Rehabilitation of Athletic Injuries Question
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Course Introduction
This course focuses on the principles and techniques involved in the rehabilitation of athletic injuries, emphasizing evidence-based approaches to restore function, mobility, and performance in athletes. Students will explore injury assessment, therapeutic exercise prescription, modalities, and progressive return-to-play protocols. The curriculum also covers biomechanical considerations, prevention strategies, and interdisciplinary collaboration essential for effective injury management and successful reintegration of athletes into competitive environments.
Recommended Textbook
Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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Chapter 1: Examination Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who can move his or her body part through a full ROM in a gravity-eliminated position would be given what MMT grade?
A) 1/5, Trace
B) 2/5, Poor
C) 3/5, Fair
D) 4/5, Good
Answer: B
Q2) Which movement would result in a physiological end-feel of "soft" during PROM?
A) Knee flexion
B) Hip flexion with the knee extended
C) Extension of the metacarpophalangeal joint
D) Elbow extension
Answer: A
Q3) What type of consent is needed before evaluating an injury?
A) Implied consent
B) Informed consent
C) Nonconsent
D) Assumed consent
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the primary survey,what part of the on-field examination is performed when the athlete is unconscious,unable to move (or should not be moved),or unable to communicate with the responder?
A) History
B) Palpation
C) Joint stability tests
D) Secondary survey
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following would be a good practice when adding a splint or protective device to an injured area?
A) Check with the referee prior to the event to make sure it is legal.
B) Don't worry about the referee; you are the athletic trainer and you know best.
C) All splints are legal, no matter their construction.
D) Only over-the-counter or off-the-shelf splints and braces should be used.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The higher the prevalence of an injury,the __________ the effect on positive predictive value and the _______ the effect on negative predictive value.
A) higher; higher
B) lower; lower
C) higher; lower
D) lower; higher
Answer: C
Q2) What term describes the likelihood that a specific condition is present before the diagnostic test results are known?
A) Pretest probability
B) Prevalence
C) Efficacy
D) Diagnostic accuracy
Answer: A
Q3) To be clinically useful,a procedure must demonstrate good reliability.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) A second-degree sprain is characterized by which of the following?
A) The ligament is stretched with little or no tearing of its fibers.
B) A normal, firm endpoint is felt.
C) There is gross joint laxity with possible instability.
D) A soft but definite endpoint is present.
Q2) One of the best ways to prevent heterotopic ossification in the quadriceps muscle is to do which of the following?
A) Cast the leg to prevent further movement and injury.
B) Don't stretch the muscle, but instead keep it in full extension.
C) Keep a sustained stretch with the knee maintained in 30° of flexion.
D) Keep a sustained stretch with the knee maintained in 120° of flexion.
Q3) What type of fracture typically results from direct trauma to flat bones?
A) Depressed fracture
B) Transverse fracture
C) Comminuted fracture
D) Compacted fracture
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Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following must be used when performing diagnostic ultrasound?
A) A coupling medium
B) A radiographic dye
C) An electrical current administered through the limbs
D) Electrodes, placed around the area being observed
Q2) In order to get an anteroposterior (AP)view,which of the following is the path diagnostic energy has to take?
A) Posterior-anterior
B) Lateral
C) Anterior-anterior
D) Anterior-posterior
Q3) Sonograms are relatively inexpensive,easy to obtain,risk-free to the patient,and unaffected by the skill of the individual operating the unit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Body piercings are allowed to remain in place during the MRI procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an agonist muscle becomes overactivated,what is the effect it has on the antagonist muscle?
A) It becomes weaker.
B) It becomes stronger.
C) It responds in the same fashion as the agonist.
D) It has no effect on the antagonist.
Q2) Which of the following could be the cause of postural problems?
A) Performing the same task for the last 5 years
B) Getting a new mattress at home
C) Running 3 miles per day, 4 days per week, for the last 4 years
D) Putting pants on one leg at a time
Q3) Which of the following is not a phasic muscle?
A) Piriformis
B) Subscapularis
C) Lower trapezius
D) Rhomboids
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Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect would a decreased ability to dorsiflex have on the terminal stance phase of the gait cycle in the weight-bearing limb?
A) Decreased heel rise
B) Premature heel rise
C) Increased ability to toe-off
D) Decreased ability to supinate
Q2) During which period of the stance phase of gait should one demonstrate the greatest hip flexion angle?
A) Initial contact
B) Midstance
C) Terminal stance
D) Preswing
Q3) What type of muscle activity best describes the iliopsoas during terminal stance?
A) Concentric
B) Eccentric
C) Isometric
D) Inactive
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Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ligament is also referred to as the "spring" ligament?
A) Calcaneocuboid
B) Long plantar
C) Medial talocalcaneal
D) Plantar calcaneonavicular
Q2) Typically,where is pain centralized when someone has plantar fasciitis?
A) Medial calcaneal tubercle
B) Sustentaculum tali
C) Navicular tuberosity
D) Base of the fifth metatarsal
Q3) During static weight bearing,in which of the following foot postures does the forefoot compensate by abducting and everting,resulting in a more planus foot?
A) Rearfoot varus
B) Forefoot valgus
C) Forefoot varus
D) Rearfoot valgus
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Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is not located in the deep posterior compartment?
A) Flexor hallucis longus
B) Peroneus longus
C) Tibialis posterior
D) Flexor digitorum longus
Q2) What is the normal active range of motion (ROM)for ankle plantar flexion?
A) 0° to 75°
B) 0° to 20°
C) 0° to 60°
D) 0° to 50°
Q3) Which of the following structures can be palpated just posterior to the fibular head?
A) Peroneus longus
B) Lateral meniscus
C) Common peroneal nerve
D) Peroneal artery
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11
Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which position should the knee be placed in order to palpate the menisci?
A) 15° of flexion
B) 30° of flexion
C) 45° of flexion
D) 0° of flexion
Q2) Which of the following is the origin and insertion of the sartorius?
A) Anterior superior iliac spine and pes anserine tendon
B) Anterior superior iliac spine and fibula
C) Anterior superior iliac spine and adductor tubercle
D) Anterior inferior iliac spine and the pes anserine tendon
Q3) Where does the sweep test assess for swelling?
A) Inside the joint capsule
B) Outside the joint capsule
C) Inside or outside the joint capsule
D) Neither inside nor outside the joint capsule
Q4) Which part of the joint capsule is supported by the arcuate ligament?
A) Posterolateral
B) Posteromedial
C) Anterolateral
D) Anteromedial
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bursa lies deep at the distal end of the quadriceps femoris muscle group and is an extension of the knee's joint capsule?
A) Prepatellar bursa
B) Suprapatellar bursa
C) Subcutaneous infrapatellar bursa
D) Deep infrapatellar bursa
Q2) An athlete presents to the athletic training room complaining of knee pain.Upon evaluation you notice the athlete's patella is high riding and sitting laterally.What patellar alignment problem does the athlete have?
A) Patella alta
B) Patella baja
C) Squinting patella
D) "Frog-eyed" patella
Q3) Patellofemoral pain syndrome typically presents with pain in what area of the knee?
A) Anterior
B) Posterior
C) Medial
D) Lateral
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13
Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the Y-shaped ligament of the hip that originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)?
A) Ischiofemoral
B) Pubofemoral
C) Ligamentum teres
D) Iliofemoral
Q2) What would a positive hip scouring test indicate?
A) Osteochondral defect of the femur
B) Tight rectus femoris
C) Femoral acetabular impingement
D) Tightness of the iliotibial band
Q3) When measuring hip abduction and adduction,the distal arm is placed parallel to the midline of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In what position is the hip when in Bonnet's position?
A) Extension, adduction, and internal rotation
B) Extension, abduction, and internal rotation
C) Flexion, abduction, and external rotation
D) Flexion, adduction, and external rotation
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Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a classic procedure used to determine whether an individual is malingering during the performance of functional and special tests?
A) Waddell signs
B) Hoover test
C) Oswestry Disability Index
D) Visual analog scale
Q2) Which of the following tests is not used to identify intervertebral disc lesions?
A) Hoover test
B) Femoral nerve stretch test
C) Tension sign
D) Milgram's test
Q3) Which of the following ligaments resist flexion and rotation? Select all that apply.
A) Anterior longitudinal
B) Interspinous
C) Ligamentum flavum
D) Posterior longitudinal
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15
Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kehr's sign is referred pain to the upper left abdomen and shoulder,indicating appendicitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In what position should a patient be placed when testing for cervical flexion and extension motion?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Standing
D) Seated
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the ribs?
A) The upper two ribs are protected by the clavicle and the pectoralis major.
B) The upper ribs 8 to 9 are protected posteriorly by the scapula.
C) Most rib fractures are the result of overuse injuries.
D) The floating ribs are the most commonly fractured ribs.
Q4) Wry neck
A)Nystagmus
B)Patency
C)Torticollis
D)Myelopathy
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Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who exhibits a painful arc during abduction will usually experience pain in which of the following ranges?
A) Between 60° and 120°
B) Between 70° and 90°
C) Between 70° and 110°
D) Between 120° and 180°
Q2) The superior angle should sit at what spinous process level during observation of the vertebral borders of the scapula?
A) T1
B) T7
C) T3
D) T12
Q3) Which of the following is true of the SC joint?
A) The clavicle meets directly with the manubrium.
B) It has the poorest bony stability of any major joint.
C) It has weak ligamentous structure.
D) Its fibrocartilaginous disk decreases the stability of the joint.
Q4) When palpating the bicipital groove,the _______ _______ is lateral to the groove,and the ________ _________ is on the medial aspect of the groove.
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Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not correct in performing the test for lateral epicondylalgia?
A) The patient is positioned with the elbow flexed and the forearm supinated.
B) The examiner palpates the lateral epicondyle.
C) The examiner resists wrist extension through full range of motion.
D) The test may also be performed with the elbow extended.
Q2) What is the angle formed by the long axis of the humerus and ulna known as?
A) Angle of torsion
B) Angle of inclination
C) Carrying angle
D) Q angle
Q3) Which of the following is not a predisposing condition associated with distal biceps tendon rupture?
A) Statin use
B) Anabolic steroid use
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Diabetes
Q4) Name the four individual articulations of the elbow.
Q5) List the structures within the cubital fossa.
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Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is responsible for checking radial deviation and becomes taut at the end-ranges of flexion and extension?
A) Radial collateral ligament (RCL)
B) Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL)
C) Palmar radiocarpal ligament
D) Dorsal radiocarpal ligament
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) An avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus is known as mallet finger.
B) A mallet finger presents with an inability to actively flex the distal interphalangeal joint (DIP).
C) Pseudoboutonnière deformities show with limited active and passive extension.
D) A rupture of the volar plate is known as a boutonnière deformity.
Q3) What is the primary extensor of the lateral four fingers' interphalangeal (IP)joints and assists in wrist extension?
A) Extensor carpi radialis longus
B) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
C) Extensor carpi ulnaris
D) Extensor digitorum communis
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19
Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pathology is the fluorescent dye test most commonly used for?
A) Traumatic iritis
B) Corneal abrasion
C) Orbital fracture
D) Retinal detachment
Q2) A teardrop pupil is of serious concern and is an indicator of the possibility of which of the following?
A) Hyphema
B) Subconjunctival hematoma
C) Exophthalmos
D) Corneal laceration
Q3) What is the treatment for a patient who has an object that is impaled in the eye?
A) Remove the object and cover both eyes for transportation.
B) Leave the object in place, stabilize it, and cover both eyes for transportation.
C) Remove the object and cover only the affected eye for transportation.
D) Leave the object in place and stabilize it, leaving the unaffected eye uncovered for patient comfort.
Q4) Name the bones that form the eye orbit.
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Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a tooth is avulsed and cannot be reimplanted,which of the following is an appropriate step?
A) Clean and scrub the debris off the tooth, rinse with saline, and place the tooth in gauze inside of the mouth.
B) Store the tooth in skim milk.
C) Sterilize the tooth, then store in a biocompatible storage environment.
D) Rinse the tooth with saline and store in whole milk if an emergency tooth preserving kit is not available.
Q2) Once a laceration's bleeding is controlled,the area around the laceration should be checked for which of the following?
A) Foreign bodies
B) Tenderness
C) Extent of the wound
D) Foreign bodies, tenderness, and the extent of the wound
Q3) Which of the following indicates temporomandibular joint (TMJ)pathology?
A) Mastication of the teeth
B) Malocclusion of the teeth
C) Occlusion of the teeth
D) A fractured tooth
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Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that head injuries occur most frequently in women's/girl's high school athletics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What section of the brain's primary function is to maintain balance and coordination?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Parietal lobe
C) Temporal lobe
D) Cerebellum
Q3) What can the presence of nystagmus indicate? Select all that apply.
A) Disruption of the inner ear
B) Corneal abrasion
C) A ruptured globe
D) Pressure on the motor nerves of the eye
Q4) Which of the following statements is true regarding epidural hematomas?
A) They are formed between the brain and dura mater.
B) Symptoms can occur days or even weeks after the initial trauma.
C) They are a result of arterial bleeding.
D) They are a result of venous bleeding.
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