Registered Nursing (RN)
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
The Registered Nursing (RN) program prepares students for a professional career in healthcare by equipping them with the knowledge, skills, and clinical experience necessary to provide high-quality patient care across diverse healthcare settings. Emphasizing nursing theory, evidence-based practice, and holistic patient-centered care, the curriculum covers foundational sciences, pharmacology, medical-surgical nursing, pediatric and maternity care, mental health, and community health nursing. Students gain hands-on practice through clinical rotations and simulation labs, while coursework also develops critical thinking, effective communication, ethical decision-making, and leadership abilities. Graduates are eligible to take the NCLEX-RN licensure examination and pursue roles in hospitals, clinics, long-term care facilities, and community organizations.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a cost-effective delivery of care used by many hospitals that allows the LPN/LVN to work with the RN to meet the needs of patients?
A) Focused nursing
B) Team nursing
C) Case management
D) Primary nursing
Answer: C
Q2) What is a nursing program considered when certified by a state agency?
A) Accredited
B) Approved
C) Provisional
D) Exemplified
Answer: B
Q3) How does an interdisciplinary approach to patient treatment enhance care?
A) By improving efficiency of care
B) By reducing the number of caregivers
C) By preventing the fragmentation of patient care
D) By shortening hospital stay
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a lunch break, an emergency department (ED) nurse truthfully tells another nurse about the condition of a patient who came to the ED last night. What is the ED nurse guilty of? (Select all that apply.)
A) HIPAA violation
B) Slander
C) Libel
D) Invasion of privacy
E) Defamation
Answer: A, D
Q2) An LPN/LVN is asked by the RN to administer an IV chemotherapeutic agent to a patient in the acute care setting. What law should this nurse refer to before initiating this intervention?
A) Standards of care
B) Regulation of practice
C) American Nurses' Association Code
D) Nurse practice act
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Documentation
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Q1) What should a medical record provide for all health care providers? (Select all that apply.)
A) Care given to the patient
B) Care planned for the patient
C) A patient's nursing problems
D) A patient's medical problems
E) Details about any incident reports
F) The patient's response to treatment
Answer: A, B, C, D, F
Q2) What makes home health care documentation unique?
A) Some charting is retained at the hospital.
B) The physician's office needs separate charting.
C) Different health care providers need access.
D) The physician is the pivotal person in the charting.
Answer: C
Q3) Documentation using the DARE format (Data, Action, Response, Education) includes elements of the __________ charting system.
Answer: focused
Focused charting uses the acronym DARE to direct and formalize charting.
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Page 5
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Chapter 4: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are examples of passive listening? (Select all that apply.)
A) The nurse nods frequently while the patient speaks.
B) The nurse maintains eye contact while listening to the patient.
C) The nurse occasionally interjects, "I see," when listening to the patient.
D) The nurse gives verbal feedback to the patient.
E) The nurse verbally interprets the meaning of what the patient has said.
Q2) A nurse is communicating with an older adult. How might the nurse enhance communication?
A) Speak in a rapid manner to accommodate the patient's short attention span.
B) Speak in a lower voice tone to accommodate hearing loss.
C) Speak in a simple manner as if speaking to a child.
D) Speak in a loud voice directly at ear level.
Q3) A patient states, "My husband has told me how he feels about my having a mastectomy." The nurse nods and says, "Go on." This is an example of:
A) clarifying.
B) restating.
C) focusing.
D) minimal encouraging.
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Q1) During an admission assessment, the nurse collects objective and subjective data. What is an example of objective data?
A) The patient complains of chest pain.
B) The patient states, "I feel nauseous."
C) The patient complains of feeling faint.
D) The patient is short of breath on exertion.
Q2) Any health care condition that requires diagnostic, therapeutic, or educational actions is known as a ______________.
Q3) What is classified as information provided by the family when a patient is unable to provide data during assessment?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Unreliable
D) Biased
Q4) What assists the nurse in the identification of nursing diagnoses?
A) Objective data
B) Subjective data
C) Data clustering
D) Validated data
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Q1) What basic philosophy in the United States is relevant to health care?
A) Folk remedies
B) Biomedical therapy
C) Holistic therapy
D) Spiritual intervention
Q2) A nation, community, or broad group of people who establish particular aims, beliefs, or standards of living and conduct is known as a _____________.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a female neonate born to observant Orthodox Jewish parents. What book does the nurse know will be used when naming this neonate?
A) Bible
B) Koran
C) Holy Torah
D) Book of Mormon
Q4) What is the term for a group of people who share biologic physical characteristics?
A) Race
B) Culture
C) Religion
D) Social organization
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Q1) What technique should the nurse use when disposing of linens contaminated with feces?
A) Don gown, gloves, and mask
B) Wash hands for 5 minutes after disposal
C) Don gloves only
D) Double-bag the sheets
Q2) The nurse is instructing a bioterrorism class regarding anthrax. How can anthrax be transmitted?
A) From person to person
B) Through microscopic skin punctures
C) Through inhalation of the spores
D) By exposure to animals that have anthrax
Q3) A person can spread a bacterial infection by which actions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Kissing others
B) Sneezing at work
C) Donating blood
D) Coming in contact with blood products
E) Leaving used tissue on the lavatory
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9
Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a fall occurs, the nurse should document the incident and initiate a(n) ___________ report.
Q2) The LPN/LVN assists a patient into the semi-Fowler position per physician order. What would indicate that this patient is in the correct position?
A) Patient is leaning over the bedside table
B) Head of bed is at a 30-degree angle
C) Knee is drawn toward the chest
D) Arms are flexed toward the head
Q3) The nurse instructs a nursing assistant to use large muscle groups when lifting. What is the rationale for this instruction?
A) Workers' compensation claims will be prevented
B) Big muscles work more effectively
C) It guarantees no muscle strain
D) It distributes workload more evenly
Q4) How should the nurse assist the patient with moving when pain is anticipated?
A) Be supportive
B) Apply heat before moving them
C) Administer medication before ambulation
D) Obtain assistance if the patient is heavy
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Q1) Because of its effect on epithelization, the LPN/LVN should confirm the order to use ____________ or _____________ on a stage III pressure ulcer.
Q2) A patient is recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy and experiences dizziness within 5 minutes when taking a sitz bath. What action should the nurse implement?
A) Cover the patient to prevent chilling
B) Stay with the patient until the full time for the bath has elapsed
C) Remove the patient from the sitz bath and return to bed
D) Assess vital signs every 5 minutes during the remainder of the sitz bath
Q3) The physician orders a patient to be placed in the reverse Trendelenburg position. How should the nurse place the bed?
A) On the floor
B) Parallel with the floor
C) Tilted with the head of the bed down
D) Tilted with the foot of the bed down
Q4) To prevent skin breakdown in a wheelchair-bound patient, the nurse teaches the patient to shift the patient's weight every _______ minutes.
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Q1) A long-term care facility is committing to a restraint-free environment. What will the health care workers implement to encourage this environment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Frequent orientation to surroundings
B) Explain all procedures and treatments
C) Discourage visitors
D) Maintain toileting routines
E) Minimize exercise and ambulation
Q2) The emergency department nurse admits a victim of poisoning. Who should the nurse call to receive the best assistance for dealing with this victim?
A) American Red Cross
B) Fire department paramedics
C) Poison control center
D) Civil defense office
Q3) The nurse conducting a seminar on bioterrorism reviews several types of agents that may be used as weapons. An agent that does not seriously damage or kill the target population but only impairs it is classified as _____________.
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Q1) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.
Q2) What type of body temperature remains relatively constant?
A) Surface
B) Rectal
C) Oral
D) Core
Q3) The nurse uses cooling techniques to keep the body temperature below 105° F. What can result from an elevated temperature?
A) Excessive thirst
B) Excessive perspiration
C) Damage to body cells
D) Increased heart rate
Q4) How should the nurse position the ear pinna when using the tympanic thermometer on a child?
A) Upward and back
B) Parallel
C) Downward and back
D) Upward and forward
Q5) The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86, noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The signs and symptoms of both infection and inflammation include erythema, edema, and pain. What is considered the major difference between infection and inflammation?
A) Inflammation is a result of bacteria.
B) Inflammation is a protective response.
C) Inflammation is a disease process.
D) Inflammation produces tissue damage.
Q2) A nursing assessment is a process of collecting data to establish a database. The information contained in the database is a basis for:
A) a complete physical examination.
B) a medical assessment.
C) an individualized plan of care.
D) writing nursing orders.
Q3) A physician documents that a patient has a scleral icterus. How does the nurse describe the color of the patient's sclera?
A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Yellow
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Q1) When should discharge planning begin?
A) The day before discharge
B) On the first day postoperatively
C) Shortly after admission
D) When the doctor orders it
Q2) What essential part of the admission procedure is performed by the RN?
A) Securing the patient's valuables
B) Confirming the type of insurance coverage
C) Obtaining a health history
D) Familiarizing the patient with the room
Q3) A patient who is alert and oriented is threatening to leave the hospital against medical advice (AMA). What action should the nurse take?
A) Forcibly detain and restrain the patient.
B) Administer a sedative hypnotic medication.
C) Prevent patient from leaving until an AMA form is signed.
D) Notify the physician that the patient is threatening to leave AMA.
Q4) Some _____________________patients consider sundown Friday to sundown Saturday to be the Sabbath, which is a time of rest.
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Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the advantages of a transparent dressing? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adheres to undamaged skin
B) Contains the exudate
C) Reduces wound contamination
D) Serves as a barrier to external bacteria
E) Slows epithelial growth
Q2) The nurse assessing a postoperative patient discovers that the pulse is rapid, blood pressure has decreased, urinary output has decreased, and the dressing is dry. What can the nurse determine is indicated by these findings?
A) Pain shock
B) Dehydration
C) Internal hemorrhage
D) Acute infection
Q3) Which solution(s) can be used on a wet-to-dry dressing? (Select all that apply.)
A) Normal saline
B) Lactated Ringer
C) Acetic acid
D) Dakin
E) Lysol
Q4) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following an intravenous pyelogram, the nurse should watch the patient closely for a delayed reaction to the dye, usually occurring within ___ to ___ hours following the procedure.
Q2) A patient has just had a liver biopsy. What should the nurse do immediately following this procedure?
A) Assist the patient up to a chair
B) Keep the patient on his or her left side
C) Assist the patient with ambulation
D) Tell the patient to avoid coughing
Q3) After a bone scan, the nurse assesses a hematoma at the injection site of the dye. The nurse should apply ______ soaks or compresses.
Q4) What is the rationale for the nurse to assess a patient's knowledge of an ordered procedure?
A) To determine difficulties the patient may encounter
B) To determine the nurse's role in the procedure
C) To determine health teaching required
D) To determine anxiety the patient has
Q5) When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be left on no more than ____ to ____ minutes.
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A burn patient is brought into the emergency department with the following burns: half of the front torso, entire left arm, and front of left leg. The nurse should record that the patient has a ______% burn.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital after receiving a blow to the head. The patient begins to show signs of shock. How should the patient be positioned?
A) With the head lower than the body
B) Flat with the legs elevated
C) Flat on the back
D) In a side-lying position
Q3) The nurse is assisting a victim of an accident who requires bandaging of the right lower extremity. What should the nurse do when applying the bandage?
A) Use sterile material
B) Leave the toes exposed
C) Bandage the extremity tightly
D) Bend the knee after bandaging
Q4) When two nurses perform two-person CPR, there should be _____ slow breaths for every _____ compressions.
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) The nurse reassures a patient that almost _____% of all health care consumers in the United States take some form of herbal or natural supplement alone or in combination with conventional medicines but rarely report this practice to their health care providers.
Q2) What training system may help prevent osteoporosis?
A) Acupressure
B) Yoga
C) Therapeutic massage
D) Tai chi
Q3) Herbal remedies vary from pharmaceutical remedies in what way(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Herbal remedies use the whole plant.
B) Herbal remedies have no quality control.
C) Herbal remedies have no standard dose.
D) Herbal remedies are sold as food supplements.
E) Herbal remedies are always safe and effective.
Q4) ___________________is a noninvasive method an individual can employ to learn control of the body to manage certain conditions. Monitoring equipment is used to measure vital signs and muscle tension. The messages are sent back to the individual.
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Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Q1) A patient tells the nurse he is reluctant to report his pain because he does not want to be a bother. What problems is the nurse aware that unrelieved pain can cause? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased oxygen demand
B) Depression
C) Respiratory dysfunction
D) Decreased GI motility
E) Irritability
Q2) A young athlete asks the nurse why he felt little pain when he broke his leg during a game. What does the nurse describe as having an effect on this patient's perception of pain?
A) Hormones
B) Enzymes
C) Adrenaline
D) Endorphins
Q3) What is the best approach for a nurse to use when planning pain relief measures?
A) Use a variety of pain relief methods
B) Use only nonopioid analgesics
C) Use at least three alternating methods
D) Use only one method at a time
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Q1) What is the term for stored fat that insulates the body and serves as a cushion to protect organs?
A) Subcutaneous tissue
B) Adipose tissue
C) Cohesive tissue
D) Lipid tissue
Q2) The nurse makes nutrition a focus in the care plan. Where does nutrition play the most important role?
A) Weight control
B) Sustained appetite
C) Building strong bones
D) Health maintenance
Q3) Careful attention to carbohydrate consumption can improve metabolic control of diabetes. The nurse teaches a meal planning approach that focuses on the total amount of carbohydrates eaten at a meal. What is this meal planning approach called?
A) Carbohydrate splitting
B) Reduced caloric intake
C) Carbohydrate counting
D) Carbohydrate balancing
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Q1) The nurse explains to a patient that the drug Lasix reduces edema by drawing water from the interstitial space into the intravascular space. What is this process called?
A) Diffusion
B) Filtration
C) Osmosis
D) Homeostasis
Q2) The lactating mother is counseled by the nurse to eat adequate amounts of meat and legumes. What level will this help to increase?
A) Potassium
B) Chloride
C) Magnesium
D) Phosphorus
Q3) Homeostasis of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids depends on the ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate in the extracellular fluid. What is this ratio?
A) 1:5
B) 1:10
C) 1:15
D) 1:20
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22
Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Q1) The following information is included in a physician's order:
Jane Doe
September 23
Amoxicillin 250 mg PO every 6 hours for 10 days
Dr. John Smith
The essential component missing is the _____________.
Q2) What is 6.147 rounded to the nearest tenth?
A) 6.2
B) 6.15
C) 6.14
D) 6.1
Q3) Which is the same ratio as 2:100?
A) 1:50
B) 5:300
C) 1:20
D) 4:25
Q4) To help relax the anal sphincter during the insertion of a suppository, the nurse should ask the patient to ____________.
Q5) When giving a tubal medication, the nurse should flush the tubing with ___ to ___ mL of water.
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Q1) While teaching a patient about the signs of IV therapy-associated phlebitis, how does the nurse describe an area with phlebitis?
A) Warm, edematous, and red
B) Painful and cyanotic
C) Painless and numb
D) Edematous and cool
Q2) Which of the following is an appropriate nursing measure when performing tracheostomy care?
A) Wear clean gloves
B) Insert the catheter without suction
C) Suction for 1 minute before removing the catheter
D) Place the used catheter in a plastic shield for later use
Q3) To what temperature should water for eye compress be heated?
A) 95° F
B) 110° F
C) 115° F
D) 120° F
Q4) The appliance that connects to an IV drip and delivers a continuous irrigation to the eye is known as a ________ _________ _________.
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Q1) Which theory of aging suggests that the older person who is more socially active is more likely to adjust well to aging?
A) Activity theory
B) Autoimmunity theory
C) Wear-and-tear theory
D) Disengagement theory
Q2) A child who uses senses and motor abilities to understand the world is displaying characteristics consistent with which stage of Piaget cognitive development?
A) Sensorimotor stage of cognitive development
B) Preoperational stage of cognitive development
C) Formal operational stage of cognitive development
D) Concrete operational stage of cognitive development
Q3) What is the stage of family development that begins at the birth or adoption of the first child?
A) Expectant stage
B) Parenthood stage
C) Establishment stage
D) Engagement/commitment stage
Q4) The process that refers to gradual change and differentiation is _____________.
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Q1) The nurse explains to a grieving husband that the process of the resolution of the hurt and the reestablishment of his life is called the __________ ___________.
Q2) What is the first thing the nurse should do before involving the family in the care of a dying patient?
A) Ask the patient if he or she wants family care
B) Ask family members if they want to assist with care
C) Check the hospital policy on the family giving care
D) Set a caring example
Q3) Upon being told of her father's death, the daughter cries out, "No! Oh, God, no!" What stage of grief is the daughter in?
A) Anger
B) Bargaining
C) Denial
D) Prayer
Q4) What is the termination of tube feedings to a dying patient considered?
A) Active euthanasia
B) Holistic care
C) Passive euthanasia
D) Terminal care
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Q1) What does the increase in circulating blood volume during pregnancy cause in the mother?
A) Shortness of breath
B) Frontal headaches
C) Decreased white blood cell count
D) Decreased hemoglobin
Q2) A woman tells the nurse that this is her third pregnancy. She has had twin girls at full term and one miscarriage. How does the nurse record the information?
A) G2, T2, L3
B) G4, T3, A1, L1
C) G3, T3, A2, L1
D) G3, T1, A1, L2
Q3) When can the sex of the fetus be confirmed?
A) Conception
B) 2 weeks
C) 6 weeks
D) 9 weeks
Q4) During the 30th week of gestation, the nurse would anticipate that the fundal height would be _____ centimeters above the symphysis.
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Q1) A woman who is 38 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that the baby has dropped and she is having urinary frequency again. What do these symptoms describe?
A) Lightening
B) Braxton-Hicks contractions
C) Initiation of labor
D) Engagement
Q2) The patient's membranes have just ruptured. What is the first priority of the nurse?
A) Turn the patient on the left side
B) Perform a Nitrazine test
C) Check the fetal heart rate (FHR)
D) Perform a vaginal examination
Q3) Which assessment findings suggest probable fetal distress? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fetal heart rate (FHR) of 120
B) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
C) Decreased FHR during contractions
D) Strong contractions 10 seconds apart
E) Slow return of FHR to baseline
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Q1) When is breast engorgement most likely to occur?
A) When the infant's mouth surrounds the areola when feeding
B) When the breast tissue becomes congested
C) When the breast is emptied completely at each feeding
D) When the infant's mouth grasps the nipple firmly
Q2) After delivery of a 9-lb baby, the nurse assesses a perineal laceration extending through the muscles of the perineum. The nurse records this as a ________-degree laceration.
Q3) What is the appropriate way to assess the fundus of the postpartum patient?
A) Using the side of one hand moving down from the umbilicus
B) Using one hand over the lower segment of the uterus
C) Using one hand pushing upward from the lower uterus
D) Using one hand on the lower uterine segment while the other hand locates the fundus of the uterus
Q4) Which finding should the nurse suspect as abnormal in the newborn during the initial assessment?
A) Eyes crossed at times
B) Persistent high-pitched cry
C) Arms and legs flexed
D) Slight bluish tinge of the extremities
29
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Family with Special Needs
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Q1) A neonate is born with weak muscle tone, froglike extremities, and ears that fold easily. From these observations, what gestational age should the nurse give this infant?
A) Full term
B) Small for gestational age
C) Preterm
D) Post-term
Q2) Compared to older infants of comparable weight, how much higher is the morbidity and mortality rate for preterm infants?
A) 1 to 2 times
B) 2 to 3 times
C) 3 to 4 times
D) 4 to 5 times
Q3) The nurse assures a patient who has become sensitized to the Rh antigen that she can be protected for future pregnancies by receiving what injection?
A) Iron
B) Vitamin B12
C) RhoGAM
D) Type O blood
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5483
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are physical risks associated with excess weight? (Select all that apply.)
A) Poor eyesight
B) Heart disease
C) Arthritis
D) Stroke
E) Appendicitis
Q2) What is the leading cause of fatal injury in children younger than 1 year old?
A) Burns
B) Poisons
C) Asphyxiation
D) Motor vehicle accidents
Q3) Which of the following interventions should be included when teaching a healthy behaviors class for parents of adolescents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Always monitor the child's telephone conversations
B) Insist on seatbelt use at all times
C) Encourage tanning bed use versus exposure to the sun
D) Maintain recommended immunization schedule
E) Encourage good dental care
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5484
Sample Questions
Q1) When a safety reminder device (SRD) is used to protect a child, what is a responsibility of the nurse?
A) Apply it loosely
B) Remove it every 2 hours
C) Place it over clothing
D) Apply only one type
Q2) What is the purpose of a mist tent?
A) To provide a constant oxygen supply
B) To liquefy respiratory secretions
C) To aid in lowering temperature
D) To improve the infant's hydration
Q3) When attempting to provide information to the parents of a child undergoing surgery, the nurse notes that the parents appear confused and do not seem to remember what they are being told. What is the most probable cause of the parents' forgetfulness?
A) Noisy environment
B) Serious nature of surgery
C) Increased level of parents' anxiety
D) Developmental age of the child
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5485
Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn has talipes and is wearing casts. How often should the casts be changed?
A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Bi-weekly
D) Monthly
Q2) When the mother of a child with gastroesophageal reflux calls the clinic nurse to report that her baby is vomiting small amounts of blood, the nurse explains that the esophagus has been irritated by _______ ________.
Q3) The nurse reminds a family that people with autism are also referred to as ________.
Q4) What is the hallmark sign of intussusception?
A) Mucus-like stools
B) Currant jelly-like stools
C) Tarry, black stools
D) Green, soft stools
Q5) The nurse reassures the anxious mother of a child with pyloric stenosis who is to have surgery that the surgical procedure, called a __________, is quickly done and the child recovers almost immediately.
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5486
Sample Questions
Q1) The older patient informs the nurse that food has no taste and therefore the patient has no appetite. What is this most likely caused by?
A) Tasteless food
B) Overuse of salt
C) Lack of variety
D) Loss of taste buds
Q2) An older adult is having difficulty swallowing. What position should the nurse recommend to aid in swallowing?
A) Chin parallel
B) Chin upward
C) Chin down
D) Chin to the side
Q3) When assessing the skin of an older adult patient who is complaining of pruritus, what should the nurse advise the patient to avoid to reduce further drying of her skin?
A) Perfumed soap
B) Hard-milled soap
C) Antibacterial soap
D) Lotion soap
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is sensitive to the fact that patients lose control over their lives when admitted to the hospital. In what does this loss of control frequently result?
A) Anger
B) Depression
C) Fear
D) Anxiety
Q2) The majority of people function in a relatively healthy manner. What can diminish their functional capacity?
A) Lack of a support system
B) Periods of crisis
C) Nutritional deficits
D) A physical disease process
Q3) What definition should the nurse use to clarify the concept of "mental health"?
A) A wellness of attitude
B) A person's response to disease and dysfunction
C) The ability to cope and adjust to everyday stresses
D) How the person performs activities of daily living
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient with a psychosis is thought to be a danger to self or others, by what method should the patient be admitted to the hospital?
A) Probating
B) Nurse's request
C) Physician's order
D) Family request
Q2) The home health nurse assesses a patient who creates elaborate excuses for not leaving home. Further questioning reveals the patient had not left home for 6 months. How should this be documented?
A) Mania
B) Depression
C) Agoraphobia
D) Anxiety
Q3) A 14-year-old survivor of a school shooting screams and dives under a table when firecrackers go off. What does this behavior represent?
A) Phobia
B) Post-traumatic stress disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) Disordered thinking
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best response by a nurse when a patient inquires how alcohol acts so quickly on his system?
A) Alcohol is digested quickly.
B) Alcohol is converted to glycogen immediately.
C) Alcohol is metabolized into ethanol rapidly.
D) Alcohol is excreted in urine slowly.
Q2) The nurse should assess a patient for which criteria of addiction? (Select all that apply.)
A) Excessive use of the substance
B) Increase in social function
C) Uncontrollable consumption
D) Increase in economic function
E) Psychological disturbances
Q3) When a patient is admitted with an overdose of an opioid narcotic, the nurse should anticipate an order for which drug to reverse the effects of the narcotic?
A) Clonidine
B) Narcan
C) Orlaam
D) Methadone
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5490
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse describes a new technological service to the patient that will monitor several assessments remotely. This new intervention is known as ___________ home visits.
Q2) By offering enteral, parenteral, intravenous, and blood transfusion therapies, what can home care services prevent?
A) Morbidity
B) Hospitalization
C) Hospice care
D) Mortality
Q3) The licensed nurse can delegate which task(s) to the home health assistive personnel?
A) Bathing the patient
B) Assessing ability to void
C) Administering an injection
D) Teaching about medications
Q4) When the decision is made with the family to place the patient on hospice care, the home health nurse explains that the reimbursement changes from "fee per visit" to "fee per _________."
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Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What differentiates the services of a long-term care facility from that of an assisted living facility?
A) Skilled nursing care
B) Personal care services
C) Weekly visits by the staff physician
D) Intensive rehabilitation services
Q2) Two unique members of the caregiving team in a long-term care facility are the ___________ ___________ aide/technician and the ___________ _____________ assistant.
Q3) What impact will the Affordable Care Act have on nursing homes and long-term care centers when fully implemented? (Select all that apply.)
A) A weaker consumer complaint system
B) Better training for state inspectors
C) Program to support national criminal background checks
D) Public disclosure of nursing home owners and operators
E) Training of nursing assistants in the care of people with dementia
Q4) The nurse explains to a patient that shopping, using a phone, and administering his own medications are classified as ____________ activities of daily living.
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5492
Sample Questions
Q1) A 33-year-old patient with a spinal cord injury says to the nurse, "I've let my family down. I don't know what to do." What would be the best response by the nurse?
A) "After your rehabilitation starts, you'll feel better."
B) "You should be grateful you are alive."
C) "What does this injury mean to you?"
D) "Technological advances are changing the future for spinal cord injury victims."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a victim of post-traumatic stress syndrome. The nurse identifies which techniques as examples of therapeutic communication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Listening
B) Reframing
C) Characterizing
D) Normalizing responses
E) Working to develop trust
Q3) The nurse who assesses for cultural influences, values cultural diversity, and incorporates cultural knowledge in practice is said to be ____________
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hospice nurse documents an assessment finding of cachexia in the patient record. What does cachexia describe?
A) Deep sleep and unresponsiveness
B) Marked weakness and emaciation
C) Total addiction to opioids
D) Renewed energy
Q2) The hospice nurse instructs caregivers in repositioning the patient because the patient spends most of the time reclining. What problem can this cause?
A) Contractures
B) Pressure ulcers
C) Bruising
D) Excoriation
Q3) What symptom of hospice patients is the most dreaded and feared, and should be a priority of symptom management?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Grief
D) Pain
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of epithelial membranes?
A) Secretes mucus, lines ends of bones, and lines bursae
B) Lines ends of bones, secretes synovial fluid, and lines internal surfaces of organs
C) Covers the wall of lower digestive tract, secretes mucus, and lines lungs, peritoneum, and pericardium
D) Lines lungs, peritoneum, and pericardium, and secretes synovial fluid
Q2) The anatomic structure that is not in the thoracic cavity is/are the _____.
A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Blood vessels
D) Transverse colon
Q3) The body plane that divides the body into the ventral and dorsal section is the_________ plane.
Q4) The four phases of cell division all occur in:
A) diffusion.
B) mitosis.
C) osmosis.
D) filtration.
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to minimize the potential for venous stasis?
A) Place pillows under the knee in a position of comfort
B) Assist patient to sit with feet flat on the floor
C) Assist with early ambulation
D) Perform gentle leg massage
Q2) The nurse caring for a postsurgical patient is aware that the patient should void ____ to _____ hours postsurgery.
Q3) The patient who had a nephrectomy yesterday has not used the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) delivery system but admits to being in pain but fearful of addiction. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Modern analgesic drugs do not cause addiction."
B) "Pain relief is worth a short period of addiction."
C) "Addiction rarely occurs in the brief time postsurgical analgesia is required."
D) "Addiction could be a real concern."
Q4) What is the ideal time for preoperative teaching?
A) Immediately before surgery to eliminate fear
B) 2 months in advance so the patient can prepare
C) 1 to 2 days before the surgery when anxiety is not as high
D) In the surgical holding area
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5496
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do when administering a therapeutic bath to a patient who has severe pruritus?
A) Use Burow's solution to help promote healing
B) Rub the skin briskly to decrease pruritus
C) Limit bathing to 3 times a week
D) Ensure that bath area is at least 85 degrees and dehumidified
Q2) During primary survey assessment of a burn patient, the nurse checks for which of the following as early signs of carbon monoxide poisoning? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dizziness
B) Urticaria
C) Vomiting
D) Headache
E) Vertigo
F) Unsteady gait
Q3) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
Q4) The three major glands of the skin are __________, ___________, and
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies to a patient who is being evaluated for possible rheumatoid arthritis that the elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate indicates the presence of:
A) immunoglobulin M.
B) abnormal serum protein.
C) increased inflammatory reaction in the body.
D) C-reactive protein.
Q2) Which of the following are the main purposes of traction? (Select all that apply.)
A) Align and stabilize a fracture
B) Prevent deformities
C) Relieve muscle spasms
D) Promote bed rest
E) Increase circulation to the rest of the body
Q3) A patient's patellar-femoral cartilage has deteriorated due to arthritis. The medial and lateral cartilage is undamaged. This patient is likely to undergo _________ knee replacement surgery.
Q4) The emergency department nurse assesses the two cardinal signs of a hip fracture in a newly admitted patient, which are the___________ of the injured leg and the ______rotation of that same leg.
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to the patient with Crohn disease that the tube feedings allow for:
A) Rapid absorption in the upper GI tract
B) Decompression of the stomach
C) Reduction of diarrheic episodes
D) A permanent nutritional support
Q2) Which of the following are indicators of colorectal cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Constant diarrhea
B) Excessive flatulence
C) Cachexia
D) Cramps
E) Rectal bleeding
F) Anemia
Q3) The nurse anticipates that the patient who has had a subtotal gastrectomy will need supplemental:
A) protein due to the loss of some of the digestive processes.
B) vitamin B12 due to the loss of the intrinsic factor.
C) bulk to prevent constipation.
D) vitamin A due to the loss of the gastric lining.
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary
Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a T-tube for an open cholecystectomy has resumed oral intake. The T-tube is clamped 2 hours before meals and unclamped 2 hours after meals to aid in the digestion of fat. During the time the tube is clamped the patient complains of abdominal pain and nausea. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Notify the physician
B) Unclamp the tube immediately
C) Increase the IV fluids
D) Change the T-tube dressing
Q2) Which medical interventions and management systems control the bleeding of esophageal varices? (Select all that apply.)
A) Transfusions
B) Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
C) Band ligation
D) Cryotherapy
E) Portocaval shunt
F) Large doses of vitamin B12
Q3) The disease that is on the increase because of the growing obesity population and is associated with coronary artery disease and use of corticosteroids is_______________.
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Care of the Patient with a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of excess bands in the peripheral blood that indicate severe infection is called:
A) shift to the left.
B) shift to the right.
C) bone marrow aspiration.
D) thrombocytosis.
Q2) What are the most likely matches for a bone marrow transplant to a 10-year-old with leukemia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Uncle
B) Self
C) Mother
D) Brother
E) Sister
F) Father
Q3) The peripheral smear is a diagnostic test that:
A) assesses the level of hemoglobin.
B) measures antibody production.
C) examines the shape and structure of RBCs.
D) identifies infection.
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Q4) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
Chapter 47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral
Vascular Disorder
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse making the schedule for the daily dose of furosemide (Lasix) would schedule the administration for which of the following times?
A) Late in the afternoon
B) At bedtime
C) With any meal
D) In the morning
Q2) What is the difference between primary and secondary hypertension?
A) Secondary hypertension is caused by another disorder like renal disease.
B) Secondary hypertension is related to hereditary factors.
C) Secondary hypertension cannot be treated effectively.
D) Secondary hypertension is no real threat to health.
Q3) A patient admitted to the emergency room with a possible myocardial infarction (MI) has reports back from the laboratory. Which laboratory report is specific for myocardial damage?
A) CK-MB
B) Elevated white count
C) Elevated sedimentation rate
D) Low level of sodium
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is on postoperative day 2 after undergoing a total hip replacement. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and is coughing up blood-tinged sputum. What should be the nurse's initial intervention?
A) Report signs to the charge nurse.
B) Elevate head of bed and administer oxygen.
C) Prevent patient from excessive coughing.
D) Increase IV flow rate.
Q2) How should the newly diagnosed patient who has been prescribed isoniazid (INH) for the treatment of active tuberculosis (TB) be advised?
A) Report redness and swelling of extremities
B) Accept that the therapy is long term
C) Monitor renal function every several months
D) Rise slowly to avoid dizziness
Q3) When assessing the SaO? with a pulse oximeter, the nurse will place the oximeter on a finger:
A) on the same side as the blood pressure cuff.
B) while exercising the arm to stimulate circulation.
C) that is a normal temperature.
D) on the same side as an arterial catheter.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse counsel the young man with chronic prostatitis to avoid?
A) Cessation of intercourse
B) Warm baths
C) Stool softeners
D) Continuing antibiotics when symptoms abate
Q2) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
Q3) The nurse assessing a patient who is taking furosemide (Lasix) finds an irregular pulse. This is likely a sign of:
A) hypomagnesemia.
B) hypernatremia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hypercalcemia.
Q4) What should the nurse instruct the patient to do before obtaining the urine specimen for a urine culture?
A) Collect the urine for a 24-hour period
B) Obtain a clean-catch specimen
C) Bring in an early morning specimen
D) Limit fluid intake to concentrate the urine
Q5) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
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Chapter
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse inflates the sphygmomanometer cuff exceeding the systolic blood pressure and observes a carpal spasm, this is a(n) __________ ____________.
Q2) A patient has returned to his room after a thyroidectomy with signs of thyroid crisis. During thyroid crisis, exaggerated hyperthyroid manifestations may lead to the development of the potentially lethal complication of:
A) severe nausea and vomiting.
B) bradycardia.
C) delirium with restlessness.
D) congestive heart failure.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving calcium gluconate for treatment of hypoparathyroid tetany. Which assessment would indicate an adverse reaction to the drug?
A) Increase in heart rate
B) Flushing of face and neck
C) Drop in blood pressure
D) Urticaria
Q4) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
Q5) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Q6) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
Page 52
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ___________ is performed to evaluate living tissue to establish or confirm a diagnosis or to follow the course of a disease.
Q2) What does the diagnosis of secondary infertility refer to?
A) Has never conceived
B) Is infertile because of repeated infection
C) Has conceived but is now unable to do so
D) Is over the age of 38
Q3) The patient, age 52, is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy. Why is postoperative elevation of the patient's arm important after this procedure?
A) To prevent vascular and lymph stasis, thus lymphedema
B) To prevent drainage accumulation at the incisional site
C) To prevent wound infection and dehiscence
D) To prevent pleural effusion and respiratory distress
Q4) Which patient is most at risk for the infection of epididymitis?
A) 17-year-old athlete who trains for several hours a day
B) 22-year-old who has been exposed to mumps
C) 45-year-old who was circumcised at the age of 10
D) 50-year-old who has smoked for 30 years
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Q5) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What must a patient do following a left vitrectomy?
A) Remain flat in bed for 48 hours
B) Position self in a face-down position for 4 to 5 days
C) Assume a side-lying position with the left side down for 3 days
D) Keep head upright and cushioned with pillows for 24 hours
Q2) What is a common mistake that hinders communication when communicating with the hearing impaired?
A) Overaccentuating words
B) Facing the patient when speaking
C) Speaking in conversational tones
D) Speaking into the ear with the hearing aid
Q3) One of the housekeepers splashes a chemical in the eyes. What should be the first priority?
A) Transport to a physician immediately
B) Cover the eyes with a sterile gauze
C) Irrigate with H2O for 5 minutes
D) Irrigate with normal saline solution for 20 minutes
Q4) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
Q5) Progressive deafness caused by the ankylosis of the stapes is the condition of__________.
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Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 45, is to have a myelogram to confirm the presence of a herniated intervertebral disk. Which nursing action should be planned with respect to this diagnostic test?
A) Obtain an allergy history before the test.
B) Ambulate the patient when returned to the room after the test.
C) Use heated blanket to keep patient warm after procedure.
D) Keep NPO for 6 to 8 hours after the test.
Q2) An 83-year-old patient has had a stroke. He is right-handed and has a history of hypertension and "little" strokes. He presents with right hemiplegia. To afford him the best visual field, the nurse should approach him:
A) from the right side.
B) from the left side.
C) from the center.
D) from either side.
Q3) The nurse explains that the triad of signs of Parkinson disease is: _______, _______ and _______
Q4) A ___________ is a diagnostic procedure used to identify lesions by observing the flow of radiopaque dye through the subarachnoid space.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Care of the Patient with an Immune Disorder
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To provide examples of an active acquired immunity, the nurse uses the example of a person who has acquired immunity from measles because that person has had: (Select all that apply.)
A) Chickenpox and mumps
B) Measles
C) An extremely healthy immune system
D) An inoculation against measles
E) Maternal antibodies against measles
Q2) Which symptom would be classified as a mild transfusion reaction?
A) Orthopnea
B) Tachycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Wheezing
Q3) In which patient should the nurse be most concerned about immunodeficiency disorder?
A) The patient taking desensitization injections (immunotherapy)
B) The patient on long-term radiation therapy for cancer
C) The overweight patient
D) The patient recently diagnosed with lupus erythematosus
Q4) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
Page 56
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5509
Sample Questions
Q1) A 21-year-old male who has been an IV heroin user has been experiencing fever, weight loss, and diarrhea and has been diagnosed as having AIDS. At this time, he has a low-grade fever, severe diarrhea, and a productive cough. He is admitted with Pneumocystis jiroveci. What should the nurse do when caring for the patient?
A) Use a gown, mask, and gloves when assisting the patient with his bath
B) Wear a gown when assisting the patient to use the bedpan
C) Use a gown, mask, and gloves to administer oral medications
D) Use a mask when taking the patient's temperature
Q2) The historical progress of the HIV infection began to be tracked in 1979. Arrange the historical events in sequence of their discovery. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Infection in heterosexual men and women
B) Infection in hemophiliacs
C) Infection in injection drug users
D) Increased incidence of Kaposi carcinoma in young homosexual men
E) Increased incidence of Pneumocystis jiroveci (previously PCP)
Q3) The nurse explains that an enzyme ____________ ____________ allows the RNA of the retrovirus to be changed to DNA and incorporated into the host's genetic material.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5510
Sample Questions
Q1) How would the nurse explain to the patient who is taking cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an alkylating agent, about how the medication works?
A) It inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis
B) It interferes with DNA replication
C) It damages the cell in S phase of replication
D) It alters the hormonal environment that promotes cancer growth
Q2) Which of the following are risk factors for cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ethnicity
B) Environmental irritants
C) Alcoholism
D) Hereditary factors
E) Excessive exercise
F) Exposure to ultraviolet light
Q3) How many minutes of daily exercise does the American Cancer Society recommend as a prevention of cancer?
A) 10 minutes
B) 15 minutes
C) 20 minutes
D) 30 minutes
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) A manager is concerned that one of the nurses on the unit is experiencing burnout. Which symptoms would support the concerns? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fatigue
B) Forgetfulness
C) Increased energy
D) Negative outlook
E) Changes in eating habits
Q2) In what setting can the LPN/LVN's management and leadership skills be developed best?
A) Acute care hospital
B) Rehabilitation hospital
C) Trauma center
D) Long-term care facility
Q3) What is another term for promotion?
A) Reward
B) Advancement
C) Lift
D) Bubble
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