Rehabilitation Science
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Rehabilitation Science explores the principles, methods, and evidence-based practices used to restore function and improve quality of life for individuals affected by injury, disease, or disability. This multidisciplinary field integrates knowledge from physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech-language pathology, kinesiology, and medicine to assess and address physical, cognitive, and psychosocial challenges. Students will examine the biological, psychological, and social foundations of rehabilitation, as well as contemporary interventions and technologies. Emphasis is placed on patient-centered care, interdisciplinary teamwork, health promotion, and ethical considerations, preparing graduates for advanced study or careers in healthcare and research settings.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 7th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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Q1) You are helping a patient learn a motor skill.You set up several variations of the same task (walking on several types of surfaces).You have the patient perform one variation of the task and have him identify his own errors after the first repetition (or point out errors to him after the first repetition).Next, allow him to repeat the same variation of the task one or two more times before moving on to another variation of the task.What term best describes this type of practice?
A)Blocked
B)Random-blocked
C)Random
D)Augmented
Answer: B
Q2) According to the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF) endorsed by the American Physical Therapy Association (APTA), a rotator cuff tear is considered a(n):
A)Health condition.
B)Impairment.
C)Functional limitation.
D)Disability.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, Health, and Wellness
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Q1) People with disabilities should be included in wellness and prevention programs, as described by Healthy People 2020's goal of health equity and elimination of disparity.Each of the following are resources for providing health and wellness programs to people with disabilities except:
A)Individual Education Plans (IEPs) for school-aged children with disabilities.
B)The World Health Organization's International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF).
C)The National Center on Health, Physical Activity and Disability (NCHPAD).
D)Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans (US Department of Health & Human Services).
Answer: B
Q2) Non-communicable chronic diseases are the primary cause of death and illness in the United States (US).The top four chronic conditions in the US in terms of mortality include all of the following except:
A)Cardiovascular disease
B)Diabetes
C)Obesity
D)Chronic respiratory disease
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Q1) The most effective results of continuous passive motion (CPM) can be expected:
A)If the device is applied for at least 5 hours per day but its use is delayed for at least 5 days postoperatively.
B)If the device is applied as early as possible after surgery for at least 4 to 8 hours per day.
C)If the device is applied immediately after surgery for 1 hour, then on alternate days for 1 hour each time.
D)If the rate of motion is at least 5 cycles per minute, no matter how many hours per day the device is used.
Answer: B
Q2) During ROM of the cervical spine:
A)Avoid grasping the jaw.
B)Avoid extension past neutral (i.e., hyperextension).
C)Perform ROM while the patient is in an upright position (seated or standing).
D)Never combine flexion with rotation.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Stretching for Improved Mobility
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Q1) Connective tissue fatigue occurs:
A)When the heart rate is maintained at 80% of the age-adjusted maximum during active exercise.
B)When there is a buildup of metabolites in connective tissue as the result of active stretching procedures.
C)When a muscle is not allowed adequate time to recover from exhaustion after exercise.
D)When a submaximal stress load is applied repeatedly and causes tissue failure as in a stress fracture or overuse syndrome.
Q2) Which of the following terms best describes impaired extensibility of a muscle-tendon unit as the result of spasticity or rigidity from a lesion of the central nervous system?
A)Myostatic contracture
B)Fibrotic contracture
C)Pseudomyostatic contracture
D)Hypotonic contracture
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6
Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Q1) Which of the following joint mobilization procedures at the elbow matches the desired goal?
A)Volar glide of the head of the radius on the proximal ulna-increase forearm pronation
B)Dorsal glide of the head of the radius on the proximal ulna-increase forearm supination
C)Dorsal glide of the head of the radius on the humerus-increase elbow extension
D)Volar glide of the head of the radius on the humerus-increase elbow extension
Q2) Which of the following techniques combines the application of sustained accessory joint movements by a therapist and active end-range physiological movements performed by the patient?
A)Manipulative thrust techniques
B)Facilitative mobilization techniques
C)Muscle energy techniques
D)Mobilization with movement techniques
Q3) Which of the following is an indication for joint mobilization?
A)Pain
B)Joint effusion
C)Muscle contracture
D)Joint hypermobility
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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Q1) Your patient is lying supine and you are strengthening the iliopsoas on the (R) using manual resistance.The main reason you would want to place the patient's (L) hip and knee in flexion (foot planted on the table) is to:
A)Stretch the erector spinae muscles in the lumbar region of the back.
B)Improve the mechanical efficiency of the iliopsoas on the (R).
C)Stabilize the pelvis in a neutral to posteriorly rotated position to lessen the possibility of an anterior pelvic tilt occurring, placing stress on the low back.
D)Place the pelvis in a slight anterior tilt so the trunk is more stable and the iliopsoas can generate greater tension.
Q2) Within 1 week of beginning resistance exercise of the shoulder external rotators as a component of a rehabilitation program after a shoulder injury, your patient, Mr.K, is able to increase the level of resistance by using a heavier grade of elastic tubing.This improvement in muscle performance is due primarily to which of the following adaptive changes?
A)Increased recruitment of motor units
B)Increased oxygen to the muscle
C)Hypertrophy of muscle fibers
D)Fiber-type transformation from slow twitch to fast twitch
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Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Q1) Your patient is a sedentary 52-year-old man who smokes a pack of cigarettes a day and has a family history of cardiovascular disease.The most appropriate method of determining his cardiovascular fitness is:
A)Distance run in 12 minutes.
B)Heart rate following 6 minutes of fast walking.
C)Sample expired air during multistage treadmill testing to provide a direct measure of VO m
D)Time required to run 1.5 miles.
Q2) A carefully planned exercise program includes three components: the warm-up, aerobic period, and the cool-down.Which of the following is a true statement about an exercise program that is carefully planned?
A)It can slow the decrease in functional capacity of the elderly individual.
B)The cool-down period is intended to encourage rapid return of blood to the extremities.
C)A program of continuous training is the most effective way to improve aerobic conditioning.
D)Venous return is reduced during the warm-up period as blood flow is shifted centrally from the periphery.
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9
Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Q1) Mrs.S is a 65-year-old woman with a history of falling due to episodic loss of balance.The medical diagnosis is "balance disorder." Which of the following tests is the best choice to administer to determine whether Mrs.S has a fear of falling?
A)Activities-Specific Balance Confidence Scale
B)Tinetti Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment
C)Berg Balance Test
D)Functional Reach Test
Q2) The most important neural structures for the integration and processing of sensory information for balance control are:
A)Basal ganglia, primary motor area, and cerebellum.
B)Basal ganglia, thalamus, and supplementary motor area.
C)Supplementary motor area, cerebellum, and basal ganglia.
D)Supplementary motor area, cerebellum, and thalamus.
Q3) The center of gravity in most adult humans is located slightly:
A)Posterior to the L2 vertebra.
B)Posterior to the S2 vertebra.
C)Anterior to the L2 vertebra.
D)Anterior to the S2 vertebra.
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Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Q1) Increasing the amount of resistance to limb movement in water can be achieved by:
A)Increasing agitation, moving the limb closer to the surface of the water, moving the limb quickly.
B)Moving the limb further from the surface of the water, moving the limb quickly, and using a device to increase the effective limb volume.
C)Decreasing water temperature, moving the limb further from the surface of the water, slowing limb movement.
D)Moving the limb quickly, increasing water temperature, agitating the water.
Q2) If a patient has lower extremity edema, which of the following principles associated with hydrotherapy (an aquatic environment) will assist with decreasing the edema?
A)Viscosity
B)Buoyancy
C)Surface tension
D)Hydrostatic pressure
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Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury, Repair, and Management
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Q1) During your evaluation, you identify signs of chronic inflammation of a muscle group.Each of the following techniques is tissue-specific for this condition at this time except:
A)Cross-fiber massage.
B)Grade II joint mobilization.
C)ROM within the limits of pain.
D)Muscle setting in pain-free positions.
Q2) Which of the following stages of soft tissue healing is characterized by remodeling and maturation of collagen in the scar?
A)Chronic stage
B)Early subacute stage
C)Late subacute stage
D)Acute stage
Q3) Transient or intermittent pain that occurs during the chronic stage of soft tissue healing is best relieved by:
A)Stretching and strengthening the healing tissues.
B)Applying cold.
C)Applying heat and massage.
D)Resting.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Joint, Connective Tissue, and Bone Disorders and Management
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Q1) A therapist's role in diagnosing arthritic conditions is to:
A)Identify the underlying pathological process and inform the physician.
B)Order laboratory tests or radiological imaging that may confirm or rule out the diagnosis.
C)Determine the type of arthritis that is causing the patient's symptoms.
D)Identify impairments, such as the pattern and extent of range of motion (ROM) and joint mobility limitations, contributing to a patient's activity limitations and participation restrictions.
Q2) Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for myofascial pain syndrome but not for fibromyalgia, based on the etiology of the two conditions?
A)Providing education with a focus on activity modification
B)Eliminating trigger points with techniques such as muscle elongation with contract-relax procedures, spray and stretch techniques, and dry needling
C)Reducing postural stresses and improving posture
D)Treating muscular pain with low-intensity strengthening and aerobic exercise
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Q1) Which of the following surgical procedures is also considered to be a diagnostic tool?
A)Arthrotomy
B)Capsulorrhaphy
C)Arthroscopy
D)Osteotomy
Q2) Ambulation should begin in the early postoperative phase in order to:
A)Reduce the risk of a pulmonary embolism after a diagnosis of DVT is confirmed.
B)Reduce the risk of a DVT after surgery.
C)Provide an alternative circulatory activity for those who do not want to wear compression stockings.
D)Reduce the risk of a diagnosed embolism traveling to the lungs.
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement about a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A)It may occur in the greater saphenous veins.
B)It is most common in the deep arterial system of the calf muscles.
C)It usually resolves without complication if the patient is active.
D)It may result in a pulmonary embolism if undetected.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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Q1) To effectively treat CRPS, a physical therapist:
A)Performs a sympathetic block prior to any manual or exercise interventions.
B)Utilizes an approach that manages the physical symptoms of pain, edema, stiffness, and muscle changes.
C)Bombards the autonomic nervous system with stimuli using desensitization techniques.
D)Avoids the "no pain, no gain" philosophy and encourages the patient to minimize activity if it causes discomfort.
Q2) Following nerve injury, motor retraining exercises:
A)Begin as soon as signs of voluntary muscle action are detected.
B)Begin as soon as the patient tolerates electrical stimulation.
C)Are used to desensitize the areas of hypersensitivity.
D)Cannot be used until the chronic phase of healing in order to avoid further trauma to the nerve.
Q3) Nonoperative management of carpal tunnel syndrome emphasizes:
A)Vigorous stretching to gain mobility of the structures in the carpal tunnel.
B)Activity modification and joint, nerve, and tendon mobilization.
C)Strengthening exercises, especially to the muscles of the thenar eminence.
D)Immobilization.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, Function, and Posture
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Q1) All of the following are generally true of the nucleus pulposus except:
A)It is the axis of motion for the functional units of the spine.
B)It takes on and/or releases water in response to compressive loads.
C)It is centrally aligned within the annulus fibrosis at all levels of the spine to provide uniform shock absorption.
D)It is covered superiorly and inferiorly by a cartilaginous end-plate.
Q2) Your patient describes having cervical and upper thoracic pain progressing throughout the day at work where she works by reaching forward and overhead on an assembly line.On evaluation you determine she is experiencing "stretch weakness" from prolonged postural positioning.The treatment program you design should primarily include all of the following except:
A)Posture training for safe body mechanics.
B)Muscular endurance and strengthening.
C)Stretching for the involved postural muscles.
D)Environmental adaptations for ergonomic relief and protection.
Q3) Which of the following is true of a flat low-back posture?
A)It is the best posture for a healthy spine.
B)It is typically associated with tight hip flexor muscles.
C)It reduces the shock-absorbing function of the spinal curves.
D)It should be the goal of all back rehabilitation programs.
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Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Q1) The vertebral arteries:
A)Are protected in positions of extreme cervical extension.
B)Cause tension headaches when they are occluded.
C)Are compromised with severe TMJ dysfunction.
D)Enter the transverse foramen of C6 bilaterally in their course to C1.
Q2) Your patient has acute joint trauma to the cervical spinal facets.Every time she attempts neck motions, there is increased pain and muscle guarding.A possible way to maintain integrity in the contractile units of the muscles is to:
A)Apply cold.
B)Perform passive range of motion to the cervical spine.
C)Apply heat.
D)Perform reverse muscle action using gentle scapular motions.
Q3) Which of the following sacroiliac impairments will probably not respond to muscle energy techniques?
A)Pubic symphysis hypomobility
B)Posterior rotated innominate
C)Anterior rotated innominate
D)Up-slipped innominate
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17
Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Q1) Your patient is recovering from a low back injury that occurred when picking up her 15-lb infant 4 weeks ago.The symptoms are no longer acute.She has learned the basic drawing-in maneuver and neutral spine position and can maintain her neutral spine while rolling, transitioning from supine to sit and from sit to stand.Now you plan to progress her exercises in order to improve her ability to return to managing household responsibilities.How should you progress the exercises to improve the stabilizing function in the abdominals?
A)Wall slides, beginning with 10 repetitions; progress to 25, then begin squats
B)Maintain neutral spine while walking for 10 minutes two times a day; progress to 5 times a day
C)Curl-ups on a mat; progress to doing curl-ups on an unstable surface such as a gym ball
D)Supine; maintain neutral spine while alternating arms, then add alternating legs; increase repetitions until she can hold the position for 3 minutes; progress difficulty by increasing the lever arm or adding weights to arms and legs
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Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Q1) Each of the following is a true statement about rehabilitation following dislocation of the glenohumeral joint except:
A)After an initial dislocation and a course of nonoperative management, recurrence of a dislocation is higher in older patients (greater than 40 years of age) than in younger patients (less than 30 years of age).
B)Anterior dislocation is far more common than posterior dislocation.
C)A compression fracture of the posterolateral margin of the humeral head is an associated lesion that may occur as the result of a traumatic anterior dislocation.
D)A fall on the arm when it is positioned in flexion, adduction, and internal rotation can result in a posterior dislocation.
Q2) Rotator cuff disease is multifactorial and is associated with both intrinsic and extrinsic factors affecting the structures in the suprahumeral space.Of the following contributing factors, which is classified as an intrinsic factor?
A)Vascular changes in the rotator cuff tendons
B)Hypertrophic degenerative changes of the acromioclavicular joint
C)The shape of the acromion
D)Increased thoracic extension
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Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Q1) Current research shows that the "survival rate" for TEA is:
A)30% over a 10-year period.
B)Greater for patients with rheumatoid arthritis than for those with traumatic arthritis or osteoarthritis.
C)Highly correlated with the type of implant (prosthesis).
D)Greater for young, active adults who provide consistent stress to the fixation, encouraging increased bone formation and less loosening of the implant.
Q2) Your goal is to increase end-range elbow flexion using joint-mobilization techniques.Which of the following techniques is appropriate?
A)Stabilize the distal humerus and apply a proximal glide of the ulna
B)Apply a valgus stress at the elbow
C)Stabilize the humerus and apply a dorsal glide to the head of the radius
D)Stabilize the distal humerus and apply an ulnar (lateral) glide of the ulna
Q3) Tennis elbow may involve all of the following structures except the:
A)Extensor carpi radialis brevis.
B)Extensor communis.
C)Pronator teres.
D)Annular ligament.
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20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Q1) "Place-and-hold" exercises are:
A)A form of dynamic exercises in which the patient actively moves through a series of hand positions to prevent tendon adhesions.
B)Gentle muscle setting (isometric/static) exercises used during the early phase of rehabilitation after, for example, a tendon repair, whereby an involved finger is placed passively in a particular position (by the therapist or by the patient using the sound hand); the patient then is asked to try actively to hold the position without assistance.
C)A form of isometric exercise in which the therapist places a finger in a particular position and then asks the patient to hold the position as manual resistance is applied to the contracting muscle.
D)A form of stretching exercise in which a patient is asked to perform an isometric contraction of a muscle-tendon unit against low-intensity resistance followed by relaxation and elongation of that muscle.
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Chapter 20: The Hip
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Q1) Which of the following exercises, designed to self-stretch the hamstrings, is the safest and utilizes the most effective stabilization?
A)Patient stands, bends forward, keeping both knees straight, and attempts to touch the nose to the thighs.
B)Patient stands on one leg, places the other leg on a table, bends forward with the back straight, and reaches toward the foot of the elevated leg.
C)Patient sits on the floor in a hurdler's position, keeps the back straight, and reaches toward the foot of the straight leg.
D)Patient sits on the floor in a long-sitting position with the knees straight and does a bilateral toe touch.
Q2) The clinical prediction rule for the diagnosis of osteoarthritis of the hip developed by Sutlive and colleagues includes consideration of all of the following variables except:
A)Self-reported squatting aggravates symptoms.
B)Walking more than one block causes groin and anterior thigh pain.
C)Passive internal rotation is less than or equal to 25°.
D)Scour test with adduction causes lateral hip or groin pain.
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Chapter 21: The Knee
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Q1) The primary value of a patient performing quadriceps setting exercises when the knee is immobilized in a long leg cast for an extended period of time is to:
A)Strengthen the quadriceps muscle.
B)Maintain mobility of the patella.
C)Stretch the anterior portion of the knee capsule.
D)Prevent a knee extension contracture.
Q2) Your patient reports a sudden onset of severe pain yesterday in the (L) posterior thigh while sprinting.Today he is unable to fully extend his (L) knee while walking because of pain.Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to use when initiating therapy today?
A)Passive knee flexion/extension within the pain-free range with the hip flexed to 90°
B)Passive knee flexion/extension within the pain-free range with the hip positioned in 0° extension
C)Active knee flexion but no passive or active extension
D)Submaximal resisted knee flexion in the prone-lying position
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23
Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Q1) Your patient has regained normal strength (5/5) and ROM during rehabilitation following a traumatic injury that severely stressed several ligaments and joints of the ankle.He continues to have poor control while walking on gravel or other uneven surfaces.To address this problem, your exercise program should focus on:
A)Strengthening exercises for the invertor and evertor muscles of the ankle using elastic resistance.
B)Stretching the invertor and evertor muscles of the ankle.
C)Performing progressive balance training with closed-chain disturbed balance activities on a rocker/balance board.
D)Practicing walking on uneven surfaces while wearing a custom-made ankle/foot orthosis that controls inversion and eversion.
Q2) Your patient has RA and is complaining of pain in her ankles and feet when walking.You observe her gait and notice short steps and poor push-off.This is consistent with what deformity in RA?
A)Everted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
B)Inverted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
C)Everted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
D)Inverted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
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24
Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Q1) Plyometric drills are prescribed to improve which dimension of muscle performance?
A)Balance
B)Flexibility
C)Power
D)Endurance
Q2) For an individual to be able to execute functional activities, it is necessary to have the ability to maintain the position of the body in equilibrium within the environment.This state of equilibrium is called:
A)Power.
B)Endurance.
C)Postural stability.
D)Strength.
Q3) Contraindications to the use of plyometrics include all of the following except:
A)Individuals under 10 years or over 70 years.
B)Painful joints.
C)Acute inflammation.
D)Unstable joints.
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25
Chapter 24: Exercise in the Older Adult
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Q1) Prevention through healthy life choices is important for slowing the decline of function in the older adult.Which of the following is an example of a prevention activity that a 70-year-old individual could adopt as a means to slow progression of primary aging?
A)Sit down and rest several times per day.
B)Sleep at least 10 hours per night.
C)Avoid stairs to reduce risk of falls.
D)Take an aerobics class 2-3 times per week.
Q2) Normal aging results in progressive loss of muscle mass characterized by:
A)Death of alpha motorneurons at the spinal cord resulting in decline of innervation to individual muscles.
B)Reduction in size but not number of muscle fibers.
C)Atrophy of type I fibers and hypertrophy of Type II muscle fibers.
D)Loss of muscle mass beginning in the sixth decade of life.
Q3) Aging that occurs as a natural developmental process as a result of the passage of time is defined as:
A)Primary aging.
B)Hypokinesis.
C)Sarcopenia.
D)Secondary aging.
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Chapter 25: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) During pregnancy, in which direction does the center of gravity of the body move?
A)Superior and posterior
B)Superior and anterior
C)Inferior and posterior
D)Inferior and anterior
Q2) Which of the following is true about sacroiliac (SI) joint pain experienced during pregnancy?
A)Pain often radiates from the buttock region distally to the foot.
B)Asymmetrical lower extremity weight-bearing activities aggravate the pain.
C)Resting on a soft support surface typically alleviates the pain.
D)Hypomobility of the SI joint typically is evident.
Q3) An exercise program that includes posture training to counter the expected postural changes that occur during pregnancy should emphasize each of the following except:
A)Strengthening scapular retractors.
B)Strengthening hip extensors.
C)Strengthening abdominals (low-intensity).
D)Strengthening shoulder internal rotators.
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Chapter 26: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Q1) As part of the patient evaluation, you perform tests and measures to document your findings in a standard and objective way.You document a positive Stemmer sign when you find which of the following?
A)There is tenderness of the lymph nodes on palpation.
B)Skin on the dorsum of the fingers could not be pinched.
C)Skin is shiny and red.
D)Viscous fluid is weeping from the skin.
Q2) Which of the following is the least advisable means of preventing limitations of the glenohumeral joint and improving shoulder range of motion (ROM) after mastectomy?
A)Self-assisted ROM of the involved upper extremity
B)Wand exercises
C)Pendulum exercises
D)Wall-climbing exercises with the involved upper extremity
Q3) The purpose of the lymphatic system is to collect and transport fluid from the:
A)Lungs to the venous system.
B)Interstitial spaces to the venous system.
C)Interstitial spaces to the kidneys.
D)Interstitial spaces to the blood capillaries.
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