Rehabilitation Science
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Rehabilitation Science is an interdisciplinary field focused on understanding and enhancing the physical, psychological, and social aspects of recovery from injury, illness, or disability. The course explores the biological foundations of rehabilitation, assessment techniques, intervention strategies, and the integration of technology in patient care. Students will examine evidence-based practices and research in areas such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech-language pathology, and assistive devices.
Emphasis is placed on holistic, patient-centered approaches and the development of skills to promote independence, improve quality of life, and support reintegration into the community for individuals of all ages facing functional limitations.
Recommended Textbook
Pedrettis Occupational Therapy Practice Skills for Physical Dysfunct
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Chapter 1: The Occupational Therapy Practice Framework
and the Practice of Occupational Therapy for People With
Physical Disabilities
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Q1) For the 10-year-old client to make her bed,she will need enough hand strength to pull the corner of the bottom sheet to fit.This would be considered under which section of activity demands?
A) Objects and their properties
B) Space demands
C) Sequence and timing
D) Required body structures
E) Required body functions
Answer: E
Q2) The Framework refers to activities that are oriented toward taking care of one's own body as which of the following?
A) ADLs
B) IADLs
C) Performance skills
D) Areas of occupation
E) Context
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Occupational Therapy Practice Framework
and the Practice of Occupational Therapy for People With
Physical Disabilities
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Q1) Both Client A and Client B suffered mild strokes.Client A has been an accountant at the same company for the past 25 years and hopes to retire there.Client B is a homemaker who diligently clips coupons,shops sales,and keeps track of spending every day,finding it a fun challenge.Which statement is correct?
A) Financial management is an activity for Client A and an occupation for Client B.
B) Financial management is an activity for both Clients A and B.
C) Financial management is an occupation for Client A and an activity for Client B.
D) Financial management is an occupation for both Clients A and B.
Answer: D
Q2) An OT practitioner is working with a client with carpal tunnel syndrome.Which of the following is not a preparatory method that the OT can use with the client?
A) Cock-up splinting to hold the wrist in neutral to 10 degrees of extension
B) Tendon-gliding exercises for the long finger flexors
C) Ergonomic modification of the client's workspace
D) Ultrasound phonophoresis and iontophoresis to reduce inflammation
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: History and Practice Trends in Physical
Dysfunction Intervention
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Q1) In 1972 Edward Roberts,at the University of California in Berkeley,initiated which of the following?
A) The disability rights movement
B) The interactional or sociopolitical model
C) The independent living movement
D) The interactional or sociopolitical movement
E) The social model
Answer: C
Q2) The idea that handicrafts could be graded to provide occupation that stimulated mental activity and muscular exercise at the same time stemmed from which founding ideology?
A) Arts and Crafts movement
B) Moral treatment
C) Scientific management
D) Medical model
E) Disability rights movement
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Application of the Occupational Therapy
Practice Framework to Physical Dysfunction
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Q1) Which statement best reflects the difference between the occupational profile and the analysis of occupational performance?
A) The occupational profile is always first and is written on the referral form.
B) The analysis of occupational performance is a standardized manner of determining the intervention plan and is used with all clients.
C) The analysis of occupational performance guides the occupational profile.
D) The occupational profile guides the analysis of occupational performance.
Q2) Models of practice and frames of reference guide occupational therapy intervention.Which statement best fits the model of human occupation?
A) It is a client-centered approach, but equal emphasis is placed on the influence of the environment on occupational performance.
B) It is focused on the interaction of the person, task, and context for occupational performance.
C) It is focused on returning the client to fullest functioning as possible, primarily using compensatory methods.
D) Occupation is understood to be the interaction between personal volition, habituation, and performance capacity.
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Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Practice for Occupational Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A) It is an ethical obligation of occupational therapy (OT) professionals to collaborate with clients regarding their service need, provision, risk, and outcome.
B) Systematic OT practice (SOTP) steps are similar to the OT process.
C) Evidence is information used to support a claim.
D) Thinking processes involve the selection of the theoretical framework to be used to assess problems and plan strategy.
E) Inductive reasoning begins with a theory and reduces the theory to its parts, which are then verified through examination with experimental-type research.
Q2) Which type of statement reflects what clients and relevant others would like to happen?
A) Objective
B) Specificity
C) Goal
D) Operational
E) Outcome
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Chapter 6: Health Promotion and Wellness for People With Physical Disabilities
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Q1) Which of the following statements accurately describes the elements of symbols and disability?
A) Symbols can convey feelings, identity, beliefs, and knowledge.
B) Symbols can change over time in a society.
C) Symbols can change in significance depending on an individual's changes in development or life experiences.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately reflects international trends in health promotion concerning occupational justice?
A) The idea of occupational justice first emerged in Canada and Australia.
B) The World Federation of Occupational Therapists has been active in promoting occupational therapy (OT) involvement in occupational justice.
C) The discussion of occupational justice is slowly emerging in the United States.
D) All of the above.
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8
Chapter 7: Documentation of Occupational Therapy Services
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Q1) An occupational profile does not include information about the client's
A) Patterns of daily living
B) Occupational history and experiences
C) Values and interests
D) Needs
E) Past medical history
Q2) Which term below is not an example of skilled terminology?
A) Analyze
B) Maintain
C) Facilitate
D) Design
E) Adapt
Q3) The establishment of goals should be ______________.
A) Determined by the therapist only
B) Determined by the doctor
C) Determined by the client and therapist collaboratively
D) Determined by the client's caregiver or guardian
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Chapter 8: Documentation of Occupational Therapy Services
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Q1) What is the most compelling reason for the therapist to fill out all sections of the Medicare 700 form?
A) Because it makes the therapist appear thorough
B) Because failure to complete a section on the form could result in a technical denial
C) Because supervisors want all the sections completed so they will pass an audit
D) Because filling in all sections makes the need for therapy seem more justified
Q2) Which statement is most true regarding documentation of skilled services?
A) Documentation of skilled services does not necessarily reflect the therapeutic rationale underlying the task performed.
B) Terminology reflecting skilled services includes words such as observe, help, and maintain.
C) Skilled services can be performed safely and/or effectively only by a qualified therapist or under the supervision of a qualified therapist.
D) Progress reports do not have to describe the type of skilled interventions that were provided.
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Chapter 9: Infection Control and Safety Issues in the Clinic
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Q1) When working with a client who has an intracranial pressure (ICP)monitor,certain positions and activities that cause increase in ICP should be limited.Which of the following are examples of activities and/or positions to be avoided?
A) Isometric exercises and neck flexion
B) Isotonic exercises and neck extension
C) Isometric exercises and neck extension
D) Isotonic exercises and neck flexion
Q2) A nosocomial infection is ___________.
A) Bacterial
B) Viral
C) Transmitted via bodily fluids
D) Acquired in the hospital
Q3) Standard precautions for infection control recommend the use of protective clothing (e.g.,gowns,gloves,masks)_________________.
A) When working with all clients
B) Only when working with patients who are diagnosed with infectious diseases
C) When splashing of body substances is likely
D) Only when the therapist has an infectious condition (e.g., cold, flu)
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Chapter 10: Infection Control and Safety Issues in the Clinic
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Q1) An occupational therapy (OT)practitioner is working with a client who has been admitted to the hospital because of complications resulting from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.While working on grooming and hygiene while standing at the sink,the client suddenly begins to get agitated,her skin becomes pale and appears moist,her breathing becomes shallow,and she begins to lose consciousness.Given the client's medical history,she is most likely experiencing which of the following?
A) Respiratory distress
B) Ketoacidosis
C) Insulin reaction
Q2) In addition to teaching the client to use dyspnea control postures,the occupational therapist also teaches the client to use pursed-lip breathing to reduce shortness of breath while performing activities of daily living.Which of the following best describes pursed-lip breathing?
A) Inhaling slowly through pursed lips, then exhaling through the nose
B) Inhaling through pursed lips, then exhaling slowly through the nose
C) Inhaling slowly through the nose, then exhaling through pursed lips
D) Inhaling through the nose, then exhaling slowly through pursed lips
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Chapter 11: Activities of Daily Living
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Q1) IADL skills needed for client safety and independence alone at home include all but which of the following?
A) The ability to retrieve a simple meal
B) The ability to ambulate independently
C) The ability to employ safety precautions
D) The ability to take medications.
Q2) Which of the following is the main technique used for a client with limited joint range of movement (ROM)to perform ADLs?
A) Compensatory strategy involving changing the method in which an activity is performed
B) Changing the environment where the activity is performed
C) Using an assistive device for the activity
D) Treatment including remediation
Q3) An occupational therapist is working with a patient with low vision in her home.Which environmental modification would be contraindicated?
A) Improve lighting by opening blinds and curtains.
B) Simplify figure-ground perception.
C) Use magnifiers with lights.
D) Maximize contrast for the task.
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Chapter 12: Activities of Daily Living
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Q1) IADL skills needed for client safety and independence alone at home include all but which of the following?
A) The ability to retrieve a simple meal
B) The ability to ambulate independently
C) The ability to employ safety precautions
D) The ability to take medications
Q2) Which of the following is the main technique used for a client with limited joint range of movement (ROM)to perform ADLs?
A) Compensatory strategy involving changing the method in which an activity is performed
B) Changing the environment where the activity is performed
C) Using an assistive device for the activity
D) Treatment, including remediation
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an instrumental ADL (IADL)?
A) Care of others
B) Functional mobility
C) Toilet hygiene
D) Bowel and bladder management
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14
Chapter 13: Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client at risk for foot drop deformity may benefit from the use of which orthotic?
A) Supramalleolar orthosis (SMO)
B) Knee-ankle-foot orthosis (KAFO)
C) Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)
D) Hip-knee-ankle-foot orthosis (HKAFO)
Q2) Which of the following is not a component of proper body mechanics used by the therapist when transferring clients?
A) Maintain a wide base of support.
B) Stand close to the client.
C) Use your back rather than your legs.
D) Maintain a neutral spine position.
Q3) During a predriving assessment,testing of _______________ is typically completed first because this is the primary component that an individual uses to gather information required for driving-related decision making.
A) Strength
B) Proprioception
C) Vision
D) Balance
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Chapter 14: Mobility
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Q1) You are an occupational therapist,and your client is a 69-year-old man with left hemiplegia from a cerebrovascular accident.Your client has normal movement on his right side.He has a little movement in his left leg but none in his left arm.He has fair sitting balance but needs significant assistance to maintain a standing position.Which of the following is the most appropriate type of transfer to use to maintain safety and maximize your client's independence in functional mobility?
A) Bent pivot transfer
B) Sliding board transfer
C) Stand pivot transfer
D) Two-person dependent transfer
Q2) You are an occupational therapist with advanced training in driving evaluation.You are working with a client with paraplegia.After completion of a thorough predriving assessment,you determine that your client can safely drive with appropriate vehicle modifications.Which of the following are appropriate modifications for the individual with paraplegia?
A) Left foot accelerator, spinner knob
B) Hand controls for accelerator and brake, hand-operated parking brake
C) Pedal extensions
D) High-technology electronic controls and power equipment
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Work Evaluation and Work Programs
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Q1) Which of the following was the first milestone of occupational therapy (OT)involvement in work programs?
A) "Prevocational" programs were accepted as OT intervention
B) Eleanor Clarke Slagle created a work program at Hull House in Chicago
C) Florence Cromwell established norms on prevocational tests for the disabled
D) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) unveiled a comprehensive approach to ergonomics to decrease musculoskeletal disorders
Q2) _______ addresses "human performance and well-being in relation to one's job,equipment,tools,and environment."
A) Anthropometry
B) Ergonomics
C) Industrial hygiene
D) OSHA
Q3) Which one of these risk factors is not usually included on an ergonomics checklist used by the ergonomics team?
A) Repetitions of task
B) Lunch break and break times
C) Use of vibration
D) Employee pay scale and benefits
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Chapter 16: Work Evaluation and Work Programs
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Q1) LD sustained a spinal cord injury (SCI)at the T-11 level resulting from a car accident.Before his injury he worked as a service manager at a car dealership.He would like to return to this job.What type of vocational evaluation would provide the most information to help him return to his previous job?
A) A specific vocational evaluation
B) A general vocational evaluation
C) Work hardening
D) Valpar 9 Total Body Range of Motion test
Q2) A factory worker on an assembly line has been referred to occupational therapy (OT)for treatment of his right biceps tendonitis,which is prohibiting him from performing at a productive level because of his high pain levels.What risk factor must be closely assessed in a job analysis?
A) Cold temperatures
B) Vibration
C) Repetitions of tasks within a time period
D) Contact stress
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Chapter 17: Americans With Disabilities Act and Related
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neighborhood restaurant needs to comply with ADA requirements to accommodate customers with disabilities.What is the first priority under Title III regulations?
A) Provide parking for the disabled and access into the restaurant.
B) Make the restrooms accessible for all people.
C) Make restaurant tables accessible to wheelchair users.
D) Make the menus more accessible for persons with visual limitations.
Q2) An OT practitioner is working in a public school with a child who uses a wheelchair for all mobility.He tells the OT practitioner that he cannot get into a toilet stall in the bathroom because the stall is too small.What should the OT practitioner do?
A) Perform an accessibility audit of the bathroom and make recommendations to the school principal to provide wheelchair access under the ADA.
B) Tell the student to file a complaint with the Department of Justice in Washington,
C) Ask the principal if the student can use the teachers' bathroom, which is larger.
D) There is nothing that the OT practitioner can do in this situation.
E)C.
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Chapter 18: Leisure Occupations
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Q1) Which of the following age and culture-based activities would an OT practitioner assign to a 55-year-old Asian American woman who is recovering from a stroke?
A) Needlepoint
B) Adapted bowling
C) Swimming
D) Tile games (such as Mah Jong)
E) None of the above
Q2) Samuel is a 47-year-old African American man who owns his own landscaping business.He recently fell off a ladder and hit his head on concrete,causing brain damage.He is able to move all extremities,use a front wheel walker,and speak coherently,although he has problems finding the right word.After completing the Canadian Occupational Performance Measure,the OT practitioner discovered that his most important goal is returning to work.Which leisure occupation do you think would be most appropriate to include in his intervention plan?
A) Gardening in raised beds, giving him the ability to self-direct the activity
B) Playing cards to strengthen his hands and cognitive abilities
C) Cooking, using energy-conservation techniques
D) Grooming a canine companion to improve sequencing abilities and hand movements
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Americans With Disabilities Act and Related
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Q1) For the purposes of determining application of the ADA,"essential job functions" are best determined _________________.
A) On a case-by-case basis, looking at the facts of each situation
B) By the supervisor of the department
C) By the employees doing the job
D) By the written job description
Q2) At which stage of the hiring process can an employer give a functional capacity assessment?
A) Pre-offer stage
B) Post-offer stage
C) During the medical exam
D) During the interview
Q3) What year did Congress pass the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
A) 1973
B) 1990
C) 2002
D) 1969
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Chapter 20: Leisure Occupations
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Q1) As an Area of Occupation,leisure is defined in the Occupational Therapy Practice Framework (2002)as ________________.
A) A nonobligatory activity that is internally motivated and engaged in during an individual's free time
B) An obligatory daily activity that provides the individual with social contacts
C) An activity determined by the occupational therapist to be beneficial to the client
D) Fun activities recommended by the client's family or caregiver
Q2) Which of the following is not a benefit of leisure occupations for adults with physical disabilities?
A) Increased sense of self-worth
B) Increased ability to chew and swallow without aspirating
C) Improved or maintained perceptual abilities
D) Experience of intellectual stimulation
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22
Chapter 21: Occupation-Based Functional Motion Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following is not an expected outcome of an occupation-based functional motion assessment?
A) The OT practitioner conducting interviews with the client to determine the problems encountered during performance of functional activities
B) The OT practitioner having the client perform other tasks associated with his or her habits while interacting in varied environmental contexts
C) The OT practitioner making the decision to conduct formal assessments of performance skills or body function
D) Meaningful intervention goals relative to improving occupational performance will be selected
Q2) The advantage of an occupation-based assessment over a functional motion assessment is that the occupation-based assessment affords the therapist the opportunity to do which of the following?
A) Observe movement patterns.
B) Observe compensatory motions.
C) Observe the effect of added resistance unto body structures.
D) Observe muscle strength and muscle imbalance.
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23
Chapter 22: Joint Range of Motion
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Q1) When ROM of wrist extension is being measured,where is the movable bar of the goniometer placed?
A) Parallel to the metacarpal of the index finger
B) Parallel to the radius
C) Parallel to the metacarpal of the small finger
D) Parallel to the anatomical snuffbox
E) Parallel to the ulna
Q2) Which is true about normal joint ROM?
A) It may not be affected by age.
B) It may not be affected by gender.
C) It may not be affected by occupation.
D) It may not be the same from individual to individual.
E) It may not be determined.
Q3) In the 180-degree system of joint measurement,what is the starting position for joint motion?
A) 0 degree
B) 180 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) Variable depending on whether active ROM or passive ROM is being measured
E) At the natural resting position of the joint
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Chapter 23: Joint Range of Motion
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Q1) An OT practitioner has measured a client's passive thumb metacarpophalangeal (MP)flexion.The recorded ROM is -30 to 0 to 35.What does this tell the therapist?
A) That the joint has normal hyperextension and normal flexion
B) That the joint has limited hyperextension and limited flexion
C) That the joint has abnormal hyperextension and limited flexion
D) That the joint has abnormal hyperextension and normal flexion
Q2) An OT practitioner is evaluating a 58-year-old client who sustained a stroke that resulted in hemiplegia of his right arm 3 months ago.While beginning to assess ROM,the therapist observes that the client's right wrist and hand are swollen and tender.The client reports having fallen in his bedroom the previous day.With regard to the wrist and hand,the therapist should do which of the following?
A) Measure active ROM and passive ROM.
B) Measure passive ROM only.
C) Measure active ROM only.
D) Defer measurements until a later time.
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25
Chapter 24: Evaluation of Muscle Strength
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Q1) During the MMT,when should resistance be applied?
A) Before motion begins
B) Midway through motion
C) Throughout entire motion
D) At end of motion
E) With maximum force
Q2) If a muscle contraction can be seen or felt but no motion is observed,the grade is ____________________.
A) 0
B) 1-
C) 1
D) 1+
E) 2-
Q3) MMT would never be appropriate for a client with which of the following conditions?
A) Peripheral nerve injury
B) Spastic cerebral palsy
C) Muscular dystrophy
D) Spinal cord injury
E) Multiple sclerosis
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Evaluation of Muscle Strength
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Q1) An OT practitioner is testing thumb interphalangeal (IP)flexion strength.The therapist definitely observes flexion of the IP joint but cannot palpate a contraction of the flexor pollicis longus (FPL).What is the most likely reason?
A) The FPL may be too weak to palpate.
B) The client is giving less than maximal effort.
C) The flexor pollicis brevis may be substituting.
D) The extensor pollicis longus may be substituting.
Q2) An OT practitioner is screening a client's wrist extension strength.The client is able to actively extend the wrist partially against gravity.Because of a joint limitation,the client's forearm cannot be placed in neutral rotation.What is the appropriate muscle grade?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
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Chapter 26: Evaluation of Sensation and Intervention for Sensory Dysfunction
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Q1) Why is it important to test temperature sensation before applying heat or cold modalities in the clinic?
A) To avoid burning the client
B) To know whether to adjust the thermostat in the room
C) To know whether to put a blanket on the client
D) To find out whether the client prefers heat over cold or vice versa
Q2) Why is fingertip sensation enhanced compared with proximal parts of our bodies?
A) Because our fingers are more exposed to the environment
B) Because we need more sensation in our fingertips to prevent injury
C) Because fingertips have a higher density of receptors and smaller receptive fields
D) Because fingertips are glabrous
Q3) Why is it important to support the client's hand fully when performing a sensory evaluation?
A) So the client remains relaxed
B) To prevent the hand from moving, which could provide sensory information that interferes with the testing
C) To be sure that the client pays attention
D) To be consistent in technique among all clients
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Chapter 27: Evaluation of Sensation and Intervention for Sensory Dysfunction
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Q1) Normal static two-point discrimination is ____________.
A) 11-15 mm
B) 60-10 mm
C) < 6 mm
D) < 8 mm
Q2) Sensory reeducation includes all but which of the following?
A) Contralateral upper extremity constraint
B) Stimulating localization
C) Tasks of recognition
D) Tasks of graded stimulus
Q3) Which of these is not a sensory threshold test?
A) Moving two-point discrimination
B) Touch-pressure
C) Temperature awareness
D) Pinprick
Q4) What does sensory reeducation require?
A) Specialized and standardized equipment
B) 30-minutes sessions
C) 10- to 15-minute sessions
D) Clients to be experiencing hypersensitivity
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Chapter 28: Eating and Swallowing
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Q1) Mattias is a 65-year-old man who experienced a right cerebrovascular accident resulting in left hemiplegia and dysphagia.During the occupational therapy assessment,Mattias had difficulties with chewing and swallowing of textured foods.He had frequent episodes of coughing and pocketing of food in the left cheek.He complains that he chokes on certain foods,including water.During the assessment Mattias's vocal quality was consistently clear,and no raspiness or gurgly quality was noted before,during,or after eating.These clinical signs indicate problems with which stages of the swallow?
A) Oral preparatory and esophageal stages
B) Oral preparatory and oral stages
C) Pharyngeal and esophageal stages
D) Esophageal and oral stages
Q2) During which phase of the swallow is there closure of the glottic and supraglottic structures to cover the airway and provide protection from aspiration?
A) Pre-oral
B) Oral
C) Pharyngeal
D) Esophageal
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Chapter 29: Evaluation and Treatment of Visual Deficits
Following Brain Injury
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Q1) Major Peanut is lost in space.After his stroke,he is unable to find his way from his hospital room to the nurse's station,the visitor area,or the therapy clinic even though each destination is straight down the hall from his room.He frequently winds up in another client's room and requires assistance to return to his room.On the basis of this behavior,which area of the cortex was most likely affected by his brain injury?
A) Left posterior temporal lobe
B) Occipital lobe
C) Frontal eye fields
D) Right posterior parietal lobe
Q2) Why do persons with hemianopsia often experience difficulty reading?
A) Because they lose their place on the line
B) Because their acuity is diminished by the visual field deficit
C) Because the perceptual span they use in reading has been reduced on one side by the hemianopsia
D) Because they experience language deficits secondary to the brain injury
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Chapter 30: Evaluation and Pain Management
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Q1) In working with Catalina,the occupational therapist should ensure that she takes her pain medications at least 30 minutes before the therapy session to promote maximal participation.Interventions include which of the following?
A) Instruction to bend from the waist when picking up heavy objects
B) Teaching her tasks and positions that move her body out of balance to challenge the low back muscles
C) Energy conservation and pacing during activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living
D) Use of a front-wheeled walker
Q2) What assessments are appropriate for an occupational therapist to use with clients,such as Catalina,who report pain?
A) Visual analog scale
B) Occupational profile
C) Numeric pain intensity scale
D) Activity diaries
E) All of the above
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Chapter 31: Evaluation and Pain Management
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Q1) An occupational therapy (OT)practitioner has received an order to evaluate a middle-aged man because of shoulder pain that is impeding his ability to go back to work. The OT practitioner observes guarded movement,bracing,posturing,rubbing,and facial grimacing.These are examples of which of the following?
A) Asymmetry of the spine
B) Pain behaviors
C) Myasthenia gravis symptoms
D) Hypochondriasis
E) All of the above
Q2) Catalina's low back pain has led to the inability to work and engage in leisure occupations.Which of the following apply to her condition?
A) Is typical of a central pain syndrome
B) Needs to be treated by a physical therapist, not an occupational therapist.
C) Fortunately hasn't produced any fear of movement in Catalina
D) All of the above
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Chapter 32: Orthotics
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Q1) The shape of the forearm changes as it moves from supination to pronation.When a volar splint is being made,which of the following techniques will assist in accommodating this change in the fabrication process?
A) Have the patient lie down to fabricate the splint.
B) Pronate and supinate the forearm continuously during the splint fabrication process.
C) Pronate the forearm before the splint material has set.
D) Make the splint with the forearm in neutral.
Q2) An OT is working with a client experiencing upper extremity weakness from a spinal cord injury.The client wants to be able to use her arm to drive a power wheelchair.The therapist has set up a MAS,but the client is having difficulty horizontally abducting her shoulder enough to reach the joystick control.Which adjustment can the therapist make to facilitate this motion?
A) Roll the semireclining mount outwardly.
B) Pitch the semireclining mount toward the rear of the wheelchair.
C) Lower the semireclining mount on the wheelchair upright.
D) Move the rocker arm more proximally on the forearm support.
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Chapter 33: Orthotics
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Q1) Splints applied after a surgical procedure may require all but which of the following?
A) Frequent adjustments because of edema changes
B) Frequent adjustments because of bandage changes
C) Splinting materials without memory
D) Adaptations for surgical wound sites
E) Preferences of the surgeon
Q2) Which is not true about a MAS?
A) Assists motion through linkage of ball-bearing joints
B) Compensates for proximal weakness in upper extremities
C) Allows for occupational performance
D) Can be used for therapeutic exercise
E) Adjustments require very little training to make
Q3) The distal transverse arch of the hand lies obliquely to the ___________.
A) Proximal interphalangeal joints of digits 2 through 5
B) Metacarpal joint of the thumb
C) Distal interphalangeal joints of digits 2 through 5
D) Wrist carpal bones
E) Metacarpal heads of digits 2 through 5
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Chapter 34: Traditional Sensorimotor Approaches to Intervention
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Q1) Your client,who sustained a RCVA with resultant left hemiplegia,wants to regain the motor control to use the left hand to hold a glass while the uninvolved right hand pours from a pitcher.Which PNF pattern would be the closest approximation to this desired movement for the left upper extremity?
A) D1 flexion
B) D1 extension
C) D2 flexion
D) D2 extension
Q2) You are working with a client who has had a recent RCVA with left hemiparesis.The client has difficulty maintaining trunk control while standing and has difficulty holding objects.Using Rood's approach to motor control,you decide to work with the client in a standing table while the client completes a jigsaw puzzle.This activity would involve which of Rood's components of motor control?
A) Reciprocal inhibition
B) Co-contraction
C) Heavy work
D) Skill
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Chapter 35: Degenerative Diseases of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which statement best represents the function of occupational therapy with clients in the partially independent phase (Phase II)of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
A) Progressive resistive exercises on a daily basis along with stretching
B) Gentle resistive exercise on a daily basis along with training for suctioning
C) Assess and instruct in use of assistive technology and potential power mobility
D) Instruct family members in skin care and train in suctioning
Q2) Which form of multiple sclerosis is the most common and features repeated episodes in which the client has a loss of function and then the function returns?
A) Secondary-progressive
B) Primary-progressive
C) Relapsing-remitting
D) Progressive-relapsing
Q3) What are the three classic clinical symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
A) Resting tremor, spasticity, rigidity
B) Resting tremor, impaired voluntary movement, rigidity
C) Spasticity, impaired postural reflexes, decorticate posture
D) Spasticity, choreiform movements, impaired postural reflexes
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Cerebrovascular Accident Stroke
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Q1) The effects of a client's culture on his performance of an activity fall within which Framework section?
A) Performance in areas of occupation
B) Performance patterns
C) Activity demands
D) Contexts
E) Client factors
Q2) Work is a component of which Framework section?
A) Areas of occupation
B) Performance patterns
C) Activity demands
D) Contexts
E) Client factors
Q3) Sequencing and timing are considered in which Framework section?
A) Performance skills
B) Performance patterns
C) Context
D) Activity demands
E) Client factors
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) For the person with C6 quadriplegia,it is desirable to develop some tightness in the long finger flexors because _____________________.
A) The tightness of the finger flexors, combined with active wrist flexion, can produce some functional grasp through tenodesis action
B) The tightness of the finger flexors, combined with active wrist extension, can produce some functional grasp through tenodesis action
C) The tightness of the finger flexors combined with weak but active wrist flexion can produce a functional hook grasp
Q2) The occupational therapist can help achieve the desired flexor tightness necessary for tenodesis grasp by doing which of the following?
A) Ranging finger flexion with the wrist extended and finger extension with the wrist flexed
B) Ranging finger flexion with wrist flexed and finger extension with wrist extended
C) Ranging finger flexion with wrist at neutral and extension with wrist extended
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Chapter 38: Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) You are testing Rick's upper extremity function.Which of the following series of tests would you select to yield the most comprehensive information?
A) Manual muscle test, synergy patterns, functional muscle examination
B) Manual muscle test, active range of motion (ROM) test, functional motion test, visual perceptual tests
C) Manual muscle test, passive ROM test, functional motion test, sensory test
Q2) While you are treating Rick,he begins to grow pale and faint.According to the text,he is showing signs of _____ and you should _____.
A) Autonomic dysreflexia; elevate his legs
B) Postural hypotension; tip the wheelchair back
C) Autonomic dysreflexia; rush him to the ward and notify the physician
D) Postural hypotension; put his head down between his knees
Q3) Which of the following is another primary goal in the early stage of OT for Rick?
A) Achieve independence in lower extremity dressing
B) Improve physical endurance
C) Learn transfer skills
D) Explore vocational possibilities
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Chapter 39: Disorders of the Motor Unit
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Q1) Edith's story was used as the Guillain-Barré case study in this chapter.Which of the following interventions was used with Edith?
A) A wrist support while reading the newspaper
B) A card holder and card shuffler to play cards independently
C) Prolonged exertion during shopping
D) Cardiac precautions
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a disorder of the neuromuscular junction?
A) Postpolio syndrome
B) Muscular dystrophy
C) Guillain-Barré syndrome
D) Myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 40: Disorders of the Motor Unit
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Q1) An occupational therapist is treating an 18-year-old man who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy.He has expressed fear and anxiety over his declining bodily functions.How might the therapist respond?
A) Help him and his family find meaningful activities in which to participate as individuals or as a family.
B) Encourage the use of humor and to play and laugh together.
C) Refer him for psychological counseling.
D) Refer him to a spiritual advisor.
E) All of the above.
Q2) What interventions are appropriate for an occupational therapist to use with clients who have postpolio syndrome (PPS)?
A) Psychological counseling
B) Pain management
C) Exercise designed to work the muscles at maximum capacity with frequent, intermittent periods of rest
D) Diet recommendations and cooking groups
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Chapter 41: Arthritis
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Q1) Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are two of the more than 100 conditions that make up the rheumatic diseases.These conditions __________________.
A) Are the main reason children under 12 visit a physician
B) Are easily diagnosed by the physician
C) Seldom respond to medications
D) Seldom result in a visit to a physician
E) Are the main reason that adults over the age of 65 visit a physician
Q2) A common hand deformity in rheumatoid arthritis includes which of the following?
A) Metacarpophalangeal (MP) ulnar deviation and wrist ulnar deviation
B) MP radial deviation and wrist ulnar deviation
C) MP ulnar deviation and wrist radial deviation
D) MP radial deviation and wrist radial deviation
Q3) Patients with rheumatoid arthritis frequently have joint replacements or arthroplasties because of the extensive joint damage.All but which of the following joints are common sites for an arthroplasty?
A) The hips
B) The knees
C) The distal interphalangeal joints
D) The MP joints
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Arthritis
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Q1) A clinician is evaluating a client with rheumatoid arthritis.In addition to the client-centered interview,occupational profile,and occupational performance evaluation,the therapist wishes to document the clinical status.The clinician notices severe hand deformities and joint enlargements that may make goniometric measurements difficult.How should the therapist go about documenting digit flexion?
A) The therapist will be unable to measure the joint flexion because of the deformities.
B) The therapist should measure the distance from the fingertips to the distal palmar crease with a ruler.
C) The therapist should measure over the joint enlargements at each joint.
D) The therapist should account and subtract for the enlarged joint in determining the joint flexion.
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44
Chapter 43: Hand and Upper Extremity Injuries
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Q1) Explain why the tip of the thumb flexes when trying to grasp a piece of paper between the thumb and index finger in a client who has ulnar nerve paralysis.
A) Because the flexor pollicis longus substitutes for the absent adductor pollicis muscle
B) Because the extensor pollicis longus is absent in ulnar nerve injuries
C) Because the index flexor tendons are absent in ulnar nerve injuries
D) Because the thumb opponens pollicis is absent in ulnar nerve injuries
Q2) Why is surgery required for neurotmesis?
A) Because it would take too long to wait for the nerve to regenerate
B) Because the nerve is contused
C) Because there is a complete laceration of both nerve and fibrous tissues
D) Because nerve fibers distal to the injury degenerate, despite the fact that the internal organization of the nerve is intact
Q3) What does digital clawing indicate?
A) Weakness or absence of the extensor muscles
B) Weakness or absence of the intrinsic muscles of the hand
C) Weakness or absence of the flexor muscles of the hand
D) Flexor tenosynovitis
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Chapter 44: Low Back Pain
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Q1) Pilar's story was used as the case study in the low back pain chapter.She is a homemaker with a husband and four children.Her occupational performance has been impaired as a result of low back pain during home management activities.During the occupational therapy evaluation,it was noted that Pilar was bending at the waist repeatedly during homemaking activities (e.g.,reaching and pulling opening the vegetable drawer of the refrigerator,removing clothes from dryer,cleaning the bathtub).The occupational therapist ________________.
A) Reassures Pilar that bending at the waist is the normal movement for most people performing these activities and that she just needs to pace her activity level throughout the day
B) Teaches Pilar that bending at the waist increases pressure at the back of the disk and increases stretch at the anterior portion of the vertebral body and disk, thus straining the lower back
C) Instructs Pilar to squat, keeping a straight back while positioned close to the vegetable drawer of the refrigerator while she opens it and removes vegetables
D) Orders a wheelchair for Pilar to use during homemaking activities to rest her back
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Chapter 45: Hand and Upper Extremity Injuries
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Q1) Skier's thumb is _____________.
A) When the thumb locks in flexion
B) When the thumb interphalangeal joint is hyperextended
C) When the thumb web space is contracted
D) Instability of the thumb MP ulnar collateral ligament
Q2) Positive Phalen's test is associated with which of the following?
A) Cubital tunnel syndrome
B) Radial tunnel syndrome
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Trigger finger
Q3) Which of the following best defines axonotmesis?
A) An injury in which nerve fibers distal to the site of injury degenerate but the internal organization of the nerve remains intact
B) Contusion of the nerve without Wallerian degeneration
C) Complete laceration of both nerve and fibrous tissues
D) An injury in which surgical intervention is typically required
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Chapter 46: Burns and Burn Rehabilitation
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Q1) Which is true about a superficial partial thickness burn?
A) It corresponds to a traditionally classified second-degree burn.
B) It involves the superficial epidermis only.
C) Surgical intervention is required for healing.
D) It is not painful.
E) It is commonly caused by extended exposure to chemical agents.
Q2) What is an escharotomy?
A) Incision down to and through muscle fascia
B) Incision through necrotic burned tissue
C) Removal of the epidermal layer of skin
D) Removal of necrotic muscle fascia
E) Removal of necrotic bone
Q3) A burn scar typically matures in _____________.
A) 3-6 weeks
B) 6-12 weeks
C) 3-4 months
D) 8-12 months
E) 12-18 months
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Chapter 47: Burns and Burn Rehabilitation
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Q1) An OT practitioner is treating a client with burns to the chest and upper extremities sustained 6 weeks ago.The client is exhibiting new stiffness and deep pain in the elbow at the end of elbow flexion range.The therapist suspects development of heterotopic ossification and should take which of the following actions?
A) Discontinue all elbow ROM until pain resolves.
B) Initiate dynamic elbow flexion splinting.
C) Have client perform active elbow ROM exercises within pain-free range.
D) Perform more aggressive passive stretching into elbow flexion.
Q2) An OT practitioner is evaluating a client whose primary complaint is the inability to raise her arm to reach high cabinets and shelves.The therapist notes a very tight mature scar band crossing the client's posterior axilla that is limiting full shoulder motion.What should the therapist do?
A) Initiate stretching exercises for shoulder flexion.
B) Explore assistive devices or compensatory strategies to reach items.
C) Fit the client with a clavicular strap.
D) A and
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Chapter 48: Amputations and Prosthetics
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Q1) Which is true about upper and lower extremity amputations?
A) The lower the level of amputation, the greater the functional loss.
B) The higher the level of amputation, the less complicated the prosthesis.
C) The higher the level of amputation, the less prosthetic training needed.
D) The lower the level of amputation, the more joints lost.
E) The higher the level of amputation, the less residual limb length.
Q2) Which is not an advantage of a myoelectric prosthesis?
A) Minimal or no harnessing
B) Lighter weight
C) Increased grip force
D) Ability to use overhead
E) Minimal effort needed to control
Q3) An upper extremity amputation through the distal third of the forearm would be considered what level of amputation?
A) Wrist disarticulation
B) Short transradial
C) Long transradial
D) Elbow disarticulation
E) Short transhumeral
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Amputations and Prosthetics
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Q1) An OT practitioner is evaluating a client who has just received an upper extremity prosthesis.The therapist should instruct the client to begin wearing the prosthesis:
A) Once a day for 30 to 45 minutes, increasing by 60 minutes each day
B) Three times a day for 15 to 30 minutes, increasing by 30 minutes each day
C) Twice a day for 60 to 90 minutes, increasing by 15 minutes each day
D) Four times a day for 10 to 30 minutes, increasing by 45 minutes each day
Q2) An OT practitioner is working with a client who had a unilateral below-knee amputation 2 weeks ago and wants to be able to resume living alone as soon as possible.To meet this goal,the therapist should:
A) Alter the client's preexisting performance patterns.
B) Encourage the client to focus on his former sense of self.
C) Discourage the client's independent process skills.
D) Adapt the client's activity demands.
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Chapter 50: Oncology
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Q1) Palliative therapy is used in the treatment of cancer to _____________.
A) Cure the disease
B) Reduce tumor size
C) Prevent metastases
D) Relieve pain and improve quality of life
Q2) Which of the following is a word for the process of cancer cells being carried to new sites in the body via the blood stream to develop new tumors?
A) Sarcomas
B) Malignancies
C) Lymphomas
D) Metastases
Q3) Peripheral neuropathy,which can include weakness and pain,is associated with this type of cancer therapy:
A) Surgery
B) Radiation therapy
C) Chemotherapy
D) Palliative therapy
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Chapter 51: HIV Infection and Aids
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Q1) According to the Centers for Disease Control,which is the most common age group diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
A) Under 15 years of age
B) Between 15 and 24 years old
C) Between 25 and 44 years old
D) Between 45 and 64 years old
Q2) OT services provided to persons infected with HIV for the purpose of promoting healthy lifestyles,preventing future opportunistic infections,and promoting balance or well-being are examples of which of the following?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Postoperative intervention
Q3) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)can be transmitted through all but which of the following means?
A) Unprotected sex with an infected partner
B) Infected blood transfusion
C) Intact skin-to-skin contact with an infected person
D) During the birth process from infected mother to infant
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