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This course provides an in-depth exploration of the principles, methods, and best practices involved in recruiting and selecting employees within organizations. Students will examine the entire hiring process, from job analysis and the development of job descriptions to sourcing, attracting, assessing, and selecting candidates. Emphasis is placed on legal and ethical considerations, diversity and inclusion, the use of technology in recruitment, and effective interviewing techniques. By the end of the course, students will be equipped with the knowledge and skills to design and implement effective recruitment and selection strategies that align with organizational objectives.
Recommended Textbook Human Resource Management 6th Edition by H. John Bernardin
Available Study Resources on Quizplus 14 Chapters
794 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) HPWP stands for:
A)high-performance work practices
B)high-productivity work practices
C)high-profit work practices
D)high-paying work practices
E)high-product work practices
Answer: A
Q2) The products or services of HRM include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)organizational restructuring
B)job design
C)personnel planning
D)evaluating
E)manufacturing
Answer: E
Q3) Quantitative reviews,also known as meta-analyses are used to evaluate the effectiveness of HRM methodology.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) In global industries,business policies and practices can be as centralized or as decentralized,as management prefers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Pepsi provides Heineken with its formula or agrees to supply the cola syrup and Heineken adds carbonated water,packages it in appropriate containers,and sells it in the Netherlands.Pepsi cannot enter into a similar agreement with another firm to sell Pepsi in the Netherlands,and Heineken cannot alter the product,nor can it begin duplicating other Pepsi products (such as Lays Potato Chips)without a separate agreement.This is an example of:
A)Franchising.
B)Exporting.
C)Licensing.
D)Contract manufacturing.
E)Management contracts.
Answer: C
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Q1) A company can establish a BFOQ for a position and legally defend that job qualification by presenting evidence of customer preference for that quality in an employee.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The EEOC's definition of an applicant is not relevant to cases of adverse treatment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) According to the decision in Ricci v.DeStefano,if an organization decides to not use the results of a selection test because of concerns there may be disparate impact against a protected class,then there cannot be a disparate impact case filed by another protected class.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) An advantage of the observation method of work analysis is that it allows you to capture all aspects of complex jobs at the top of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Effective teams and flexible,cross-functional work is increasingly important to the success of organizations.This is causing companies in the U.S.to
A)Abandon work analysis altogether and let employees direct their own work on a day-to-day basis.
B)Have dual job descriptions, one that is a valid representation of the work, and the other that is used if the company is sued.
C)Become entrenched and create job descriptions that are even more detailed and specific in terms of skills and tasks for a particular job.
D)Complete work analysis and consider aggregating the information at the unit or functional level
E)Utilize the data derived from work analysis to develop a compensation system, however, the data is not used to communicate to employees.
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Q1) A large food services company determines that it needs to recruit externally for a comptroller.This job has been identified as a key position within the organization.The need for external recruitment would :
A)be an indication that the company did not use regression analysis
B)be a sign that the company will be going out of business
C)result in the recruitment costs being lower than internal recruiting
D)be an indication that there was not an effective succession planning
E)be a result of a highly detailed internal training and development program
Q2) If the result of your GAP analysis indicates that demand is greater than supply,a solution could be increasing the use of overtime and temporary employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Downsizing should be an organizations first response when supply is greater than demand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Increased group-level diversity always leads to improved performance.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Employers should obtain which of the following before extending a contingent offer of employment?
A)Results of a polygraph test
B)Medical records and a physical examination
C)Written authorization from the candidate to check credit score
D)Information related to previous worker's compensation claims
E)Background report indicating prior arrest record
Q2) The majority of personality tests have been developed around five personality factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the advantage of the 16PF over other self-report inventories?
Q4) Achievement,dependability,order,and cautiousness,as subfactors of conscientiousness (C)help improve the prediction of job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Please describe the strategy a manager should use who has been asked to establish an employee selection testing program.
Q6) List the most common assessment exercises and explain any two.
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Q1) To ensure a supportive and creative atmosphere for the feedback session,the rater should:
A)Have one-way conversation with the ratee
B)Include several employees at once to brainstorm
C)Allow the employee to discuss their concerns in a two-way conversation
D)Keep the duration of the performance meeting as short as possible
E)Continue to take phone calls and accept interruptions from your staff during the meeting.
Q2) What are the administrative concerns that must be addressed in performance appraisal system? Provide a description of each.
Q3) One of the primary reasons that companies have turned to using forced distribution in their performance management systems is to overcome __________.
A)fundamental attribution error
B) representativeness bias
C)availability bias
D)leniency bias
E)anchoring bias
Q4) List and explain four common rating errors.
Q5) Briefly explain the management by objectives (MBO)rating method.
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Q1) List the three major steps involved in the basic process of training and explain the goal of each step.
Q2) Company ABC has been experiencing high levels of turnover with employees who have been on the job for less than 9 months.Exit interviews indicated that employees are frustrated and confused.What type of training should the company consider to decrease turnover?
A)Cross-cultural training
B)Managerial training
C)Intergenerational training
D)Baby-boomer training
E)Employee orientation
Q3) Audiovisuals involve recording a portion of audio or video content that is punchy and useful and posting it online or on the firm's intranet site and providing a link to download the recording.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Training refers to learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the four mechanisms that help goal setting improve performance?
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Q1) The internal focus of career refers to the actual series of job positions held by the individual,while the external focus refers to the way an individual views his or her career.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are information services used to compile and communicate career-related information EXCEPT:
A)job-posting systems
B)skills inventories
C)career ladders
D)succession planning
E)career resource centers
Q3) Describe at least three problems that repatriates face in their companies and suggest how the company might solve the problem.
Q4) Counseling sessions are less time consuming and more cost-effective compared to other career development methods.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List a few tips to help managers be more effective as coaches.
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Q1) You have a business in south Florida.The minimum wage under the FLSA is $7.50/hour.Florida has set its minimum wage at $8.00/hour.You are required to pay your secretary:
A)Base pay of $7.50 plus benefits
B)Market rate regardless of if it is lower than either minimum standard
C)Base pay of $8.00/hour and minimum of $7.50/hour in medical benefits
D)Premium pay of $7.50/hour
E)Base pay of $8.00/hour
Q2) Broadbanding can increase worker productivity and product quality,while decreasing absenteeism,turnover,and accident rates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) FLSA's overtime provisions establish that employers pay workers at least 0.5 times their regular hourly rate for all work in excess of 45 hours in any workweek.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Uniform allowances and merit increases are examples of fringe compensation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Compare and contrast the three types of individual pay-for-performance plans.
Q2) Which of the following plans calls for a distribution of pay based on an appraisal of a worker's performance?
A)Merit pay plan
B)Incentive plan
C)Halsey plan
D)Commission plan
E)Profit sharing plan
Q3) PFP is a High Performance Work Characteristic and is linked to a firm's performance particularly when the:
A)CEO pay is a lower base pay with the majority of compensation coming from incentive plans.
B)PFP system is closely aligned with the company's strategic objectives.
C)company has both profit sharing and employee stock option plans established.
D)performance is measurable.
E)size of the award is sufficient to stimulate increased effort.
Q4) Discuss some of the reasons for past failures of Pay-For-Performance (PFP)systems.
Q5) What are the limitations of the individual and group-based pay plans?
Q6) Discuss the implications for employee stock option plans (ESOPs)
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Q1) What are some reasons - societal,technological,strategic -- behind the use of flexible work arrangements? Do you believe that work arrangements will become more complex or stabilize over time?
Q2) Information provided by recruiters,interviewers,the company internet site and candid interviews with job incumbents provides candidates with a(n)_______.
A)realistic job preview
B)job analysis
C)job classification
D)work process mapping
E)internal scanning
Q3) All of the following have been shown to be disadvantages to using a compressed workweek EXCEPT:
A)Increase in employee fatigue.
B)Increased tardiness and absenteeism.
C)Understaffing.
D)Difficulty in coordinating team projects.
E)Difficulty scheduling meetings.
Q4) What is survivor syndrome and what measures can organizations take to avoid it?
Q5) Which is more important,procedural or distributive justice? Why?
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Q1) Briefly discuss the two perspectives on the effects of labor unions.
Q2) The __________ formally recognized workers' right to organize and bargain collectively with representatives of their own choosing.
A)Wagner Act
B)Taft-Hartley Act
C)Landrum-Griffin Act
D)Norris-LaGuardia Act
E)Americans with Disabilities Act
Q3) In general public sector employees have more bargaining power than private sector employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An example of unions cooperating with management is the retraining of employees to diminish the need for layoffs and downsizing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the steps involved in forming unions.
Q6) Briefly explain the aspects involved in preparing for labor contract negotiations.
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Q1) Occupational injuries must be recorded in all of the following instances EXCEPT when the injury results in:
A)a restriction of motion.
B)first aid treatment.
C)transfer to another job.
D)one or more lost workdays.
E)loss of consciousness.
Q2) A discretionary penalty of up to $7,000 may be enforced for each serious OSHA violation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are Employee Assistance Programs?
Q4) One of the highlights of the Workers' Compensation law applying to employees is that a petition for benefits must usually be filed within a year of the original decision.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly explain the star,merit,and demonstration Voluntary Protection Programs (VPP).Also highlight the functions they perform.
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