Radiology for Dental Hygienists
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Radiology for Dental Hygienists is a course designed to provide foundational knowledge and practical skills in dental radiography. Students will explore the principles of radiation physics, safety protocols, and the biological effects of radiation exposure. The curriculum covers techniques for exposing, processing, and interpreting various types of dental radiographic images, including intraoral and extraoral views. Emphasis is placed on proper patient positioning, infection control, digital radiography, and recognizing normal versus abnormal anatomical features. Upon completion, students will be equipped to safely and effectively utilize radiographic technology as part of comprehensive dental hygiene care.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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2
Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Q1) The determination of the size and shape of the x-ray beam is called ________.
Answer: collimation
Q2) Collimator cutoff (cone cutting)is caused by:
A)improper horizontal angulation
B)over filtration
C)improper beam film alignment
D)improper vertical angulation
Answer: C
Q3) A diagnostic film is made at 10 mA and 4 impulses. The exposure that would produce the same image at 5 mA would be:
A)5 impulses
B)10 impulses
C)8 impulses
D)45 impulses
Answer: C
Q4) When designing barriers it is important to remember that x-rays travel in _______ lines.
Answer: straight
Q5) The quantity of x-ray photons produced is determined by the _________ setting.
Answer: milliamperage
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Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the correct position of the PID when intraoral radiographs are taken:
A)completely flat against the patient's face
B)almost touching the patient's face
C)within 1 to 2 inches of the patient's face
D)within 3 to 4 inches of the patient's face
Answer: B
Q2) The best way to view radiographs is:
A)unmounted
B)on a viewbox
C)using ambient light
D)in the darkroom
Answer: B
Q3) Long-scale contrast gives the radiograph a (an):
A)black and white appearance
B)gray appearance
C)underpenetrated appearance
D)fogged appearance
Answer: B
Q4) The pointed cone should _______ be used with the bisecting technique.
Answer: never
Page 4
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Q1) A film that has been fogged will have decreased _____________.
Q2) Duplicating film does not have an orientation dot on the emulsion to identify the patient's right or left side. Intensifying screens do not have an orientation dot on the screen to identify the patient's right or left side.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q3) Film speed is determined by:
A)the thickness of the emulsion
B)the presence of radiosensitive dyes
C)the size of the silver halide crystals
D)all of the above
Q4) When the x-ray photons strike the phosphors of the intensifying screen ________ photons are produced.
Q5) The plot of film density versus exposure time is called a (an)___________.
Q6) Film-screen imaging systems produce ___________ definition than intraoral film.
Q7) Film cassettes can be either _______ or _______.
Page 5
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) The quality factor in measuring x-radiation is ___________.
Q2) Describe the event when x-ray photons directly hit critical areas with the cells and cause damage to the DNA of the cells:
A)indirect effect
B)ionization
C)direct effect
D)formation of toxins
Q3) Human tissue is composed primarily of:
A)water
B)air
C)ions
D)toxins
Q4) The output of a dental x-ray machine is expressed in ________.
Q5) Identify the type of interaction with matter that occurs most frequently with dental radiation procedures:
A)no interaction
B)Thompson scatter
C)photoelectric effect
D)Compton effect
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Q1) Using E-speed film (instead of D-speed film)reduces the radiation exposure to the patient by approximately:
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)nearly 100%
Q2) The removal of the long wavelength, low energy x-ray photons from the beam is the job of the:
A)collimator
B)filters
C)insulating oil
D)open-ended cone
Q3) It is predicted that the MPD will ________ be reduced in the near future.
Q4) To get the diagnostic benefits from radiographs, optimum film viewing requirements include:
A)use of an illuminating device
B)use of a film mount
C)a darkened room
D)all of the above
Q5) Mechanical timers are usually inaccurate by at least a _________ second.
Page 7
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
Q2) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
Q3) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
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Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Sample Questions
Q1) The typical wattage of a bulb used in safelighting is 60 to 75 watts. The safelight should be placed 3 to 4 feet from the working area.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q2) The check for adequate safelighting is accomplished with:
A)the reference film
B)the pocket dosimeter
C)the step wedge
D)the coin test
Q3) Identify the amount of time to wait between loading individual films into the automatic processor to avoid film overlap:
A)5 seconds
B)10 seconds
C)15 seconds
D)30 seconds
Q4) Panoramic films are __________ sensitive to darkroom light than intraoral film.
Q5) Defective film hangers should be disposed of because they can cause
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Q1) Soaps for hand washing in the dental operatory should be _____________.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false? Long-sleeved dental gowns:
A)need not be worn for the taking of radiographs
B)should be taken home to wash
C)can be worn when not in the dental office
D)all of the above
Q3) Identify the most common transmission route of HIV, HBV, and HCV:
A)saliva
B)blood
C)body fluids
D)aerosols
Q4) HBV and HBC are acronyms for types of the _________ virus.
Q5) Although it does not get much publicity, _________ is the greatest health risk for dental health care workers.
Q6) Patients with active AIDS:
A)should not undergo radiographic procedures
B)need special infection control protocols
C)should have only panoramic examinations
D)follow the same infection control protocols as other patients
Q7) Infection control procedures should be followed for __________ patients.
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Q1) Identify an alternative radiographic exam for the edentulous periapical survey:
A)panoramic radiograph
B)topographic occlusal projections
C)vertical bitewings
D)a and b
Q2) An overexposed film will appear similar to a (an)__________ film.
Q3) In the paralleling method, the zygomatic process of the maxilla is:
A)superimposed on the apex of the second maxillary molar
B)not seen
C)not superimposed on the apex of the maxillary molars
D)used as a point of entry
Q4) Dark films can be caused by:
A)increased focal-film distance
B)increased object-film distance
C)overexposure
D)underdevelopment
Q5) When the PID is not positioned so that it almost touches the patient's face, a ________ film will result.
Q6) Reversing the film to the x-ray beam will cause ___________.
Page 11
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with standard intraoral films, the occlusal film size is approximately:
A)the same
B)twice as large
C)4 times as large
D)8 times as large
Q2) A +75 degree vertical angulation for a maxillary cuspid will produce a (an)________ image.
Q3) The finger holding method should _____ be used with the bisecting technique.
Q4) When compared with periapical films, topographic occlusal films have a __________.
Q5) If the vertical angulation of the PID is insufficient, _______ will result.
Q6) Identify the major disadvantage of the bisecting technique:
A)images produced are often distorted
B)it is difficult for the patient
C)the long cone required is bulky and hard to manage
D)film holding devices may be confusing
Page 12
Q7) A -5 degree vertical angulation for the lower incisors will produce a (an)________ image.
Q8) ____________________ exposure times can be used for the bisecting technique because of the shorter FFD.
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Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) A large radiopacity is seen on the middle of the panoramic film. Identify the cause of this appearance:
A)patient was slouched in the unit
B)patient's lead apron was placed too high
C)patient moved during the exposure
D)patient's chin was tilted up too far
Q2) The main disadvantage of panoramic films is:
A)increased patient exposure
B)loss of definition and detail
C)lack of contrast
D)possible patient movement
Q3) Panoramic films are processed:
A)in the same manner as intraoral films
B)only with automatic processors
C)by sight development
D)with a safelight of less intensity
Q4) The facial exposure from a panoramic radiograph is roughly equivalent to
Q5) A panoramic unit has a narrowly collimated __________.
Q6) All of the patient's __________ must be removed before taking a pantomogram.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) Cassettes with intensifying screens are used in extraoral radiography to ________.
Q2) If there is no cassette available, in an emergency a (an)___________ can be used to make a lateral oblique projection of the mandible.
Q3) The best extraoral projection to detect a fracture of the zygomatic arch is the __________.
Q4) Extraoral films are processed:
A)in the same manner as intraoral films
B)only with automatic processors
C)by sight development
D)with a safelight of less intensity
Q5) Which of the following methods is best for radiographing an impacted third molar?
A)posterior anterior
B)lateral oblique projection of the mandible
C)lateral skull
D)posterior anterior of the sinuses
Q6) The extraoral projection used in cephalometric analysis is the _________ projection.
Q7) Depending on the type of panoramic unit, rigid or ________ cassettes are used.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) _________ enables viewing of an area in three planes.
Q2) The ________ projection can be used to view the TMJ from the axial plane.
Q3) A conventional panoramic projection will show both the right and left joints in the:
A)lateral plane
B)axial plane
C)cross-sectional plane
D)frontal plane
Q4) When examining the TMJ, one disadvantage of computed tomography is that this type of scan does not include images of the:
A)external meatus of the ear
B)mandibular condyle
C)articular disc
D)articular eminence
Q5) The major cause of TMJ disorders is the __________.
Q6) Four views of the TMJ can be seen by:
A)MRI
B)CT
C)arthrography
D)the transcranial technique
16
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Q1) Digital imaging allows for manipulation of the image. All of the following can be manipulated EXCEPT:
A)the image can be darkened
B)the image can be magnified
C)elongation or foreshortening can be corrected
D)the image can be lightened
Q2) One of the advantages of digital radiography over film is _________.
Q3) Identify the main disadvantage of digital imaging:
A)bulky, rigid sensors
B)environmental waste issues
C)infection control
D)lack of definition and detail
Q4) Compared to D-speed film, the reduction of radiation dose to the patient when using digital imaging is approximately:
A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)90%
Q5) In the optical scanning method one starts with the __________.
Q6) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Q1) A CT scan taken in the axial plane can be reformatted to the _______ and _________ planes.
Q2) CT images for implant planning should have ________ and ___________ views.
Q3) With the film-screen system, __________ exposures are made to obtain the diagnostic information contained in one CT scan.
Q4) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
Q5) MRI actually measures:
A)electron density
B)proton density
C)neutron density
D)all of the above
Q6) Water makes up approximately:
A)50% of human tissue
B)10% of human tissue
C)70% of human tissue
D)1% of human tissue
Q7) ___________ sources of energy are used for CT scanning than for MRI.
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Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Q1) Quality assurance programs include:
A)keeping accurate records
B)maintaining darkroom cleanliness
C)producing acceptable radiographs
D)all of the above
Q2) The sensors used with direct digital radiography should be covered with barrier sheaths before use to avoid sensor contamination. Phosphor plates used with indirect digital radiography should also be covered with an infection control barrier before use.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q3) Guidelines for storage of unprocessed and unexposed films include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)storage in a warm, humid location
B)stored at temperatures between 50° F and 70° F
C)stored in a ventilated area
D)used before the expiration date on the package
Q4) Processing solutions should be changed _________, depending on the workload.
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Q1) A patient with a shallow palatal vault presents a problem for which technique:
A)bitewing
B)bisecting angle
C)paralleling
D)occlusal
Q2) In taking a full-mouth survey, the first exposure should be of the __________ area.
Q3) In order to do any intraoral radiographic procedure, patient __________ is essential.
Q4) A film that is dragged across the patient's palate may cause ___________.
Q5) The phrase "same lingual, opposite buccal" refers to:
A)buccal-object rule
B)right angle localization
C)pantomography
D)inverse square law
Q6) Good patient management techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)praising patients for good cooperation
B)ignoring patient questions regarding radiation dose
C)instructing patients in a firm but polite tone
D)instructing patients with confidence
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) The radiopaque area seen on the lower distal portion of maxillary molar radiographs is the:
A)maxillary tuberosity
B)styloid process
C)coronoid process
D)hamular process
Q2) Two soft tissue shadows often seen on periapical radiographs are the _______ and the ________.
Q3) Temporary acrylic crowns appear ___________ on radiographs.
Q4) Identify the thin, radiolucent line seen surrounding the cementum of the root of the tooth:
A)cortical bone
B)cancellous bone
C)periodontal ligament space
D)lamina dura
Q5) It is extremely difficult radiographically to differentiate dentin from:
A)bone
B)enamel
C)cementum
D)all of the above
21
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) Cysts and benign lesions usually grow:
A)rapidly
B)at no specific rate
C)slowly
D)at various rates
Q2) ____% of all pathologic conditions seen in the jaws are the result of nonvital teeth and their sequela.
Q3) If all the borders of a lesion are not seen, the dental professional should:
A)recommend further imaging
B)retake the periapical
C)retake the bitewing
D)not take or recommend further radiographs
Q4) In determining a differential diagnosis, identify the radiographs that should be initially considered:
A)full mouth series
B)panoramic radiograph
C)CT scan
D)MRI
Q5) _________ is an "explanation" of the structures seen radiographically.
Q6) Most lesions appear ________ on processed radiographs.
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) Resorption that occurs in a plane parallel to the cementoenamel junctions on adjoining teeth describes:
A)vertical bone loss
B)horizontal bone loss
C)infrabony pocket
D)all of the above
Q2) The height of alveolar bone is best evaluated on periapical films taken by the
Q3) The normal level of interproximal bone is:
A)at the cervical line
B)about 1 to 1.5 mm above or below the cementoenamel junction
C)about 3 mm above the cementoenamel junction
D)none of the above
Q4) Bitewing radiographs that have incorrect horizontal angulations will make interproximal caries detection:
A)easier
B)difficult
C)almost impossible
D)none of the above
Q5) Radiographically when caries reaches the dentinoenamel junction it
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Both internal and external idiopathic root resorption result in:
A)root fracture
B)tooth movement
C)pulpal necrosis
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following will appear radiopaque on radiographs?
A)a periapical granuloma
B)first-stage periapical cemental dysplasia
C)a periapical cyst
D)none of the above
Q3) The first detectable radiographic sign of periapical pathology is:
A)hypercementosis
B)loss of the lamina dura
C)disruption of the lamina dura
D)thickening of the periodontal ligament
Q4) How do a periapical cyst and a periapical granuloma appear radiographically?
A)they may appear identical
B)a cyst is always larger
C)a cyst is always smaller
D)none of the above
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) When a tooth has what appears to be two crowns and one root canal, the condition is called ___________.
Q2) Identify the location of the permanent tooth buds as they develop:
A)mesially to the deciduous teeth
B)apically to the deciduous teeth
C)distally to the deciduous teeth
D)all of the above are correct
Q3) Identify the teeth most commonly impacted:
A)maxillary and mandibular third molars
B)maxillary canines
C)mandibular premolars
D)mandibular canines
Q4) In amelogenesis imperfecta, the tooth tissue(s)that are affected include:
A)enamel
B)dentin
C)pulp
D)all of the above are affected
Q5) An S-shaped root condition is referred to as ______________.
Page 25
Q6) Impacted teeth can be localized in their mesiodistal position by periapical, ___________, or lateral oblique films.
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Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) The radiographic appearance of the skull in Paget's disease will show:
A)a decrease in size
B)an increase in size
C)a cotton wool bony appearance
D)none of the above
Q2) An osteoma, demonstrating an increase in the density of the bone, would appear:
A)radiolucent
B)radiopaque
C)mixed lesion
D)none of the above
Q3) An intrabony lesion that on a right-angle occlusal projection shows invasion of the buccal cortex is probably:
A)benign
B)infectious
C)malignant
D)developmental
Q4) A malignant tumor of bone will appear _________ on radiographs.
Q5) One way to differentiate a retained root tip radiographically is by the appearance of a
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) The dentist being physically present in the office during radiographic procedures is known as:
A)compliance
B)direct supervision
C)quality assurance
D)federal regulations
Q2) Explaining to the patient the nature and purpose of the dental radiographs is part of obtaining:
A)risk management
B)informed consent
C)maximum permissible dose
D)administrative radiographs
Q3) Which of the following is the most important item in defending a malpractice action?
A)records
B)dentist's recollection
C)hygienist's recollection
D)office manager's recollection
Q4) Original radiographs should ________ be kept in the dental office.
Q5) The third party payers should not request _________ from the dentist.
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