Radiology Fundamentals
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Radiology Fundamentals introduces students to the core concepts and practices of medical imaging. This course covers the principles of X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Emphasis is placed on understanding the physics of image production, the safe use of radiologic equipment, and the proper interpretation of imaging results. Students will explore common pathologies, basic radiologic anatomy, and the clinical role of radiology in diagnosis and treatment. The course also introduces radiation safety protocols and ethical considerations relevant to radiologic practice.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Convert 7/12 to a decimal.
A)0.583
B)1.714
C)19.83
D)84.00
Answer: A
Q2) Consider the following proportional relationship: x = ay/bd.Assuming all other quantities remain constant, what happens to the value of x when the product of bd increases?
A)increases
B)decreases
C)remains the same
D)cannot be determined
Answer: B
Q3) P = 2L + 2W; solve for L. Answer: (P - 2W)/2
Q4) V = 1/3\(\pi\)r<sup>2</sup>h; solve for \(\pi\). Answer: 3V/r<sup>2</sup>h
Q5) PV = nRT; solve for T.
Answer: PV/nR
3
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Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) The orderly arrangement of elements in the periodic table is based upon
A)atomic weights.
B)mass number.
C)neutron number.
D)atomic number.
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are true of electromagnetic energies EXCEPT:
A)They are illustrated as sinusoidal waves.
B)They possess both wave and particle characteristics.
C)The relationship between frequency and wavelength is direct and proportional.
D)They are arranged in an orderly spectrum according to frequency and wavelength.
Answer: C
Q3) Calculate the velocity of red light with a wavelength of approximately 4.0 nm (nm = 10<sup>-9</sup>).
A)7.5 *10<sup>-1</sup> nm/sec
B)7.5 *10<sup>18</sup> nm/sec
C)1.2 *10<sup>-17</sup> nm/sec
D)1.2 * 10<sup>1</sup> nm/sec
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) V = I x R
A)semiconductor
B)conductor
C)insulator
D)ampere
E)volt
F)Ohm's law
G)series circuit
H)parallel circuit
Answer: F
Q2) An ampere is
A)coulomb/sec.
B)(coulomb)(sec).
C)(volt)(ohm).
D)ohm/volt.
Answer: A
Q3) What is the total resistance of a circuit with two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms in series and two resistances of 4 ohms each in parallel?
Answer: 10 ohms
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) ratio between field strength and area
A)magnetic flux
B)spin magnetic moment
C)tesla
D)electromagnet
E)permeability
F)retentivity
G)paramagnetic
H)ferromagnetic
Q2) A motor is a device that converts
A)thermal energy into electrical energy.
B)electrical energy into mechanical energy.
C)electrical energy into electromagnetic energy.
D)mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Q3) All of the following are true of autotransformers EXCEPT:
A)They are considered a variable transformer.
B)The primary and secondary coils are in series.
C)The primary and secondary windings share a common coil.
D)They are effective in controlling voltage on the high voltage side of the circuit.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) two-position device used to initiate exposure
A)autotransformer
B)rotor stator
C)filament current
D)three-phase power
E)single-phase power
F)AEC
G)exposure switch
H)rectification circuit
Q2) When using AEC at 80 kVp, backup times
A)must not exceed 600 mAs.
B)are of no concern due to the AEC reliability.
C)may range from 600 to 2000 mAs.
D)should be manually set at 300% of the expected manual mAs.
Q3) When full-wave rectification is applied to three-phase current, a ____ ripple is produced.
A)current
B)star
C)voltage
D)double
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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tungsten is the metal of choice for the source of x-ray photons because of its A)high atomic number.
B)low melting point.
C)low mass number.
D)low cost.
Q2) As the angle of the anode increases and the incident electron beam size remains the same, the effective focal spot size
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
D)cannot be determined.
Q3) List the three primary functions of the x-ray tube's protective housing.
Q4) The problem of off-focus radiation
A)is particularly important with digital detectors.
B)distorts the digital histogram.
C)may result in suboptimum digital images.
D)all of the above
Q5) Metal envelope x-ray tubes are gaining in popularity.Explain some key advantages to a metal housing x-ray tube.
Q6) What is the function of the filament?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy of a characteristic photon is
A)equal to the binding energy of the entering electron.
B)equal to the binding energy of the exiting electron.
C)the sum of the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped.
D)the difference between the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped.
Q2) The K shell can hold a maximum of ____ electrons.
A)1
B)2
C)6
D)8
Q3) For the element molybdenum, the effective energy of characteristic interactions is A)9 keV.
B)18 keV.
C)42 keV.
D)69 keV.
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Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a single personnel monitoring device is worn, it should be worn at the
A)waist level under the lead apron.
B)collar level under a thyroid collar.
C)collar level outside the lead apron.
D)wrist level to get a measure of bone exposure.
Q2) All of the following would be classified as field survey devices EXCEPT
A)film badge.
B)Geiger-Mueller counter.
C)scintillation detector.
D)ionization chamber instrument.
Q3) Alpha particles
A)are emitted from the nuclei of heavy elements.
B)have a positive charge.
C)have greater mass than other particulate radiations.
D)all of the above
Q4) Ionizing radiations are classified as
A)positive and negative.
B)varying velocities.
C)particulate and electromagnetic.
D)subnuclear and intranuclear.
10
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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel
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Sample Questions
Q1) By design, primary barriers are able to intercept and absorb A)primary radiation.
B)secondary radiation.
C)the useful beam.
D)all of the above
Q2) Deterministic effects of ionizing radiation include all of the following EXCEPT A)sterility.
B)cataracts.
C)skin erythema.
D)cancer.
Q3) For fluoroscopic procedures with a kVp of 100 or more, the protective apron must possess a minimum of ____ lead equivalent.
A)0.05 mm
B)0.5 mm
C)1.0 mm
D)5.0 mm
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11
Chapter 10: Filtration
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Sample Questions
Q1) For an x-ray beam operated at 80 kVp,
A)the HVL should be 3.8 mm of Al.
B)a lower HVL is necessary.
C)the beam is harder than a 60 kVp beam.
D)adding filtration will increase patient dose.
Q2) unit of overall x-ray beam quality
A)compound filter
B)added
C)Thoraeus filter
D)trough filter
E)beryllium
F)aluminum
G)HVL
H)keV
I)1.5 mm aluminum minimum filtration
J)2.5 mm Al
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Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The factors that directly affect x-ray quality are
A)kVp and beam filtration.
B)mAs and distance.
C)filtration and mAs.
D)focal spot size and anode angle.
Q2) In order to increase radiographic film density by 40%, the radiographer would
A)change the mAs from 15 to 21 mAs.
B)decrease the kVp by 40%.
C)increase the mAs by 20%.
D)decrease the distance by 40%.
Q3) The length of the exposure time (S) for a radiograph, is used to primarily control A)image contrast.
B)motion.
C)radiographic image density.
D)patient dose.
Q4) An x-ray exposure of 100 mR is recorded at a distance of 40 inches.To reduce the exposure to 25 mR, to what will the distance need to be changed?
Q5) Given an exposure time of 0.15 second and a milliamperage of 100, calculate the mAs.
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary radiation energies are highest for which element?
A)hydrogen
B)carbon
C)barium
D)oxygen
Q2) Which atomic shell possesses the highest binding energy?
A)K
B)L
C)M
D)All atomic shells possess the same binding energy.
Q3) An interaction that occurs between very low energy x-ray photons and matter is called ____ scatter.
A)coherent
B)classical
C)unmodified
D)all of the above
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective method of reducing patient exposure is to use
A)a slow speed image receptor.
B)a medium speed image receptor.
C)a grid.
D)the highest speed possible image receptor.
Q2) dose relationship is inverse.
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q3) In an effort to reduce dose, the recommended SID for routine radiography is
A)36-38 inches.
B)40-42 inches.
C)44-48 inches.
D)56 inches.
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Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rods and cones respond to
A)visible light energy.
B)magnetic energy.
C)kinetic energy.
D)gamma energy.
Q2) The phenomenon that occurs when the intensely bright light from a view box floods the eye directly is termed
A)eye motion.
B)veil glare.
C)viewing distance.
D)pattern recognition.
Q3) occurs when the eye perceives a boundary
A)rods
B)veil glare
C)retina
D)Mach effect
E)scotopic vision
F)cones
G)edge enhancement
H)Grenz rays
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Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cones and cylinders would be commonly employed for the following examinations EXCEPT A)orbits.
B)L5-S1 spot.
C)skull.
D)AP thoracic spine.
Q2) Automatic collimators are known as positive beam limitation (PBL) devices.
A)True B)False
Q3) Image quality is improved when scatter reaching the image receptor is reduced. A)True
B)False
Q4) The ____ the atomic number of the irradiated material, the ____ the number of photoelectric absorption interactions that occur.
A)higher; lower
B)higher; higher
C)lower; higher
D)lower; unaffected
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shape distortion can be the result of a patient's body habitus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Subject distortion can be reduced by accurately positioning the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Subject distortion occurs naturally.
A)True
B)False
Q4) low attenuation
A)Compton scatter
B)photoelectric effect
C)12.31
D)air
E)fat
F)water
G)bone
H)chest
I)subject detail
J)subject density
Page 18
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Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pathologic condition involves a tumor arising in the bone and cartilage, adding to subject density?
A)osteomyelitis
B)osteoarthritis
C)sarcoma
D)osteochondroma
Q2) When healthy lung tissue becomes fibrotic such as in the condition of pneumoconiosis,
A)tissue density increases.
B)an increase in exposure technique may be necessary.
C)an additive condition is present.
D)all of the above
Q3) Which pathologic condition involves a collapse of part or the entire lung?
A)atelectasis
B)pleural effusions
C)hemothorax
D)hydrothorax
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19
Chapter 18: The Grid
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radiopaque strips
A)absorb scatter.
B)are made of dense material.
C)have a high atomic number.
D)all of the above
Q2) must be used at a specific SID
A)grid frequency
B)grid ratio
C)contrast improvement factor
D)focussed grid
E)air-gap technique
F)Moire effect
G)grid cut-off
H)convergence point
I)Hollis Potter
J)Gustav Bucky
Q3) If the lead strips are 2.0 mm high and are separated by an interspace of 0.25 mm, what is the grid ratio?
Q4) What is the frequency of a grid with lead strips that are 33 micrometers thick and interspace material that is 310 micrometers thick?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complete construction of diagnostic radiographic film includes A)a polyester base.
B)an adhesive material.
C)an emulsion.
D)all of the above
Q2) The impurity added to the crystal lattice is
A)gold-silver nitride.
B)gold-silver sulfide.
C)gold-platinum nitride.
D)gold-platinum sulfide.
Q3) The gelatin is used to
A)form the silver halide crystal lattice.
B)react with the silver halide crystals.
C)distribute the crystals evenly over the surface of the film.
D)form a rigid base for the emulsion.
Q4) Silver bromide precipitates out when silver nitrate reacts with A)bromide nitrate.
B)silver potassium.
C)potassium nitrate.
D)potassium bromide.
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Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Q1) If silver halide crystals have more than three silver atoms on their sensitivity specks, the crystal will be able to be
A)ripened.
B)developed.
C)washed away.
D)cleared.
Q2) The pass box is used to pass__________ to and from the darkroom.
A)chemicals.
B)contrast media.
C)film cassettes
D)replenisher
Q3) Which reducing agent slowly reduces silver, producing heavy density?
A)phenidone
B)hydroquinone
C)sodium carbonate
D)potassium bromide
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22
Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Q1) D log E curves are also known as ____ curves.
A)characteristic
B)sensitometric
C)Hurter and Driffield (H&D)
D)all of the above
Q2) The difference between adjacent densities on a radiograph is the A)resolution.
B)speed.
C)definition.
D)contrast.
Q3) The ability of film to stop light is termed A)incidence.
B)lucency. C)opacity.
D)neutrality.
Q4) After exposure to x-radiation, the radiographic film A)must be processed immediately. B)is twice as sensitive and must be handled carefully. C)contains the visible image in the cassette. D)is placed in a reader for laser scanning.
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Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of the latent image is formed by x-ray photons?
A)100 percent
B)99 percent
C)50 percent
D)1 percent
Q2) If an imaging system with an RS value of 200 requires an exposure of 12 mAs, switching to a system with RS 800 speed will
A)require 3 mAs.
B)require 48 mAs.
C)require a 15% increase in kVp.
D)improve image resolution.
Q3) When selecting a film/screen combination, a principal consideration in the best choice is
A)image contrast and exposure latitude.
B)image contrast and resolution.
C)MTF and dose.
D)line pair resolution and MTF.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Q1) Each binary number is called a A)pixel.
B)bit.
C)byte.
D)voxel.
Q2) When the main power to the computer is turned off, ____ is maintained.
A)RAD
B)REM
C)ROM
D)RAM
Q3) Computerized digital images consist of a ________ of picture elements, each with a video display value or gray shade.
A)row
B)matrix
C)column
D)pixel
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Q1) Essential characteristics of a PACS include:
1) distribution and retrieval of digital images
2) creation of digital images
3) radiation dosage documentation
4) display of digital images
5) voice-activated dictation
6) digital image storage and long-term archival
A)1, 2, 4, and 5 only
B)2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 only
C)1, 4, and 6 only
D)1, 2, 3, 4, and 6 only
Q2) regional or national network for digital communications
A)WAN
B)LAN
C)BMI
D)soft copy
E)DICOM
F)hard copy
G)SOP
H)LCD
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Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Q1) After completing a chest radiograph on a female patient with large pendulous breasts, the final image demonstrates acceptable density and contrast but a loss of recorded detail in the lung bases.The professional radiographer would
A)repeat the chest radiograph in the anterio-posterior (AP) projection.
B)increase the SID to improve resolution.
C)increase the mAs and tell the patient to hold their breath deeper.
D)politely ask the patient to separate her breasts as she approaches the chest board and repeat the exam in the PA projection.
Q2) All of the following are related except one.Select the choice not related to the others.
A)image analysis
B)image acquisition
C)image transmission
D)image processing
Q3) When many radiographic factors are acting upon one other, it is known as A)a pyramid problem.
B)a professional problem.
C)procedural problem.
D)an ethical problem.
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Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) Which generator produces the greatest amount of radiographic density per mAs?
A)single-phase, 2-pulse
B)three-phase, 6-pulse
C)three-phase, 12-pulse
D)a high-frequency generator
Q2) The principal controlling factor of radiographic image density is A)kVp.
B)mAs.
C)time.
D)milliamperes.
Q3) Because of the "heel effect," x-ray beam intensity
A)is greater under the cathode side of the tube.
B)is greater under the anode side of the tube.
C)is equal across the beam long axis.
D)changes with patient position.
Q4) Image brightness on an image display monitor is controlled by A)window level.
B)window width.
C)EI number.
D)S number.
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Chapter 27: Contrast
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Q1) When choosing between two radiographic grids, the k factor is different.Choosing a grid with the higher K factor will produce an image with
A)longer scale contrast.
B)high contrast.
C)improved recorded detail.
D)a lower S#.
Q2) contributing factor to total image contrast
A)average gradient
B)long scale contrast
C)Compton interactions
D)low contrast
E)short scale contrast
F)high contrast
G)photoelectric interactions
H)subject contrast
Q3) Contrast decreases with A)excessive density.
B)inadequate density.
C)a wider range of densities.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Q1) Resolution is improved when
A)OID increases.
B)OID decreases.
C)SID decreases.
D)the x-ray tube is angled
Q2) switching from a RS 400 receptor to a RS 200 receptor
A)PSF
B)quantum noise
C)resolution increase
D)MTF
E)MF
F)LSF
G)aliasing
H)loss of visibility of detail
Q3) A digital detector with a high fill factor
A)will produce poor resolution.
B)will require longer processing time.
C)will produce high resolution.
D)is undesirable.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Distortion
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Q1) inherently magnified in AP projection
A)kidneys
B)SID SOD
C)elongation
D)SOD
E)object size
F)scapula
G)foreshortening
H)patella
Q2) The magnification factor for a radiographic procedure is calculated at 1.25.It may be assumed that there is a ____ magnification of the object size.
A)25%
B)125%
C)0.25%
D)1.25%
Q3) Size distortion is controlled by A)SID.
B)OID.
C)radiographic distances.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Q1) A photographic problem with visibility of detail would be likely due to A)improper SID.
B)improper OID.
C)inadequate kVp.
D)improper focal spot selection.
Q2) An image is presented to the department quality control coordinator by a disgruntled radiologist that shows an asymmetrically narrowed ankle mortis on an AP projection.His dissatisfaction would be most likely classified as a A)technical factor distortion problem.
B)procedural factor patient preparation problem.
C)procedural factor patient positioning problem.
D)technical factor tube alignment problem.
Q3) The three alignment factors include the A)x-ray tube
B)anatomical part.
C)image receptor.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Q1) A generator must be recalibrated when the kVp drifts beyond ____ kVp of the labeled setting.
A)2
B)5
C)10
D)12
Q2) Computerized storage and transmission systems for digitized images of all types are called
A)DSR.
B)MRI.
C)CT.
D)PACS.
Q3) Tomographic systems should be tested for each of the following EXCEPT
A)automatic brightness control.
B)completeness of motion.
C)section depth indicator accuracy.
D)section thickness accuracy.
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Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fixed kVp systems
A)increase the consistency of image density.
B)increase the consistency of image contrast.
C)lengthen exposure latitude.
D)all of the above
Q2) Once a technique chart has been established, the process is terminated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most x-ray generators permit finer adjustment of kVp stations than of time or mA settings.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Technique systems function best when a large number of variables are permitted to vary.
A)True B)False
Q5) When a new piece of imaging equipment is added to the imaging chain, technique charts must be re-established.
A)True
B)False
34
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Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a follow-up abdomen image on a patient who recently had a small bowel study, it may be best to
A)deactivate the AEC and set the technique manually.
B)dramatically increase the backup mAs.
C)increase the minimum response time.
D)increase to 120 kVp.
Q2) The backup time of most AECs is set at ____ of the anticipated manual exposure time.
A)10%
B)50%
C)100%
D)150%
Q3) When an AEC is used for an AP hip, which ionization chambers are utilized?
A)the center cell
B)the left and right outer cells
C)all three cells
D)the left outer cell only
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35
Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Q1) affects radiographic contrast with a direct relationship
A)decreased density
B)focal spot size
C)longer scale of contrast
D)grid ratio
E)receptor speed
F)increased mAs by 2x
G)additive pathology
H)higher amount of contrast
I)destructive pathology
J)density-distance relationship
Q2) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the fixed kVp theory.The part measuring 10 cm and 8 mAs was used.To maintain exposure, what mAs should be used if the part measures 14 cm?
Q3) Which of the following exposure settings will yield an image with the shortest scale of contrast?
A)200 mA, 0.09 s, 100 kVp, 12:1 grid
B)400 mA, 0.05 s, 75 kVp, 8:1 grid
C)300 mA, 0.06 s, 90 kVp, 10:1 grid
D)500 mA, 46 ms, 77 kVp 12:1 grid
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Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before entering a surgical suite, who must be consulted?
A)the unit receptionist
B)the attending physician
C)the surgical technician
D)any of the above
Q2) If the radiographer is unable to achieve a 72" SID during mobile chest radiography, an alternative distance to use is
A)40".
B)48".
C)56".
D)60".
Q3) During mobile radiography, it is the radiographer's responsibility to protect A)the patient.
B)other health professionals.
C)the public.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) What is the magnification factor for an image viewed with an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 23 in.that is using a 10 in.diameter area during magnification?
Q2) The shape of the input screen helps to control A)distortion.
B)SID.
C)scatter
D)minification.
Q3) Fluoroscopic resolution with image intensification will vary according to A)minification gain.
B)electrostatic focal point.
C)input and output screen diameter.
D)all of the above
Q4) The edge distortion problem in image intensification tubes is called A)minification.
B)magnification.
C)vignetting.
D)all of the above
Q5) What is the total brightness gain for an image intensification tube with a minification gain of 25 and a flux gain of 50?
38
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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tomography causes the blurring of nearly all recorded detail of objects outside the A)area above the fulcrum.
B)area below the fulcrum.
C)focal plane.
D)amplitude.
Q2) When the movement of the tube and the image receptor are along a straight line, the tomographic motion is classified as A)linear.
B)circular.
C)elliptical.
D)trispiral.
Q3) The greater the distance from the fulcrum, the greater the A)blurring.
B)patient dosage.
C)sharpness.
D)exposure amplitude.
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Chapter 38: Mammography
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Q1) Digital tomosynthesis in mammography
A)uses a 40-degree rotation angle.
B)acquires ten images of the breast per sweep.
C)uses digital detector technology.
D)all of the above
Q2) The majority of mammography machines utilize a ____ inch SID.
A)24 to 30
B)30 to 36
C)36 to 40
D)60 to 72
Q3) Mammography x-ray tubes
A)are tilted to place the central ray at chest wall.
B)use stationary anodes for better resolution.
C)have higher heat capacity than radiographic tubes.
D)have a 0.6 mm large focal spot.
Q4) The anode material of choice for a mammography machine is A)lead.
B)tungsten.
C)molybdenum.
D)none of the above
40
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Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of SXA scanning EXCEPT:
A)It uses a radioactive source of iodine.
B)It was restricted to the forearm.
C)It employs an x-ray beam of discrete energy.
D)Its development followed SPA technology.
Q2) General radiography is ineffective in measuring bone loss since as much as ______ of bone mass must be lost to be radiographically detected.
A)15%
B)30%
C)40%
D)60%
Q3) Osteopenia occurs with a T-score of
A)+1.9.
B)+2.5.
C)-2.0.
D)-2.7.
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) X-ray tubes used in vascular interventional procedures
A)require mega heat unit tubes.
B)have graphite-backed anodes for heat tolerance.
C)have a larger anode disk diameter and thickness.
D)all of the above
Q2) In order to perform digital subtraction angiography,
A)a mask image is acquired after injection.
B)bony anatomy is eliminated from the final image.
C)patient motion is not a concern, as this is a post-processing function.
D)the injection image is acquired before the scout image is taken and then subtracted from the other.
Q3) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 70 kVp, 300 mA, 0.20 sec.on a three-phase, 6-pulse unit?
Q4) The amount of heat load an anode can tolerate for a sequence of exposures is known as
A)short-term loading ability.
B)continuous heat-loading ability.
C)tube-rate loading ability.
D)dose-dependent loading.
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Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec., and a pitch of 0.8 is being used, what is the section thickness?
Q2) The ____ is how well the detectors convert incoming photons.
A)capture efficiency
B)absorption efficiency
C)conversion efficiency
D)response time
Q3) If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec., and a pitch of 1.5 is being used, what is the section thickness?
Q4) To achieve coronal or sagittal sections,
A)the gantry is repositioned.
B)the patient is repositioned.
C)reconfiguration software is implemented.
D)none of the above
Q5) A ____ artifact is caused by the presence of metal in the patient.
A)beam-hardening
B)ring
C)star
D)streak
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) uses RF coils to create a homogeneous field
A)Tesla
B)active shimming
C)resistive magnet
D)SE pulse sequence
E)gyromagnetic ratio
F)Faraday cage
G)voxel
H)cryogen
I)Larmor frequency
J)gradient coils
K)TE
L)precession
M)T<sub>2</sub> relaxation
N)GBCA
O)B<sub>0</sub>
P)NSF
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of alpha and beta emissions EXCEPT:
A)They produce ionizations.
B)They are highly penetrating.
C)They are unable to penetrate the outer layers of the skin.
D)They have a mass and a charge.
Q2) The time it takes for a radioactive nucleus to decay to 1/2 its original activity level is termed its
A)half-value layer.
B)half-life.
C)inverse decay quotient.
D)decay scheme.
Q3) The biological half-life of a radionuclide takes into account its
A)physical decay scheme.
B)physical half-life.
C)metabolism within the human body.
D)effective half-life.
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Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radiotherapy prescription includes
1)treatment field angles
2)protraction period
3)radiotherapist designated to deliver treatments
4)total dose administered
5)fractionalized dosages
6)patient's mental altitude
7)treatment techniques
8)treatment fields and dimensions
9)patient side effects
A)1, 3, 4, 5, 7, and 8
B)1, 2 4, 6, 8, and 9
C)1, 2, 4, 5, 7, and 8
D)2, 4, 5, 7, 8, and 9
Q2) Each of the following are essential to the calculation of irradiated tissue volume EXCEPT
A)dimensional target volume (DTV).
B)clinical target volume (CTV).
C)planning target volume (PTV).
D)gross target volume (GTV).
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The piezoelectric crystal has the potential to convert 1.sound energy to electrical energy
2)sound energy to heat energy
3)electrical energy to sound energy
4)electrical energy to electromagnetic energy
5)sound energy to electromagnetic energy
A)1 and 5 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)4 and 5 only
Q2) Modern ultrasound machines use
A)a continuous wave of sound.
B)electrons to create the echoes.
C)a pulsed sound wave.
D)electromagnetic RF energy.
Q3) Sound energy is a type of _______ energy.
A)electromagnetic
B)mechanical
C)compression
D)potential
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