Chapter 1: Human Resource Management: Gaining a Competitive Advantage
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Q1) Which of the following HRM practices involves employees participating in peer interviews?
A)Work design
B)Performance management
C)Training
D)Staffing
E)Compensation
Answer: D
Q2) The balanced scorecard should not be used to link a company's human resource management activities to the company's business strategy.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) In exchange for working longer hours without job security, employees want companies to provide flexible work schedules and comfortable working conditions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Strategic Human Resource Management
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Q1) Which of the following is a challenge of downsizing?
A)It becomes difficult to change an organization's culture after downsizing.
B)It fails to force employees to cooperate with management.
C)It restricts organizations from developing new and positive relationships.
D)It is difficult to boost the morale of employees who remain after downsizing.
E)It is not an effective strategy if an organization wants to make way for fresh ideas.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the differentiation strategy?
A)Differentiation strategy cannot protect a company from price sensitivity.
B)Brand images play a negligible role in differentiation strategies.
C)Companies using the differentiation strategy have to build large-scale facilities.
D)Companies have to control their overhead costs to use the differentiation strategy.
E)Companies achieve above-average returns if they succeed in their differentiation strategy.
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: The Legal Environment: Equal Employment
Opportunity and Safety
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Q1) The Occupational Safety and Health Act assigned the responsibility for inspecting employers, applying the standards, and levying fines to the Department of Health.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of disparate treatment and disparate impact?
A)The discriminating individual's intent is irrelevant in disparate treatment.
B)For there to be discrimination under disparate treatment, there has to be intentional discrimination.
C)A selection practice that results in disparate impact is necessarily illegal in nature.
D)The four-fifths rule for discrimination is not applicable to disparate impact.
E)In a disparate impact case, the defendant is required to pay compensatory and punitive damages to the plaintiff.
Answer: B
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Chapter 5: Human Resource Planning and Recruitment
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Q1) Which of the following is the biggest downside for large job sites?
A)Most job sites do not return with quick results, which can be frustrating for an applicant.
B)The sheer size and lack of differentiation between candidates listed on the site.
C)Job sites offer lackluster customer service, which is a huge disappointment for applicants.
D)Most job sites post jobs that are completely unrelated to an employee's expertise and job interest.
E)While they promise excellent service, the exuberant service charges discourage applicants from using job sites.
Q2) _____ is a generic term used to refer to organizational decisions that affect the nature of the vacancies for which people are recruited.
A)Budgetary policies
B)Personnel policies
C)Judicial policies
D)Fiscal policies
E)Monetary policies
Q3) Discuss the employment-at-will policies and due process policies.
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Chapter 6: Selection and Placement
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Q1) The inability to use content validation in small sample settings makes it generally less applicable than criterion-related validation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ is a measure of the degree to which two sets of numbers are related.
A)utility score
B)standard deviation
C)correlation coefficient
D)validity score
E)generalizability coefficient
Q3) As per the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, if any neutral-appearing practice happens to have adverse impact on those over 40, the employer must _____.
A)show business necessity to avoid a guilty verdict
B)make accommodations despite facing hardships
C)facilitate pre-mature retirement for the employees
D)compensate the employee prior to court trials
E)provide special incentives to the suffering employees
Q4) Explain situational interview. What are the two varieties of situational judgment items?
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Chapter 7: Training
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Q1) Phil, a management trainer at Flint Inc., designs a training program that focuses on capturing insights and information from knowledgeable employees. Through this program, Phil is taking the strategic initiative to _____.
A)improve customer service
B)improve employee engagement
C)enhance innovation and creativity
D)grow in the global market
E)increase job retention
Q2) As a manager, John wants to find out the impact of his company's behavior-modeling training program on his employees' communications skills. The _____ evaluation design is necessary for this purpose.
A)pretest/posttest
B)time series
C)pretest/posttest comparison group
D)pretest only with comparison group
E)posttest only
Q3) Continuous learning requires employees to understand the entire work system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Performance Management
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Q1) Which of the following approaches would be worst suited to provide managers with the specific guidance required to correct an employee's performance deficiencies?
A)The quality approach
B)The comparative approach
C)The behavioral approach
D)The attribute approach
E)The results approach
Q2) What are competencies? Explain a competency model.
Q3) Which performance management evaluation criterion reflects the extent to which a performance measure assesses all the relevant-and only the relevant-aspects of performance?
A)Reliability
B)Strategic congruence
C)Acceptability
D)Specificity
E)Validity
Q4) The best use of self-ratings is for administrative purposes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Employee Development
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Q1) Employees on sabbatical often receive full pay or benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly explain temporary assignments and sabbaticals.
Q3) When an employee takes up a self-assessment test, he or she identifies the needs that are realistic to develop.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In Space-In Inc., Tina is the mentor for a new hire, Tom. Tina provides career support when she:
A)provides positive regard and acceptance to Tom.
B)acts as a role model to Tom.
C)plays the role of a friend to Tom.
D)provides exposure and visibility to Tom.
E)creates an outlet for Tom to talk about his anxieties.
Q5) Compare and contrast training and development.
Q6) Succession planning ensures that top-level managerial talent is available.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Discuss succession planning. How does it help organizations?
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Chapter 10: Employee Separation and Retention
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Q1) _____ refers to the judgment that people make with respect to the results received relative to the results received by other people with whom they identify (referent others).
A)Structural fairness
B)Outcome fairness
C)Procedural fairness
D)Process fairness
E)Task fairness
Q2) Which of the following is true of voluntary turnover?
A)It is initiated by the employee.
B)It involves employees an organization would like to discharge.
C)It could give rise to more legal consequences than involuntary turnover.
D)It usually is a result of a violation of a company rule or misconduct.
E)It is the last stage in progressive discipline.
Q3) Discuss job satisfaction with regard to supervisors and co-workers. Explain the relationship between social support and job satisfaction.
Q4) Define job satisfaction and describe the three aspects of job satisfaction.
Q5) Discuss the concept of negative affectivity and its relation to job satisfaction.
Q6) Explain job withdrawal and its three levels of progression.
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Chapter 11: Pay Structure Decisions
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Q1) Compensable factors are employee's job characteristics that:
A)are immeasurable.
B)go unrecognized by the company.
C)do not motivate employees to work better.
D)primarily lead to intrinsic motivation.
E)the company is willing to pay for.
Q2) Which of the following is true of broad bands?
A)More the use of broad brands, the lesser is the use of delayering in a firm.
B)More the use of broad brands, the lesser is the opportunity for promotions.
C)Broad bands with greater range spread lead to weaker budgetary control.
D)Broad bands with greater range spread give rise to lower labor costs.
E)Broad bands with smaller range spread permit managers to recognize high performance with high pay.
Q3) The Walsh-Healy Act covers:
A)all government contractors receiving $10,000 or more in federal funds.
B)executive, professional, and administrative occupations that are exempt from FLSA coverage.
C)all private retail firms in the United States that receive no federal funds.
D)construction contractors receiving federal money of more than $2000.
E)manufacturing units that employ less than 2000 employees.
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Chapter 12: Recognizing Employee Contributions With Pay
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Q1) Pay plans are typically used to energize, direct, or control employee behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs)give employees the right to vote their securities if registered on a national exchange.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an ownership plan used in compensation systems?
A)Gainsharing plans
B)Profit sharing programs
C)Group incentives
D)Stock options
E)Individual incentive plans
Q4) _____ can be described as a function of ability and motivation.
A)Attitudes
B)Behaviors
C)Values
D)Rewards
E)Goals
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Chapter 13: Employee Benefits
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Q1) Which one of the following is an active wellness program?
A)Raising awareness of health-related issues
B)Counselors providing tailored programs
C)Centers for physical fitness
D)Athletic trainers present in company gyms
E)Informing people on health-related topics
Q2) Which of the following is true of Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)?
A)It requires employers to extend coverage for 36 months after termination due to gross misconduct.
B)It requires employees to reduce the hours that lead to a gain of health insurance.
C)The beneficiaries of employees who still have their health insurance have access to the same services.
D)The beneficiaries of the employees get free coverage even if the employee has lost access to his health insurance.
E)The beneficiaries receive the advantage of purchasing coverage at the individual rate.
Q3) What are the aspects that make benefits different from direct compensation?
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Chapter 14: Collective Bargaining and Labor Relations
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Q1) Which of the following is likely to be a part of an industrial union?
A)A carpenter
B)An electrical worker
C)A painter
D)A shoemaker
E)A steelworker
Q2) What criteria do arbitrators use to reach a decision?
Q3) A list of unfair labor practices were added to the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)through the _____.
A)Wagner Act
B)Walsh-Healey Act
C)Smith-Connally Act
D)Taft-Hartley Act
E)Norris-La Guardia Act
Q4) The union pay advantage causes employers to use less labor and more capital per worker than they would otherwise, which reduces efficiency across society.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the effect of union on wage.
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Chapter 15: Managing Human Resources Globally
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Q1) It is not necessary for the expatriate to understand his own culture as long as he understands the culture of the host country for the assignment to be successful.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following cultural dimensions describes the degree of inequality among people that is considered normal?
A)Uncertainty avoidance
B)Individualism
C)Power distance
D)Masculinity
E)Long-term orientation
Q3) Describe how domestic firms become international organizations.
Q4) Which of the following dimensions involves the skills required to foster associations with host-country nationals?
A)The technical dimension
B)The self dimension
C)The relationship dimension
D)The perception dimension
E)The process dimension
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Chapter 16: Strategically Managing the HRM Function
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Q1) Diagnosing problems and evaluating results is a part of the _____ competence required by HR professionals.
A)professional-technical knowledge
B)management of change processes
C)integration
D)business
E)performance
Q2) The _____ is the role of a chief human resource officer (CHRO)that focuses on working with HR team members regarding the development, design, and delivery of HR services.
A)leader of the HR function
B)HR representative of the firm
C)strategic HR advisor for the board
D)workforce sensor
E)talent architect of HR
Q3) In strategically designed HR structures, centers for expertise ensure that transactional activities are delivered throughout the organization.
A)True
B)False
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