Rehabilitation of Athletic Injuries Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the strategies and practices involved in the rehabilitation of athletic injuries. Students will examine the physiological and biomechanical principles underlying sport-related injuries, as well as the assessment techniques used to develop individualized rehabilitation plans. Emphasis is placed on therapeutic modalities, corrective exercises, and progression criteria to ensure safe return to play. The course also covers current trends in injury prevention, interdisciplinary collaboration with healthcare professionals, and considerations for special athletic populations. Practical applications and case studies are integrated to prepare students for real-world clinical situations in athletic rehabilitation settings.
Recommended Textbook
Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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20 Chapters
843 Verified Questions
843 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Examination Process
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to perform manual muscle testing (MMT),which of the following has to occur?
A) Active range of motion (AROM)
B) Passive range of motion (PROM)
C) Resistive range of motion (RROM)
D) Maximal voluntary isometric contraction (MVIC)
Answer: A
Q2) Which part of the examination process allows the examiner to detect tissue damage or tissue change by comparing the findings of one body part with those of the opposite one?
A) History
B) Physical examination
C) Inspection
D) Palpation
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before you perform manual muscle testing (MMT)on an athlete's knee,which of the following should occur first?
A) The athlete should be able to walk without an antalgic gait.
B) The athlete should be able to perform active ROM (AROM).
C) The athlete should be assessed to make sure there are no positive ligamentous stress tests.
D) The athlete should be able to jog in place.
Answer: B
Q2) During the inspection portion of the on-field evaluation,which of the following is not a finding that warrants immediate physician referral?
A) Obvious fracture
B) Unequal chest expansion
C) Obvious joint dislocation
D) Report of significant chest pain
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To be clinically useful,a procedure must demonstrate good reliability.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What is a test's clinical usefulness if the reliability measure is greater than 0.75?
A) Poor
B) Moderate
C) Good
D) Excellent
Answer: C
Q3) A positive test result must have a minimum positive likelihood ratio of which of the following to significantly add to the pretest probability that the condition is present?
A) Greater than 1
B) Less than 1
C) Greater than 10
D) Less than 10
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe an inflammation of the muscle tendon sheath?
A) Tenosynovitis
B) Peritendinitis
C) Tendinitis
D) Tendinosis
Q2) Which of the following is the most common force causing injury to a muscle or ligament?
A) Compression
B) Torsion
C) Tension
D) Shear
Q3) A 12-year-old boy reports pain,periods of joint locking,and an inability to use his arm.Which of the following injuries does this boy have?
A) Osteochondral defect
B) Meniscal tear
C) Ligament sprain
D) Olecranon bursitis
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Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging technique offers superior visualization of the body's soft tissues,including inflamed tissues?
A) CT scan
B) Radiograph
C) MRI
D) Bone scan
Q2) Which of the following describes the fluid that appears in a T2-weighted MRI image?
A) Dark
B) Bright
C) Intermediate
D) Gray
Q3) Which tissue is not considered "intermediate" when viewing a proton density MRI?
A) Fluid
B) Muscle
C) Bone marrow
D) Ligament
Q4) Body piercings are allowed to remain in place during the MRI procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the reflexive response of the antagonist muscle?
A) Autogenic inhibition
B) Reflexive inhibition
C) Reciprocal inhibition
D) Inhibitory inhibition
Q2) Which of the following is not a cause for a flat back posture?
A) Shortened or tightened hip extensors and abdominal musculature
B) Weakened or elongated hip flexors and back extensors
C) Poor postural sense
D) Strong hip external rotators
Q3) Which of the following is defined as a portion of striated muscle fiber lying between two membranes?
A) Inert tissue
B) Sarcomere
C) Actin
D) Myosin
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Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The knee is flexed 30° to 60° in the swing phase during walking.By how much can the knee flex in fast running speeds?
A) More than 100°
B) More than 90°
C) More than 80°
D) More than 70°
Q2) During which period of the stance phase of gait should one demonstrate the greatest hip flexion angle?
A) Initial contact
B) Midstance
C) Terminal stance
D) Preswing
Q3) During the gait cycle,a plantar-flexed position (initial contact on the ball of the foot)at initial contact can indicate all of the following except
A) quadriceps pathology.
B) gastrocnemius spasticity.
C) drop foot.
D) hamstring pathology.
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Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Walking on the heel to avoid push-off may indicate all of the following except
A) metatarsal fracture.
B) calcaneal injury.
C) plantar fasciitis.
D) great toe pathology.
Q2) Which tarsal bone (often referred to as the "keystone")comprises the main structure of the medial longitudinal arch?
A) Navicular
B) Calcaneus
C) Cuboid
D) First cuneiform
Q3) How many muscles attach to the talus?
A) Zero
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
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Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ligaments is assessed using the anterior drawer test of the ankle?
A) Anterior talofibular
B) Anterior tibiofibular
C) Calcaneofibular
D) Deltoid
Q2) What position does the ankle need to be placed in if you want to assess the distal syndesmosis while performing the external rotation test?
A) Neutral
B) Dorsiflexion
C) Plantar flexion
D) Inversion
Q3) Which of the following is not an anatomical and physiological factor predisposing individuals to lateral ankle sprains?
A) Decreased proprioceptive ability
B) Tightness of the triceps surae muscle group
C) Increased muscular strength
D) Lack of muscular coordination
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11
Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) During open-chained kinetic exercise,at what range of motion (ROM)is the strain on the ACL the greatest?
A) 0° to 30° of extension
B) 0° to 30° of flexion
C) Full extension
D) 120° of flexion
Q2) Which of the following can occur following ACL surgery?
A) Gain in hamstring strength
B) Loss of patellar function
C) Loss of knee extension
D) Gain in sartorius strength
Q3) Which of the following is the origin and insertion of the sartorius?
A) Anterior superior iliac spine and pes anserine tendon
B) Anterior superior iliac spine and fibula
C) Anterior superior iliac spine and adductor tubercle
D) Anterior inferior iliac spine and the pes anserine tendon
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Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During open-chain knee movement,at what degree does the patella begin to track laterally when moving from flexion into extension?
A) 5°
B) 18°
C) 23°
D) 45°
Q2) Which of the following helps to maintain the patella's position and originates off the vastus lateralis tendon and the iliotibial (IT)band?
A) Lateral retinaculum
B) Medial retinaculum
C) Medial patellofemoral ligament
D) Lateral patellofemoral ligament
Q3) Which of the following muscles is responsible for preventing lateral patellar subluxation?
A) Vastus medialis
B) Vastus lateralis
C) Vastus intermedius
D) Gracilis
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13
Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what position is the hip when in Bonnet's position?
A) Extension, adduction, and internal rotation
B) Extension, abduction, and internal rotation
C) Flexion, abduction, and external rotation
D) Flexion, adduction, and external rotation
Q2) When measuring hip abduction and adduction,the distal arm is placed parallel to the midline of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is false regarding the hip articulation?
A) It is the most stable of all body joints.
B) Range of motion is sacrificed due to joint structure.
C) The femoral head articulates with the iliac portion of the pelvis.
D) It affords three degrees of freedom of movement.
Q4) Which of the following can be used to test the tightness of the rectus femoris?
A) Thomas test
B) Ober test
C) Thompson test
D) Both the Thomas test and Ober test
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Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spinal injuries during athletic competition account for what percentage of all spinal injuries?
A) 5% to 10%
B) 10% to 15%
C) 15% to 20%
D) 20% to 25%
Q2) What is the ligament that reinforces the facet joints and has an elastic property that assists the trunk in returning from flexion to the neutral position?
A) Ligamentum nuchae
B) Interspinous ligament
C) Supraspinous ligament
D) Ligamentum flavum
Q3) The quadrant test requires that the patient extend the spine 15° followed by side bending and rotation to the affected side.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary movement occurring between the L1 and L4 vertebrae is rotation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle group sits deep and lateral to the semispinalis group?
A) Longus capitis and longus colli
B) Splenius capitis and splenius cervicis
C) Trapezius
D) Longissimus capitis and longissimus cervicis
Q2) Kehr's sign is referred pain to the upper left abdomen and shoulder,indicating appendicitis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the least common form of thoracic outlet syndrome?
A) Neurogenic
B) Vascular
C) Nonspecific
D) Cervical rib
Q4) Freely open
A)Nystagmus
B)Patency
C)Torticollis
D)Myelopathy
Q5) The supraspinous ligament is called the _______ ________ in the cervical region. Page 16
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who exhibits a painful arc during abduction will usually experience pain in which of the following ranges?
A) Between 60° and 120°
B) Between 70° and 90°
C) Between 70° and 110°
D) Between 120° and 180°
Q2) What is the only member of the rotator cuff group that internally rotates the humerus?
A) Supraspinatus
B) Infraspinatus
C) Teres minor
D) Subscapularis
Q3) Which position would place the GH joint in its closed-packed position?
A) 90° anterior flexion with internal rotation
B) Adduction with internal rotation
C) Adduction with external rotation
D) 90° abduction with external rotation
Q4) Define the plane of the scapula.
Q5) Name all the muscles that have a direct action on the scapula.
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Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a muscle of the wrist flexor group?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Supinator
C) Extensor carpi radialis longus
D) Abductor pollicis longus
Q2) Which of the following is the most important history finding regarding elbow trauma?
A) Onset and location of symptoms
B) Onset and type of pain
C) Location of symptoms and type of pain
D) Location of symptoms
Q3) What is the bundle of the UCL that is the primary restraint against a valgus force when the elbow is flexed beyond 60°?
A) Anterior
B) Transverse
C) Posterior
D) Medial
Q4) Most elbow injuries are the result of low-load repetitive stresses.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The probability of fracturing the hook of the hamate is increased when someone is gripping an object such as a bat or racquet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the muscle responsible for flexing the four proximal interphalangeal (PIP)joints?
A) Flexor carpi radialis
B) Flexor carpi ulnaris
C) Palmaris longus
D) Flexor digitorum superficialis
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) An avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus is known as mallet finger.
B) A mallet finger presents with an inability to actively flex the distal interphalangeal joint (DIP).
C) Pseudoboutonnière deformities show with limited active and passive extension.
D) A rupture of the volar plate is known as a boutonnière deformity.
Q4) Name the two muscles of the flexor grouping that are not innervated by the median nerve.
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ is an anterior displacement of the globe,whereas ______________ is a posterior displacement of the globe.
Q2) What is the treatment for a patient who has an object that is impaled in the eye?
A) Remove the object and cover both eyes for transportation.
B) Leave the object in place, stabilize it, and cover both eyes for transportation.
C) Remove the object and cover only the affected eye for transportation.
D) Leave the object in place and stabilize it, leaving the unaffected eye uncovered for patient comfort.
Q3) Elastic balls are of great concern because the expansive force may be of a magnitude to rupture the globe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A normal-appearing eye from the outside correlates well with internal damage. A)True
B)False
Q5) Name the bones that form the eye orbit.
Q6) When checking pupillary reaction,what is considered a positive test?
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is clenching or grinding the teeth known as?
A) TMJ dysfunction
B) Bruxism
C) Epistaxis
D) Malocclusion
Q2) What are three signs and symptoms of a potentially catastrophic injury resulting from a blow to the throat?
Q3) Which cranial nerve (CN)can become impaired when an auricular hematoma is present?
A) CN V
B) CV VIII
C) CV I
D) CN IV
Q4) Explain how to perform Weber's test and what is considered a positive test.
Q5) Which of the following muscles is innervated by the trigeminal nerve?
A) Buccinator
B) Geniohyoid
C) Masseter
D) Orbicularis oris
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Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can the presence of nystagmus indicate? Select all that apply.
A) Disruption of the inner ear
B) Corneal abrasion
C) A ruptured globe
D) Pressure on the motor nerves of the eye
Q2) Which cranial nerve(s)are responsible for eye movement?
Q3) Which assessment can quickly assess or determine a patient's analytical skills?
A) Romberg's test
B) Babinski's test
C) Serial 7's test
D) Oppenheim's test
Q4) What type of injury occurs to a patient when this or her skull is moving at a relatively high velocity and is suddenly stopped,such as a volleyball player falling and striking her head on the court?
A) Coup
B) Contrecoup
C) Subconcussive
D) Cardiac contusion
Q5) What are the four scored sections of the Standardized Assessment of Concussion (SAC)test?
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