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Rehabilitation Principles explores the fundamental concepts and strategies used to restore optimal function and improve quality of life for individuals recovering from injury, illness, or disability. The course covers key topics such as the stages of rehabilitation, assessment and goal-setting, therapeutic interventions, interdisciplinary collaboration, and evidence-based practice. Students will analyze the physical, psychological, and social aspects influencing rehabilitation outcomes, and examine ethical considerations in patient care. Emphasis is placed on applying theoretical principles to practical scenarios, preparing students to support and guide diverse populations through the rehabilitation process.
Recommended Textbook
Michlovitzs Modalities for Therapeutic Intervention 6th Edition by James W. Bellew PT EdD
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17 Chapters
315 Verified Questions
315 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1022 Page 2
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15 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20246
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is cold therapy often used during the initial stages of injury?
A) Cold increases blood flow to promote healing.
B) Cold blocks A-beta nerve fiber conduction to decrease pain.
C) Cold stimulates release of bradykinins into the tissues to cause vasodilation.
D) Cold causes vasoconstriction, resulting in decreased blood flow to injured tissues.
Answer: D
Q2) In the patient care management model, therapeutic modalities include the use of physical agents to provide which of the following?
A) Palliative care alone
B) Therapeutic benefits
C) Discharge planning
D) Assessment of patient prognosis
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does cryotherapy have on patients with spasticity?
A) No effect
B) Increased
C) Decreased
D) Variable: may increase or decrease
Answer: C
Q2) Your patient has a cast on his lower leg after fracturing his fibula when he fell off his bicycle. Today he is complaining of pain in the lower leg. Can cold therapy help reduce his pain?
A) No, cold will not penetrate plaster casts.
B) Yes, however, the cold modality must be applied under the cast.
C) Yes, however, it will take longer to cool if he has a fiberglass cast.
D) No, the strength of the cast will be weakened by application of cold.
Answer: C
Q3) The addition of compression to cold therapy can improve which of the following?
A) Microcirculation and tissue oxygenation
B) Vasoconstriction and histamine release
C) Nerve conduction velocity and tissue hypoxia
D) Analgesia and edema formation
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following physiological responses to heat will facilitate vasodilation?
A) Increased nerve conduction velocity
B) Release of histamine and prostaglandins
C) Decreased oxygen uptake by heated tissues
D) Increased blood pressure
Answer: B
Q2) When documenting the outcome of a heat therapy treatment, which of the following best indicates that the intervention was effective and should be continued?
A) Patient reports the heat felt warm and comfortable.
B) Skin was red and moist after application of the heat.
C) Patient reported stiffness of joint was reduced immediately following heat application.
D) A 15-degree increase in hamstring length occurred following heat application. Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The technique used to reduce the risk of burning while still getting an effective treatment with an ultrasound applicator with a high beam nonuniformity ratio (BNR) is to
A) Move the US applicator while applying the US.
B) Use pulsed rather than continuous US.
C) Turn down the intensity of the applied US.
D) Use water rather than ultrasonic gel during the US application.
Q2) Evidence is moderate to strong for the contraindication of the use of continuous US in all of the following areas and conditions EXCEPT
A) Cancer-over a known or suspected area of malignancy
B) Active bone growth at the epiphysis
C) Pregnancy-over the shoulders, upper back, and cervical regions
D) Hemorrhagic conditions-over an area of active bleeding
Q3) The optimal intensity to achieve a heating effect of US in muscle tissue is
A) 1 watt/cm²
B) 1.5 watts/cm²
C) 2 watts/cm²
D) There is no optimal intensity because the intensity must be adjusted to meet the needs of the specific patient and the characteristics of the specific US device.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resistance to movement when standing in a pool and performing arm-lowering exercises in the water is provided by which of the following properties of water?
A) Cohesiveness
B) Friction
C) Buoyancy
D) Density
Q2) You have been using pulsed lavage with suction (PLWS) for a patient with a noninfected venous ulcer. You have noted no increase in new granulation tissue in the wound for 1 week. Which of the following is most appropriate at this time?
A) Increase treatment pressure to 20 psi and continue daily PLWS treatments.
B) Discontinue PLWS and consult with the patient's physician.
C) Debride 50% of the granulation tissue and resume PLWS.
D) Discontinue PLWS and start warm whirlpool treatments for the wound.
Q3) Which of the following will increase the amount of resistance to limb movement in water?
A) Moving a limb slowly in the water
B) Raising the limb upward in the water
C) Moving a limb quickly in the water
D) Keeping the limb close to the surface of the water
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Q1) Which of the following answers includes only contraindications and precautions for diathermy?
A) Metal implants, pacemaker, muscle spasm
B) Over cancerous tissue, hemophilia, over testes
C) Pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, non-acute inflammation
D) Infection, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), mechanical joint pain
Q2) Which of the following is true about electromagnetic energy?
A) Has matter that is equal in mass to its frequency
B) Transfers heat via conduction
C) Travels through space without a transport medium
D) Requires contact with the body or another conducting pathway
Q3) Which of the following electromagnetic waves travel through space at the speed of light?
A) Ultraviolet waves
B) Radio waves
C) Infrared waves
D) All electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of light.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mechanical traction is unlikely to be effective in achieving which of the following?
A) Separation of vertebral bodies
B) Distraction of vertebral facet joints
C) Stretching of soft tissues of the spine
D) Permanent reduction of herniated nucleus pulposus
Q2) What is the evidence of the effect of lumbar traction on intradiscal pressures?
A) Intradiscal pressures increase during traction then gradually decrease after traction.
B) Intradiscal pressures decrease during traction then rapidly return to normal after traction.
C) There is no effect on intradiscal pressure during or after traction.
D) The effect on intradiscal pressure during traction is unpredictable.
Q3) A recently published clinical prediction rule for cervical traction includes which of the following?
A) Positive shoulder abduction test
B) Age of 50 years or younger
C) Negative upper limb tension test
D) Increased symptoms with manual distraction
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Q1) Which of the following circumference measurements of the limb must be recorded prior to treatment?
A) 2 cm proximal and 6 cm distal to the garment
B) Every 10 cm from bony landmarks
C) Proximal and distal to the garment
D) Every centimeter of the limb to be treated
Q2) Which of the following instructions would be most helpful for a patient who has just completed the first IPC treatment for lower extremity edema?
A) Put the leg in a dependent position as soon as possible to prevent ischemia.
B) Compensatory swelling in other areas of the body is an expected response to IPC.
C) Avoid moving the treated limb for as long as possible.
D) Wear compression garments to maintain changes in limb volume.
Q3) Use of IPC for treatment of post-traumatic edema should not be performed during which of the following stages of healing?
A) Acute
B) Subacute
C) Chronic
D) Maturation
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Q1) The force of attraction or repulsion created by an electric field that represents potential energy is known as
A) Amperage
B) Impedance
C) Capacitance
D) Voltage
Q2) Why are human body tissues such as muscles, nerves, and blood good conductors of electric current?
A) These tissues have a high resistance to current flow, which allows good conduction of current.
B) These tissues have a high water content and presence of ions.
C) These tissues have a high collagen content and fat molecules.
D) Their location near the surface of the skin makes these tissues easily depolarized.
Q3) Which of the following is the correct description of "direct current"?
A) Flow of electrons directly from a charged object to another object
B) Bidirectional flow of electrons in opposite directions for at least 1 minute
C) Unidirectional flow of electrons for at least 1 second
D) Electrons that flow through a conductor in one direction for less than 1 second
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Q1) Which of the following most likely explains the physiological response to noxious-level stimulation (hyperstimulation) that results in analgesia?
A) Release of endogenous opioids in the central nervous system
B) Closing the "gate" to nociception in the spinal cord
C) Blocking of nociceptive receptors in the skin
D) Release of histamine and prostaglandins into the circulatory system
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes "pulse duration"?
A) Time from the beginning of the first phase to the end of the second phase
B) Total time elapsed from beginning to end of all phases, including interphase interval
C) Total time elapsed from beginning to end of all phases, not including any interphase intervals
D) Time of one pulse, not including any phases or intervals
Q3) Which of the following is NOT believed to occur during treatments using iontophoresis?
A) Electromigration
B) Electroporation
C) Electrosaturation
D) Electroosmosis
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Q1) Modulation of the beat frequency when using interferential current is known as which of the following?
A) Swing
B) Sweep
C) Scan
D) Swift
Q2) Which of the following best describes the evidence-supported level of stimulation amplitude, or intensity, to be used when administering TENS?
A) The amplitude should be just above the sensory threshold.
B) Current amplitude should never rise beyond the motor threshold.
C) Current amplitude should be increased to noxious levels for best effectiveness.
D) Current amplitude should be as strong as is tolerated while still comfortable.
Q3) Analgesic tolerance is most likely to occur with what type of opioid receptor?
A) Kappa
B) Mu
C) Delta
D) Gamma
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20257
Q1) For which of the following diagnoses would use of extracorporeal shockwave therapy be most indicated?
A) Restricted wrist flexion following prolonged immobilization stemming from a distal radius fracture
B) Restricted dorsiflexion stemming from chronic plantar fasciitis
C) Limited shoulder flexion due to posterior shoulder tightness
D) A knee flexion contracture following a total knee arthroplasty
Q2) Which of the following modalities is most appropriate to use on a patient with decreased ROM due to restrictions in the posterior hip capsule?
A) Pulsed ultrasound
B) Pulsed shortwave diathermy
C) Heating pad
D) Extracorporeal shockwave therapy
Q3) Extracorporeal shockwave therapy is thought to impart what physiological effect?
A) An inflammatory response in the target tissues and changes in the viscoelasticity of those tissues
B) Changes in cell membrane permeability to facilitate angiogenesis
C) Hyperpolarization of the peripheral free nerve endings to decrease pain
D) An increase in microvascular blood flow to perfuse injured tissues
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Q1) A possible limitation of NMES is which of the following?
A) The inability of NMES to achieve greater than 50% maximum voluntary contraction (MVC).
B) Recruitment of fast fibers occurs before recruitment of slow fibers.
C) Firing frequencies of muscle fibers are lower than frequencies used during NMES.
D) Duration of NMES treatments is much longer than comparable voluntary strengthening programs.
Q2) What two goals do biofeedback and electrotherapy have in common?
A) Stimulation and recruitment of muscle fibers
B) Enhancement of circulatory dynamics and reduction of muscle spasm
C) Increase in muscle strength and motor unit recruitment
D) Reduction of pain
Q3) The recommended amplitude for NMES to achieve a given level of muscle force is termed which of the following?
A) Dosage
B) Quantum
C) Threshold
D) Frequency
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Q1) Which of the following is supported by the literature when performing cycling FES for patients with spinal cord injuries?
A) 10 or 20 minutes every day
B) 30 to 60 minutes three times per week
C) 10 minutes three times per day, three to four times per week
D) 60 to 90 minutes five times per week
Q2) Which of the following is known about the use of biofeedback for patients who have had a stroke?
A) Current evidence does not show support.
B) Studies confirm it is useful for recovery.
C) It is ineffective for stroke victims because of spasticity.
D) It can be combined with NMES for retraining of gait.
Q3) NMES applied to the antagonist muscle for patients with spasticity will reduce spasticity based on which of the following theories?
A) Reciprocal inhibition of the spastic agonist muscle
B) Recurrent inhibition via Renshaw cells
C) Sensory habituation of the antagonist muscle
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D) Facilitation of parasympathetic neurons in the limb
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Q1) The smallest effective dose of ultraviolet (UV) light should be used for treatment of skin conditions because?
A) UV light can cause permanent discoloration of the skin.
B) The threshold for skin burns is very low and must be avoided.
C) Circulatory compromise has been shown to occur at higher doses.
D) Accumulative effects of UV light are associated with certain cancers.
Q2) The primary indication for hydrotherapy in wound healing is
A) Mechanical debridement
B) Reduction of edema
C) Facilitation of phagocytosis
D) Softening of granulation tissue
Q3) What does the current research literature on the use of MIRE for the treatment of sensory neuropathy show?
A) Research is conclusive that MIRE is effective in restoring sensation.
B) No studies demonstrate that MIRE is effective for this condition.
C) No consistent body of evidence exists supporting MIRE for this condition.
D) Research remains inconclusive regarding effectiveness and concern about harmful side effects.
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Q1) Which of the following is a contraindication for ESWT?
A) Peripheral neuropathy
B) Use of blood thinner medications
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D) Osteoarthritis
Q2) Which of the following is considered a contraindication for use of therapeutic magnets?
A) Placement near internally implanted electronic devices
B) Implanted metal plates and screws for fracture fixation
C) Decreased sensation of the skin caused by peripheral neuropathy
D) Patients with a history of cardiovascular or pulmonary disease
Q3) Which of the following conditions has some support in research literature for possible beneficial effects from treatment with MIRE?
A) Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dysfunction
B) Osteoarthritis of the knees
C) Low back pain
D) Peripheral neuropathy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are primary indicators of demyelination of a nerve?
A) Positive sharp waves and decreased sensory and muscle action potentials
B) Prolonged distal latencies and slowing of nerve conduction velocity
C) Decreased amplitude and blocked nerve conduction
D) Shorter distal latencies and increased nerve conduction velocity
Q2) Which of the following best describes a nerve conduction study (NCS)?
A) Recording resting membrane activity of peripheral axons
B) Measuring the speed of contraction of a muscle following electrical stimulation of a motorneuron
C) Recording evoked responses produced by electrically stimulating a motor or sensory nerve
D) Measuring the difference between nerve conduction velocities of motor and sensory nerves
Q3) Which of the following muscles is most commonly examined in an NCS for possible axonotmesis of the median nerve?
A) Abductor digiti minimi
B) Flexor digitorum profundus
C) Abductor pollicis brevis
D) Extensor digitorum brevis

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