiology, movement science, and the psychological and social aspects of disability. Students will explore a variety of therapeutic interventions and technologies used in rehabilitation, analyze current research, and learn about the roles of interdisciplinary teams in diverse healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, patient-centered care, and ethical considerations as students prepare for careers in physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech-language pathology, and related rehabilitation professions.
Recommended Textbook
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition by Donna Frownfelter
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45 Chapters
861 Verified Questions
861 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1316 Page 2
Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing Contemporary
Physical Therapy Practice
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26194
Sample Questions
Q1) Modifiable risk factors for ischemic heart disease include increased cholesterol,increased homocysteine,smoking,inactivity,high blood pressure,weight,and:
A) diabetes and stress.
B) diabetes and osteoarthritis.
C) age and family history.
D) sex and past medical history.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements about smoking-related conditions is correct?
A) Smoking is the second leading cause of preventable death in the world, including the United States.
B) In the United States, COPD ranks second behind ischemic heart disease the leading cause of mortality.
C) Long-term smokers have lower incidences of all-cause morbidity and mortality.
D) Smoking cessation is the most cost-effective intervention for smokers with heart disease in terms of risk reduction.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26195
Sample Questions
Q1) A physical therapist places a patient in a deep water environment to assist in training after an Achilles tendon repair.The therapist notices that the patient's heart rate increase quicker than in the shallow water performing the same activities.What is a likely cause?
A) Preload
B) Afterload
C) Oxygen debt
D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q2) The movement of oxygen from the capillaries to the mitochondria is known as _________ and is regulated in part by metabolic rate,vascular resistance,and capillary recruitment.
A) oxygen transport
B) oxygen diffusion
C) oxygen convection
D) oxygen degradation
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The accessory action of the trapezius muscles is said to be:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) both inspiration and expiration.
D) neither inspiration nor expiration.
Answer: D
Q2) The root of the lung or the hilus is the area where many structures enter the lung.The mainstem bronchi,pulmonary artery,pulmonary veins,bronchial arteries and veins,and lymph vessels are located here.The hilus is opposite the vertebral level of what thoracic bodies?
A) T4 and T5
B) T5, T6, and T7
C) T6, T7, and T8
D) T6 and T7
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is known that red blood cells contain hemoglobin and that hemoglobin has an affinity for oxygen.It is also know that oxygen dissolves into the bloodstream.What factor describes why the oxygen saturation in arterial oxygenated blood not 100%?
A) The oxygen saturation curve
B) High arterial pressure
C) Coronary and pulmonary circulation
D) The brain takes oxygen first
Q2) Considering the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve,a shift in the curve to the left results in decreased oxygen affinity and a greater dissociation of oxygen and hemoglobin.What condition might have this effect on the curve?
A) Skeletal muscle at rest
B) Anemia
C) Polycythemia
D) None of the above
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6
Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition results in hemodynamic maladaptations,stiff central arteries,cardiac hypertrophy,and blood pressure variability?
A) Athletic heart syndrome
B) Systemic hypertension
C) Obstructive lung disease
D) Pulmonary hypertension
Q2) A patient recovering from cardiac surgery is at risk for developing which type of dysrhythmia?
A) Sinus tachycardia
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Conduction block
D) Atrial fibrillation
Q3) Systemic hypertension presents with:
A) stiff peripheral arteries and dilated arterioles.
B) stiff central arteries and dilated arterioles.
C) normal peripheral arteries and constricted arterioles.
D) stiff central arteries and stiff peripheral arteries.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with left-sided heart failure would likely have changes in which of the following systems?
A) Integumentary system
B) Endocrine system
C) Metabolic system
D) Lymphatic system
Q2) A physical therapist is conducting a systems review of a potential patient with a history of alcohol abuse.During the conversation,the patient reveals the onset of increasing difficulty getting cuts and nosebleeds to clot.What should the therapist do?
A) Instruct the patient to take more iron.
B) Question the patient about his or her medications.
C) Advise the patient to stop taking aspirin.
D) Consider liver dysfunction and consult with the physician.
Q3) Pleural fluid accumulations and effusion of the thorax can lead to which of the following conditions?
A) Atelectasis
B) Decreased hydrostatic pressure
C) Increased oncotic pressure
D) Starling deficit
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Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true regarding validity?
A) Measurements are always reliable and valid.
B) Measurements provide meaningful information and accurately reflect the characteristic for which the measure is intended.
C) Concurrent validity is when a measurement accurately reflects measurements made outside of an accepted standard.
D) Measurements with predictive validity can be used to only estimate the probability of occurrence of a past event.
Q2) Which of the following is true?
A) When deciding whether a measurement is a ratio or interval, the attribute that is being measured is irrelevant.
B) Interval measurements can only have negative values and cannot be subjected to some arithmetic operations.
C) For a measurement to be of value to a therapist, the measure should be both reliable (reproducible) and valid (meaningful).
D) Categorical measurements are considered ordinal if being assigned to multiple categories.
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9
Chapter 8: History
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the measurement of the internal surface of the lungs?
A) 50 to 100 m³
B) 100 to 150 m³
C) 10 to 50 m³
D) 500 to 1000 m³
Q2) Which is not phase of the couch mechanism?
A) Compressive phase
B) Inspiratory phase
C) Expansive phase
D) Expiratory phase
Q3) Which best describes orthopnea?
A) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the recumbent position
B) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the sitting position
C) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the standing position
D) Dyspnea that occurs when the patient is in the inverted position
Q4) Which of the following would cause an abnormality in the ventilator pump?
A) Kyphoscoliosis
B) Large pleural effusions
C) Phrenic nerve injuries
D) All of the above
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true regarding total lung capacity (TLC)?
A) TLC is the amount of gas the lung contains at the end of a maximum inspiration.
B) A decrease in TLC may be seen in restrictive lung disease, such as pulmonary brosis.
C) It is made up of inspiration capacity (IC) and functional residual capacity (FRC).
D) An increase in TLC may be seen in atelectasis, neoplasms, pleural effusions, and hemothorax.
Q2) Which best describes an obstructive condition of the lungs?
A) A condition that limits the amount of volume coming into the lungs
B) A condition that increases air volume coming into the lungs
C) A condition that increases the volume in exhalation
D) A condition that relates to problems in exhalation airflow
Q3) Which best describes a restrictive condition of the lungs?
A) A condition that relates to restrictions in exhalation airflow
B) A condition that limits the amount of volume coming into the lungs
C) A condition that increases air volume coming into the lungs
D) A condition that increases the volume in exhalation
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11
Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (Pco )?
A) If the Pco is above 45 mm Hg, the patient is hyperventilating.
B) If the Pco is below 35 mm Hg, the patient is said to be hypoventilating.
C) If the Pco is below 35 mm Hg, the patient is said to be hyperventilating.
D) Normal Pco values are 55 to 65 mm Hg.
Q2) What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere?
A) 79%
B) 10%
C) 20.9%
D) 100%
Q3) What is the main route for the body to expel normal metabolic acids?
A) The skin
B) The lungs
C) The kidneys
D) The gastrointestinal tract
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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes a pneumothorax?
A) It is an area that appears white because of increased tissue density.
B) It does not appear in chest imaging.
C) It causes part of the lung to collapse, creating a less dense empty space in the chest cavity that is devoid of any pulmonary or vascular markings.
D) It fills the chest cavity with fluid that is denser than normal lung tissue.
Q2) Which imaging technique shows the function of the organs?
A) PET scan
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Ultrasonography
Q3) On a radiograph,what does the dark area represent?
A) Pockets of air within the body
B) Fatty areas within the body
C) Muscle and other soft tissues
D) Bones within the body
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Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The QRS complex occurs within which time frame listed below?
A) 0.01 to 012 seconds
B) 0.02 to 0.1 seconds
C) 0.04 to 0.016 seconds
D) 0.04 to 0.12 seconds
Q2) Where does an ectopic focus originate?
A) A beat or rhythm that originates in the SA node
B) A beat or rhythm that does not originate in the SA node
C) A beat or rhythm that originates in the AV node
D) A beat or rhythm that does not originate in the AV node
Q3) What is the 10th electrode on a standard 12 lead ECG is used for?
A) To monitor the frontal plane
B) To monitor the transverse plane
C) To monitor the sagittal plane
D) To stabilize the baseline
Q4) What is the definition of a narrow-complex tachycardia?
A) Supraventricular in origin and has a QRS complex <0.12 sec
B) Ventricular in origin and ha a QRS complex <0.12 sec
C) Supraventricular in origin and has a QRS complex >0.12 sec
D) Ventricular in origin and has a QRS complex > 0.12 sec
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Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a test of peripheral vascular function?
A) Peripheral pulses
B) Capillary filling time
C) Ankle systolic pressures
D) Fibrin clotting time
Q2) Which of the following is likely to result from an increase in thyroid hormones?
A) Decrease in the rate and depth of breathing
B) Increased appetite and food intake
C) Decreased gastrointestinal motility
D) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is taken from circulating blood by the thyroid to eventually create thyroid hormones?
A) Iodine
B) Insulin
C) Glucose
D) Albumin
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Chapter 14: Special Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of imaging uses x-rays and collimators to allow for the visualization of cross-sectional slices of body organs?
A) PET
B) CT
C) SPECT
D) Planar
Q2) Which testing is performed with FDG isotopes as a diagnostic tool for pulmonary nodules and mass lesions?
A) PET
B) Gallium scintigraphy
C) Ventilation-perfusion lung scan
D) Angiography
Q3) Which type of contractile dysfunction delineated by myocardial perfusion imaging is the result of prolonged ischemia?
A) Myocardial stunning
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Hibernating myocardium
D) All of the above
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Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary
Systems
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which kind of question is likely to give the most valuable information?
A) A yes/no question directed toward a patient
B) An open-ended question directed toward a patient
C) A yes/no question directed toward a patient's family
D) An open-ended question directed toward a patient's family
Q2) Which of the following may be present if crepitus is palpated over the chest wall?
A) An air leak from a chest-tube site
B) Pleural rub
C) Friction rub
D) All of the above
Q3) Which heart sound signifies the closing of the atrioventricular valves?
A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4
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Chapter 16: Monitoring Systems, catheters, and Devices in the Intensive Care Unit
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors contribute to an individual's overall stress,leading to possible complication in the form of acute distress disorder?
A) Pain management
B) Length of ICU stay
C) ICU experience
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is an indicator of fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hypertension
B) Sinus tachycardia
C) Jugular pulse visible at a 45-degree sitting angle
D) Atrial dysrhythmias
Q3) Which heart sound is an early indicator of congestive heart failure with underlying fluid overload?
A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an
Individuals Needs
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering that clinical decision making is based largely on the results of tests and measurements,it is essential that:
A) measurements need not have certain characteristics.
B) measurements can be adjusted to fit the therapist's needs.
C) measurements can fall under various different categories.
D) measurements have certain characteristics.
Q2) Limitations of _______ and _______interfere with the performance of specific activities that are involved in fulfilling roles and obligations in life
A) strength, range
B) cognition, ambulation
C) function, pathology
D) anatomic structure, physiological function
Q3) The American Physical Therapy Association's Guide To Physical Therapist Practice (2001)reflects a broad scope of practice.The guide describes:
A) diagnosis, treatment, extrinsic factors, and intrinsic factors.
B) long-term goals, short-term goals, primary goals, secondary goals.
C) examination, evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, intervention.
D) extrinsic factors, intrinsic factors, prognosis, intervention.
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Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment,
evaluation, and Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) In health,when individuals have optimal physiological reserve,both the acute and the long-term responses to an:
A) oxygen transport reserve capacity issue can be evaluated.
B) intervention-related factor can be observed.
C) exercise program can be questioned.
D) exercise stimulus can be predicted.
Q2) Early mobilization is a key component of cardiopulmonary physical therapy in the:
A) addition of challenges and compromising functional capacity.
B) estimation of limits that a patient has for mobilization.
C) management of patients who are chronically ill.
D) management of patients who are acutely ill.
Q3) Metabolic costs increase with illness and injury as a result of:
A) insurance coverage.
B) the length of the hospital stay.
C) severity of the injury.
D) healing and repair.
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20
Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prescriptive body positioning is based on:
A) routine positioning.
B) the therapists and other team members' time.
C) clear indications and well-defined parameters.
D) unclear indications and underdefined parameters.
Q2) Extreme body position changes simulate,but do not replace,the:
A) physiological stir-up and perturbations that occur with normal mobility and being left side-lying.
B) physiological stir-up and perturbations that occur with normal mobility and being recumbent.
C) physiological stir-up and perturbations that occur with normal mobility and being prone.
D) physiological stir-up and perturbations that occur with normal mobility and being upright.
Q3) The distribution of ventilation is determined primarily by:
A) functional residual capacity.
B) blood pressure.
C) heart rate.
D) the effect of gravity.
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Chapter 20: Body Positioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Efforts aimed at mucus clearance by creating a differential airflow rate led to the development of:
A) low-frequency chest wall moderated system.
B) low-frequency chest wall oscillation system.
C) high-frequency chest wall moderated system.
D) high-frequency chest wall oscillation system.
Q2) All of the following refer to bronchial hygiene techniques EXCEPT:
A) chest physical therapy.
B) tracheal tapping.
C) bronchial drainage.
D) chest physiotherapy.
Q3) What technique is used in patients with endotracheal or tracheostomy tubes?
A) Manual hyperinflation
B) Manual hypoinflation
C) Mechanical hyperinflation
D) Mechanical hypoinflation
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Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive expiratory pressure creates a backpressure to stent the airways open during:
A) diaphragmatic respiration.
B) inhalation.
C) collateral ventilation.
D) exhalation.
Q2) All of the following are reasons for using manual hyperinflation on a patient EXCEPT:
A) the patient has an artificial airway.
B) the patient is mechanically ventilated.
C) the patient has a tracheostomy.
D) the patient has a productive cough.
Q3) Complications that occur as a result of a technique or precautions associated with a particular method should guide a patient or caregiver to:
A) find an alternate technique.
B) seek additional training.
C) find a new therapist.
D) contact the vendor.
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23
Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) An assistive cough is called the anterior chest compression assist because it compresses both the:
A) upper and lower posterior chest during the coughing maneuver.
B) upper and lower anterior chest during the coughing maneuver.
C) right and left anterior chest during the coughing maneuver.
D) right and left posterior chest during coughing maneuver.
Q2) What functions to clear secretions and inhaled particular matter?
A) Throat clearing
B) Mucociliary escalator
C) Cough
D) Sneeze
Q3) For both assisted and self-assisted coughs,initial positioning and ventilator strategies are of utmost importance to the:
A) success of insufflation technique.
B) success of exsufflation technique.
C) success of the airway clearance technique.
D) success of upper respiratory therapies.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pectorals muscle group provides powerful anterior and lateral expansion of the upper chest and can substitute quite effectively for paralyzed intercostal muscles in the:
A) lower chest.
B) rib cage.
C) shoulder.
D) upper chest.
Q2) Patients with either primary pulmonary dysfunction or secondary pulmonary dysfunction can benefit from:
A) chest mobilization.
B) pectoralis facilitation.
C) scalene facilitation.
D) spinal mobilization.
Q3) Inhalation promotes trunk extension,and exhalation promotes:
A) trunk side flexion (right).
B) trunk elongation.
C) trunk flexion.
D) trunk side flexion (left).
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although dyspnea is a common limiter to exercise and cardiac failure,the other factors that contribute to exercise limitation could include all but which of the following?
A) Hemodynamic impairments
B) Ventilator control impairments
C) Lung function impairments
D) Metabolic impairments
Q2) Over the past 20 years,heart transplant had become an accepted therapy for:
A) end-stage heart failure.
B) multivalve failure.
C) conduction blocks.
D) increasing ejection fractions.
Q3) Of individuals who participate in pulmonary rehabilitation programs,the largest portion is made up of those with:
A) lung transplants.
B) lobectomies.
C) segmentectomies.
D) emphysema.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following complicates the clinical picture within weeks after a stroke?
A) Pulmonary deconditioning
B) Aerobic training
C) Cardiorespiratory deconditioning
D) Strength training
Q2) Manifestations of oxygen transport limitations or one or more risk factors include individuals with systemic conditions.Goals for these individuals would include all but which of the following?
A) Optimize central adaptation to exercise.
B) Reduce hemodynamic responses.
C) Optimize peripheral adaptation to exercise.
D) Reduce biomechanical stress.
Q3) Individuals with rheumatoid arthritis have a higher incidence of:
A) musculoskeletal disease.
B) neuromuscular disease.
C) pulmonary disease.
D) cardiovascular disease.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following characteristics are aims of training the respiratory muscles to improve EXCEPT:
A) expiratory muscle contraction force.
B) velocity.
C) inspiratory muscle contraction force
D) compliance.
Q2) Respiratory muscle weakness associated with other factors plays a role in increasing the risk of _____________ failure and respiratory complications.
A) cardiac
B) ventilatory
C) pulmonary
D) renal
Q3) Inspiratory or expiratory muscle training is a means of enhancing inspiratory or expiratory muscle function in individuals with:
A) quadriplegia.
B) asthma.
C) chronic bronchitis.
D) acute respiratory failure.
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28
Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As
Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with chronic anxiety and depression also exhibit more episodes of: A) seizures
B) migraine headaches
C) cardiac arrest
D) myocardial ischemia
Q2) Neurolinguistic psychology is a:
A) belief that holistic health, nutrition and joint mobilization can be used to maintain proper balance and homeostasis
B) belief that illness and disease result from vertebral misalignment and regular manipulation can maintain energy flow to organs and the body/mind
C) psychotherapeutic approach that brings to awareness ways in which the use of certain words, body postures and eye movements that will enhance energy flow and bring a more relaxed state
D) manual therapy that uses light touch to balance energy flow, partly by balancing the flow of cerebral spinal fluid during its circulation around the meninges of the cranium and down the spinal column
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Chapter 28: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific content of patient education materials and programs should be determined by:
A) the individual or the group being taught.
B) how quickly the patient can catch on to the education materials.
C) the age of the patient.
D) how long the treatment will continue.
Q2) The learning needs assessment encompasses the following five major areas:
A) perceptual, motor, affective, cognitive, and environmental.
B) seeing, hearing, smelling, touching, and tasting.
C) reading, testing, group discussion, role playing, and individual instruction.
D) lecture, video, audiotape, computer programs, and directed activities.
Q3) Prioritizing the patient's goals along with other intervention goals enhances the therapist's:
A) pay.
B) job security.
C) patient load.
D) efficiency.
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Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are reasons why should forceful coughing be avoided in cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) forceful coughing does not result in mucus expulsion.
B) forceful coughing results in increased intrathoracic pressure.
C) forceful coughing contributes to airway closure.
D) forceful coughing can reduce cardiac output.
Q2) All of the following statements about cystic fibrosis are true EXCEPT:
A) cystic fibrosis is only genetic in origin.
B) lung involvement is the only clinical manifestation.
C) cystic fibrosis can result in hyperinflation of the chest.
D) chronic staphylococcal infections accompany cystic fibrosis.
Q3) A patient with acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis:
A) is cachectic and red or pink in color.
B) has increased vital capacity.
C) uses less accessory muscles.
D) intermittently exhibits sternal retractions.
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Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions
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Q1) All of the following are true about the immediate postoperative period EXCEPT:
A) rest is as important as activity.
B) patients may be using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).
C) therapists should determine the benefits of nonpharmacologic interventions.
D) oversedation results in an increased respiratory rate.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE about thoracic and cardiovascular surgery?
A) Patients are at increased risk of aspiration postoperatively.
B) Irritation or compression of the phrenic nerve is not possible during surgery.
C) Artificial airways decrease the risk of postoperative complications.
D) Blood gasses do not indicate the need for mechanical ventilation.
Q3) Which of the following activities will address the postoperative risks of thromboemboli and pulmonary emboli?
A) Compression stockings
B) Ankle pumps
C) Ambulation
D) All of the above
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Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Severe cystic fibrosis is characterized by all of the above EXCEPT:
A) tenacious secretions.
B) right-sided heart failure.
C) pulmonary hypertension.
D) autoimmune destruction of cells.
Q2) All of the following are common complications of diabetes mellitus type 2 EXCEPT:
A) accelerated atherosclerosis.
B) retinopathy.
C) decreased cough effectiveness.
D) neuropathy.
Q3) Where are primary lung tumors typically found?
A) Near the carina
B) In the posterior lower lobes
C) In the upper lobes
D) In the trachea
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Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) The goal of physical therapy with the patient with muscular dystrophy is to:
A) provide ventilation for the patient.
B) strengthen the respiratory muscles.
C) provide therapy in the recumbent position.
D) provide long doses of exercise.
Q2) All of the following are examples of musculoskeletal thoracic deformities that can affect breathing or coughing EXCEPT:
A) scoliosis.
B) rib fractures.
C) spondylolisthesis.
D) ankylosing spondylitis.
Q3) Ankylosis spondylitis result in decreases in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) vital capacity.
B) total lung capacity.
C) inspiratory muscle function.
D) ventilatory capacity.
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Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit
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Q1) Which of the following is a contraindication for manual techniques performed in the head-down position?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Acute chest trauma
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Gastric reflux
Q2) Which monitoring system give the therapist information of fluid loading and the ability of the right side of the heart to cope with changes in circulating body fluids?
A) Central venous pressure
B) Swan-Ganz catheter
C) ECG
D) Cardiovascular stress alert
Q3) What is the best initial treatment choice(s)for a patient in the ICU?
A) Supplemental oxygen
B) Intubation and mechanical ventilation
C) Pharmacologic agents
D) Various conservative, noninvasive measures
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)?
A) Promotes venous return
B) Maintains airway patency during spontaneous ventilation
C) Improves myocardial perfusion
D) Promotes greater opportunity for gas exchange
Q2) Which of the following would you expect to see for a patient with end-stage respiratory failure?
A) Decrease in airway resistance
B) Carbon monoxide production
C) Work of breathing
D) Alveolar hyperventilation
Q3) Which of the following interventions would have the greatest effect on oxygen transport for a patient in ICU?
A) Active movement of large muscle groups
B) Active assisted movements
C) Passive motion
D) Sitting in a chair at the bedside
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) In treating a trauma patient,both active and passive relaxation techniques should be used.Which of the following is not a method of passive relaxation?
A) Use of physical supports
B) Use of body positioning
C) Talking slowly
D) All of these are passive techniques
Q2) What technique is best described as a modified cough with the glottis open and with abdominal support to help mobilize secretions?
A) Tracheal tickle
B) Natural cough
C) Facilitated cough
D) Huffing
Q3) Where would you place a chest tube in the treatment of a hemothorax?
A) Sixth intercostal space in the posterior axillary line
B) Third intercostal space in the posterior axillary line
C) Sixth intercostal space in the midclavicular line
D) Third intercostal space in the midclavicular line
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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications
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Q1) Renal failure greatly compromises the chances of a patient's survival.Which is not a mechanism of how renal failure develops?
A) Hypertension
B) Gastrointestinal bleeding
C) Sepsis associated with shock
D) Drug-induced nephrotoxicity
Q2) Which of the following are common signs of fluid retention with prolonged mechanical ventilation?
A) Systemic edema, weight gain, increased pulmonary compliance, and reduced oxygen transport
B) Pulmonary edema, weight gain, increased pulmonary compliance, and reduced oxygen transport
C) Pulmonary edema, weight gain, decreased pulmonary compliance, and reduced oxygen transport
D) Systemic edema, weight loss, decreased pulmonary compliance, and reduced oxygen transport
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Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns
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Q1) Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)in a preterm infant?
A) Bradycardia
B) Bounding peripheral pulses
C) Poor feeding or poor weight gain
D) Ejection systolic murmur
Q2) Which of the following is not a common trigger for asthma symptoms and exacerbations?
A) Weight loss
B) Allergens
C) Tobacco smoke
D) Extreme temperatures
Q3) Which of the following conditions is associated with Arnold-Chiari type II malformation?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Myelomeningocele
C) Down syndrome
D) Muscular dystrophy
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Chapter 38: The Aging Patient
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Q1) Telomere length relates to which of the following?
A) The ability of cells to lengthen during exercise
B) The ability of the cells recoil after initial stretch
C) The ability of cells to replicate
D) The ability of cells to repair themselves
Q2) Chest wall stiffness comes with many related factors,which include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) a decrease in intervertebral disk height.
B) an increase in medial to lateral chest width.
C) changes in the rib to vertebrae articulations.
D) costal cartilage calcification.
Q3) Improvements in ventilatory efficiency after an aerobic training program are often attributable to which of the following factors?
A) Improved gas exchange in the lungs
B) Improved efficiency in the periphery
C) A decrease in O consumption by cells in the muscle tissue
D) None of the above
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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired
Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control
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Q1) Which anatomical valves represent the superior and inferior valves of the soda can model of respiratory and postural control?
A) The vocal cords and pelvic floor
B) The vocal cords and the diaphragm
C) The diaphragm and the pelvic floor
D) All of the above
Q2) If a patient is to work on strengthening muscles to help with expansion of the anterior abdominal wall,how should the therapist position the patient?
A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Side-lying
D) Sitting
Q3) The primary muscles involved in the soda can model of respiratory and postural control include which group?
A) Pectorals, upper trapezius, abdominals and gluteals
B) Intercostals, scalenes, lower abdominals, and back extensors
C) Diaphragm, scalenes, pectorals, and lower abdominals
D) Back extensors, abdominals, diaphragm, and intercostals
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Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient
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Q1) What time frame is provided for weaning of patients from mechanical ventilation after heart transplant surgery?
A) 12 to 24 hours
B) 24 to 36 hours
C) 12 to 36 hours
D) 24 to 48 hours
Q2) When considering a single-lung transplant patient,which upper extremity motions should not be limited after surgery?
A) Overhead reaching
B) Abduction of the arms
C) External rotation of the upper extremity
D) All of the above
Q3) After a heart transplant surgery,what may cause the appearance of two P waves?
A) Two contractions of the ventricles
B) Repolarization of the atria
C) The atrial cuff left from the previous heart
D) The atrial depolarization after the ventricular depolarization
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Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community
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Q1) What is the definition of optimal health or function?
A) How the patient's health and function is related to his or her personal circumstances
B) Completion of a rehabilitation program
C) Limitations of third-party payers
D) Decisions made by the health care team supporting the patient to discontinue treatment
Q2) When patients are discharged to home care,which of the following is not a priority for recovering cardiac or pulmonary patients?
A) Continuity of care
B) Availability of caregivers
C) Meal planning
D) Education about plan of therapy, exercise, and disease state
Q3) Physical therapy services are beneficial during a episode of cardiopulmonary disease at what stage of the recovery?
A) During the acute stages of a disease process
B) During the recovery stages of a disease process
C) When the patient has return to independent functioning
D) Physical therapy can be beneficial at all stages
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Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients
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Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate lifting tip?
A) Lift with your legs.
B) Do not attempt to lift solely with your arms and back.
C) Avoid rotation of the spine when lifting.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which occupations account for more than half of the annual prevalence of low back pain among health care personnel?
A) Physicians and laboratory technicians
B) Anesthesiologists and dentists
C) Nurses and therapists
D) Paramedics and ambulance drivers
Q3) Which position is generally best for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Hook-lying
D) Prone
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review
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Q1) Which device is most commonly used with high-flow oxygen systems?
A) Partial rebreathing mask
B) Nonrebreathing mask
C) Venturi mask
D) Transtracheal oxygen catheter
Q2) Which of the following is used to ensure mandatory minute ventilation?
A) Pressure support ventilation
B) Triggers
C) Incentive spirometry
D) None of the above
Q3) Compared with standard ventilator treatment without waking patients for therapy,which of the following can be achieved with early physical therapy in patients on mechanical ventilation?
A) Fewer ventilator days
B) Fewer days of delirium
C) Better function outcomes at discharge
D) All of the above
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45
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Q1) How often should the pressure of a tracheostomy tube cuff be checked?
A) Once per day
B) Twice per day
C) Every 4 to 8 hours
D) Every 30 minutes
Q2) In which position should nasotracheal and pharyngeal suctioning be done?
A) Fully supine position
B) Fowler position
C) Trendelenburg position
D) Side-lying position
Q3) How long should each suctioning procedure last?
A) 5 to 10 seconds
B) 15 to 20 seconds
C) 25 to 30 seconds
D) 35 to 40 seconds
Q4) What is the recommended pressure for a tracheostomy tube cuff?
A) 5 to 15 mm Hg
B) 15 to 25 mm Hg
C) 25 to 35 mm Hg
D) 35 to 45 mm Hg
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Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions
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Q1) Which drug is an anticholinergic with bronchodilatory effects useful in patients with asthma?
A) Ipratropium
B) Carbachol
C) Pilocarpine
D) None of the above
Q2) Which can be inhaled to liquefy mucus?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Mucolytics
C) Anticholinergics
D) All of the above
Q3) Which -adrenergic blocking drug is most useful in men with enlarged prostates?
A) Phentolamine
B) Phenoxybenzamine
C) Prazosin
D) Phenylephrine
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