Radiology for Dental Assistants
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Radiology for Dental Assistants provides foundational knowledge and practical skills in dental radiography, emphasizing the safe and effective use of x-ray equipment in a clinical setting. This course covers the principles of radiation physics, radiation biology, infection control, and the regulatory requirements associated with dental radiography. Students learn to expose, process, and mount both intraoral and extraoral radiographs, as well as to identify normal anatomical landmarks and common pathologies. Emphasis is placed on techniques to minimize patient exposure, ensure accurate imaging, and maintain high standards of patient care and professionalism within the dental team.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 10th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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2
Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Q1) Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings were initiated in: A)1924.
B)1978. C)2000.
D)2003. Answer: D
Q2) The first woman to graduate from a recognized dental college was:
A)Jennie D. Spurrier. B)Malvina Cueria. C)Irene Newman.
D)Lucy B. Hobbs-Taylor. Answer: D
Q3) The ADA Journal published a report of infection control for dental offices in: A)1900. B)1978. C)1982. D)2000. Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dental assistant's salary can be greatly influenced by:
A)personal ambition.
B)responsibility.
C)geographical location.
D)any of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) What agency issues the certified dental assistant (CDA) credential?
A)The state dental board
B)Dental Assisting National Board (DANB)
C)American Dental Association (ADA)
D)American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA)
Answer: B
Q3) In addition to working in a dental office,a dental assistant may find employment opportunities in:
A)dental product sales.
B)teaching dental assisting.
C)processing insurance claims.
D)any of the above.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which member of the dental team manages patient records,payroll,insurance billing,and financial arrangements?
A)Clinical dental assistant
B)Business assistant
C)Dental hygienist
D)Dentist
Answer: B
Q2) The ADA recognizes how many dental specialties?
A)Five
B)Seven
C)Nine
D)Eleven
Answer: C
Q3) What is required before a dental laboratory technician can perform a task?
A)A prescription from a dentist
B)A model of the case
C)Radiographs and models
D)A phone call or fax from the dental office
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A behavior _____ be unethical and still be legal,but it _____ be illegal and still be ethical.
A)can; can
B)can; cannot
C)cannot; can
D)cannot; cannot
Q2) A patient has the right to refuse treatment even if the treatment would benefit him or her.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Reassuring a child that a treatment will not hurt when,in fact,it may hurt:
A)is doing no harm.
B)is a nice thing to do.
C)may threaten trust.
D)is promotion of well-being.
Q4) Membership in the ADAA is:
A)required.
B)necessary to take the DANB.
C)an ethical decision.
D)unnecessary.
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Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Q1) Records for minors whose parents live separately need:
A)only to tell who the custodial parent is.
B)to contain letters from both parents providing consent.
C)both a and b.
D)neither a nor b.
Q2) Abandonment could be charged if the dentist:
A)leaves for a weekend without making arrangements for patient care.
B)makes arrangements for another dentist to provide patient care in his or her absence.
C)goes on a last-minute vacation and forwards his calls to an answering service.
D)decides to move his practice to another state in 90 days.
Q3) Which of the following is not a classification of criminal law?
A)Felony
B)Malpractice
C)Misdemeanor
D)Infraction
Q4) A tort can only occur if intentional wrongdoing occurs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Q1) The two major body cavities are the _____ cavities.
A)parietal and dorsal
B)thoracic and ventral
C)dorsal and ventral
D)cranial and spinal
Q2) The body plane that divides the body into unequal right and left halves is the _____ plane.
A)medial
B)frontal
C)sagittal
D)midsagittal
Q3) The three imaginary lines used to divide the body into sections are called:
A)division lines.
B)section lines.
C)planes.
D)structural units.
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Q1) Which body system has the job of transporting nutrients and oxygen throughout the body?
A)Respiratory
B)Digestive
C)Circulatory
D)Endocrine
Q2) The outer layer of hard,dense,and very strong bone is known as:
A)cancellous bone.
B)bone marrow.
C)compact bone.
D)periosteum.
Q3) The term that refers to a muscle returning to its original shape is:
A)contraction.
B)relaxation.
C)origin.
D)insertion.
Q4) Toxic shock syndrome is a disorder of which body system?
A)Female reproductive
B)Urinary
C)Lymphatic
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Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of the tooth that is covered with enamel is the: A)root.
B)clinical crown.
C)anatomic crown.
D)cementum.
Q2) The structure that surrounds,supports,and is attached to the teeth is the:
A)alveolar bone.
B)cementum.
C)periodontal ligament.
D)periodontium.
Q3) The embedded portions of the periodontal ligament fibers that connect the cementum of the tooth and the bone are called:
A)Sharpey's fibers.
B)gingival fibers.
C)interradicular fibers.
D)lamina dura.
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Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the habitual grinding of teeth,especially at night.
A)Crepitus
B)Bruxism
C)Clenching
D)Trismus
Q2) The strongest,longest,and only movable bone of the face is the:
A)mandible.
B)zygomatic bone.
C)maxilla.
D)frontal bone.
Q3) The articulation between the temporal bones and the mandible form the: A)angle of the mandible.
B)mandibular notch.
C)temporomandibular joint.
D)sigmoid notch.
Q4) The muscle of facial expression that allows a person to laugh and smile is the: A)orbicularis oris.
B)buccinator.
C)mentalis.
D)zygomatic major.
11
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Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Q1) The _____ is a narrow band of tissue that connects two structures.
A)vestibule
B)nasion
C)frenum
D)glabella
Q2) Two small papillae are located on either side of the lingual frenum under the tongue that serve as openings for the ______ salivary glands.
A)submandibular
B)sublingual
C)parotid
D)none of the above
Q3) The _____ is the pear-shaped pad of tissue located behind the maxillary central incisors.
A)incisive papilla
B)hard palate
C)soft palate
D)uvula
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12
Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Q1) Which permanent teeth are nonsuccedaneous teeth?
A)Incisors
B)Cuspids
C)Premolars
D)Molars
Q2) There are _____ teeth in the primary dentition.
A)24
B)32
C)20
D)28
Q3) Which tooth-numbering system is used most often in the United States?
A)Palmer Notation System
B)Universal/National System
C)International Standards Organization System
D)Fédération Dentaire Internationale System
Q4) The facial surface closest to the lips is the _____ surface.
A)labial
B)lingual
C)masticatory
D)proximal
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Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rounded enamel extensions on the incisal ridge of newly erupted central and lateral incisors are called:
A)a cingulum.
B)a fossa.
C)mamelons.
D)a marginal ridge.
Q2) The area where the cusp ridges converge at a central point on the occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth is the:
A)central fossa.
B)triangular fossa.
C)central groove.
D)triangular groove.
Q3) The _____ premolar has two bifurcated roots.
A)mandibular first
B)maxillary first
C)maxillary second
D)mandibular second
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14
Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific group(s) of bacteria responsible for dental caries is(are):
A)staphylococci.
B)mutans streptococci.
C)lactobacilli.
D)b and c.
Q2) Dissolution of calcium and phosphate from hydroxyapatite crystals is called:
A)decay.
B)demineralization.
C)remineralization.
D)calcium depletion.
Q3) Chewing one stick of xylitol gum three times a day will help to do all except:
A)increase salivary flow.
B)assist in the remineralization of tooth surfaces.
C)replace brushing.
D)neutralize mouth acids.
Q4) Early childhood caries (ECC) is more prevalent in:
A)lower socioeconomic families that have limited access to care.
B)particular ethic groups and children with special needs.
C)children living in an area lacking water fluoridation.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true of perioscopy?
A)It is a new procedure that uses a miniature dental endoscope with video, lighting, and magnification technology to look into a deep subgingival pocket.
B)It is able to determine the precise location of root deposits, granulation tissue, caries, and root fractures.
C)It assists the operator in identifying and removing calculus that might have been missed.
D)It is painful and requires the use of a local anesthetic before use.
Q2) The primary cause of periodontal disease is:
A)bacterial plaque.
B)poorly fitting restorations.
C)stress.
D)none of the above.
Q3) Subgingival calculus:
A)is found above the margin of the gingiva.
B)is visible as a yellowish-white deposit.
C)occurs frequently near the openings of Wharton's ducts and Stensen's ducts.
D)is dark green or black in color due to staining from subgingival bleeding.
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Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _______ is a plastic-like covering applied over pits and fissures to protect the tooth against decay.
A)fluoride varnish
B)crown
C)sealant
D)fluoride gel
Q2) Foods that cause caries are known as:
A)cariogenic.
B)anticariogenic.
C)xylitol.
D)aspartame.
Q3) A toothpick is utilized as a component of which of the following interdental aids?
A)End-tuft brush
B)Bridge threader
C)Automatic flosser
D)Perio-aid
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Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Partially complete proteins:
A)contain all essential amino acids.
B)are able to maintain life.
C)are capable of supporting normal growth.
D)supply 9 calories per gram.
Q2) Which term or phrase refers to the components in food that are needed by the body?
A)Nutrition
B)Antioxidants
C)Nutrients
D)The basic four food groups
Q3) The American Heart Association recommends that no more than ____% of the daily calorie intake should be in the form of fats.
A)10
B)15
C)30
D)35
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premature loss of primary teeth and shifting of developing teeth horizontally or any other abnormal position may lead to:
A)attrition.
B)impaction.
C)ankylosis.
D)bulimia.
Q2) _____ is the general term used to describe inflammation and changes to the tongue.
A)Fissured tongue
B)Glossitis
C)Black hairy tongue
D)Geographic tongue
Q3) An adverse effect of the inflammatory change in the oral mucosa showing a whitish appearance is called:
A)paresthesia.
B)glossitis.
C)cheilitis.
D)mucositis.
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Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of bacteria have a rod-like shape?
A)Cocci
B)Diplococci
C)Bacilli
D)Spirochetes
Q2) Which infectious disease is a leading cause of death worldwide and is an occupational risk for healthcare workers?
A)Legionnaires' disease
B)HIV
C)Tetanus
D)Tuberculosis
Q3) Oral candidiasis is an opportunistic infection caused by:
A)yeast.
B)water.
C)protozoa.
D)none of the above.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Q1) Transmission of a disease to a susceptible person through the handling of contaminated instruments or by touching contaminated surfaces is a form of _____ transmission.
A)direct
B)indirect
C)airborne
D)spatter
Q2) In the chain of infection,a person who is unable to resist infection by a particular pathogen is known as:
A)virulence.
B)a susceptible host.
C)infectious pathogens.
D)infectious disease.
Q3) The law designed to protect employees against occupational exposure to blood-borne disease-causing organisms such as HBV,HIV,and HCV is:
A)the OSHA Blood-borne Pathogens Standard.
B)Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003.
C)the OSHA Health and Safety Standards.
D)the exposure control plan.
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Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Q1) One of the "pros" of complex phenols is that:
A)many preparations are limited to one day of use.
B)they may leave a residual film on treated surfaces.
C)they are sporicidal.
D)they are compatible with metal, glass, rubber, and plastic.
Q2) If the surface below the barrier is inadvertently touched when removing a contaminated barrier,you:
A)do not have to clean and disinfect the surface.
B)will have to clean and disinfect that surface.
C)will have to clean and disinfect all treatment room surfaces.
D)should place a double layer of protective material.
Q3) Some of the "cons" of complex phenols include that they:
A)are corrosive and cannot be reused.
B)must be used on hard surfaces only.
C)may degrade some plastics or leave etchings on glass.
D)leave chlorine smell on surfaces.
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Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Q1) Which of the following is not an advantage of "flash" sterilization?
A)Short exposure time
B)Temperature
C)Inability to wrap items
D)None of the above
Q2) How can instrument rusting be prevented?
A)Instrument must be completely dry
B)Lubrication of hinges in instrument
C)Leaving instrument wet in packaging
D)Both a and b
Q3) The best way to determine that sterilization has actually occurred is to use:
A)process integrators.
B)biologic monitors.
C)process indicators.
D)color-changing sterilization bags or tape.
Q4) Some ultrasonic cleaning solutions have:
A)disinfectants.
B)enzyme activity.
C)antimicrobial activity.
D)both b and c.
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Q1) An agency that issues rules and regulations with which dental offices must comply is a(n) _____ agency.
A)regulatory
B)advisory
C)licensure
D)local governmental
Q2) _____ is a nonregulatory agency.
A)The CDC
B)The EPA
C)The FDA
D)OSHA
Q3) Annual OSHA inspections are mandatory for every dental practice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) OSHA standards related to dentistry include which of the following?
A)Blood-borne Pathogens Standard
B)Hazard Communication Standard
C)Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Q1) Some chemicals can be absorbed through the skin.Repeated contact with a chemical can cause a skin condition called:
A)acne.
B)dermatitis.
C)erythema.
D)inflation.
Q2) Any chemical that can cause either a physical or health hazard is:
A)a hazardous chemical.
B)corrosive.
C)toxic.
D)poisonous if swallowed.
Q3) Lead foil from the radiographic film should be:
A)disposed of in the regular trash.
B)recycled as scrap metal.
C)recycled through Eastman Kodak.
D)either b or c.
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Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Q1) When choosing a chemical agent to give dental unit water lines a "shock" treatment,care should be taken to:
A)not use a product that will damage the dental units.
B)check with the manufacturer to determine the recommended chemical product and protocol for maintenance.
C)not use more than once a month.
D)both a and b.
Q2) Flushing the dental waterlines for several minutes every morning and for 20-30 seconds between patients will help to:
A)reduce prep time.
B)reduce the microbial count.
C)both a and b.
D)none of the above.
Q3) Dental team members can reduce their exposure to the dental unit water by using: A)the HVE.
B)a dental dam.
C)masks, protective eyewear, and/or face shields.
D)both a and c.
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Q1) Which of the following factors can contribute to musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs)?
A)Posture
B)Repetition and force
C)Twisting
D)Both a and b
Q2) The full back release involves:
A)inversion with gravity boots.
B)letting the head move down slowly and allowing the arms and head to fall between the knees.
C)lowering the back of the dental chair until the patient's head is lower than their feet.
D)touching your toes and then hyperextending your back.
Q3) The goal of ergonomics is to help people:
A)adapt the human body to the work environment.
B)increase their range of twisting and reaching motions.
C)establish sequences of repetitive motions to reduce work strain.
D)stay healthy while performing their work more effectively.
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) The dental team needs to be aware of the importance of properly documenting patient information because it not only helps in clinical patient care but also:
A)conveys a legal significance about which both the dentist and assistant must be aware of.
B)has a large volume of information.
C)both a and b.
D)none of the above.
Q2) Employment information about the patient is located in which of the following patient record forms?
A)Patient registration
B)Medical-dental health history
C)Clinical examination
D)Treatment plan
Q3) The goal of obtaining medical history information from a dental patient is to:
A)know of any existing allergies to foods or medications.
B)be alerted of any medical conditions.
C)identify special treatment needs of the patient.
D)all of the above.
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28
Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) Which of the following are the arteries used for taking a pulse?
A)Carotid, brachial, femoral
B)Brachial, radial, femoral
C)Radial, brachial, carotid
D)Facial, carotid, femoral
Q2) A tympanic thermometer:
A)shows a digital reading after 30 seconds.
B)uses an infrared signal to provide an accurate reading within 2 seconds.
C)is a long glass tube with a small mercury bulb at the end.
D)is affected by an open mouth, hot or cold drinks, or nose congestion.
Q3) Which of the following best describes a pulse?
A)Palpate the artery
B)Oxygen taken into the body
C)Body's temperature
D)Rhythmic expansion of an artery each time the heart beats
Q4) The normal respiration rate for a relaxed adult is _____ breaths per minute.
A)10 to 20
B)30 to 40
C)50 to 60
D)5 to 12
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Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Q1) Presentation of the treatment plan:
A)should be conducted at the conclusion of the clinical examination.
B)is typically scheduled as a 30-minute to 1-hour appointment in a casual atmosphere such as at a restaurant during lunch hour.
C)should be conducted in the treatment room where the procedures will be done.
D)should be done in terms the patient will understand.
Q2) The dental assistant is involved in which of the following in patient examination and treatment planning?
A)Taking intraoral and extraoral photographs
B)Charting and recording the dentist's findings
C)Assisting the patient with completion of the patient information forms
D)All of the above
Q3) The diagram used for charting the teeth includes _____ primary teeth and _____ permanent teeth.
A)24; 30
B)20; 36
C)20; 32
D)32; 20
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Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Q1) The aging population can be faced with special oral health needs,and the goal of the dental team for these patients is to:
A)factor this into the treatment planning phase.
B)treat them exactly the same as everyone else.
C)assure them that the condition of their mouth will not affect self-esteem or social interaction.
D)inform them that poor oral health will have no effect on general health.
Q2) Patients with _____ may have a diminished cough reflex and may have an inability to clear their throats by coughing.
A)arthritis
B)congestive heart failure
C)muscular dystrophy
D)hyperthyroidism
Q3) What percentage of older people may be affected by periodontal disease?
A)25%
B)30%
C)15%
D)50%
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Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) What schedule of drug has a clearly accepted medical use and the lowest potential for abuse?
A)I
B)V
C)III
D)IV
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding prescriptions?
A)The symbol Rx is Latin for prescription.
B)A prescription is a verbal order by a physician, dentist, or dental hygienist for the preparation and administration of a medicine.
C)Any member of the dental team may prescribe medications.
D)Prescription pads should be kept in a locked drawer.
Q3) Which of the following drugs has no accepted medical use,as well as the highest potential for abuse?
A)Morphine
B)Valium
C)Heroin
D)Marijuana
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32
Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Sample Questions
Q1) A loss of consciousness caused by a lack of oxygen to the brain is:
A)hyperventilation.
B)fainting.
C)syncope.
D)both b and c.
Q2) Patients with asthma commonly have what type of medication with them at all times?
A)Insulin
B)Nitroglycerin
C)Valium
D)Bronchodilator (inhaler)
Q3) Any unexplained chest pain should be treated as:
A)epigastric distress.
B)syncope.
C)angina.
D)a potential acute myocardial infarction.
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Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41098
Sample Questions
Q1) Dental handpieces are controlled by a foot-controlled device called a(n):
A)central vacuum.
B)curing light.
C)rheostat.
D)air-water syringe.
Q2) Which placement of the dental unit keeps the dental instruments and handpieces out of the patient's sight?
A)Side delivery
B)Rear delivery
C)Front delivery
D)None of the above
Q3) In what room would a dentist discuss the diagnosis and treatment plans with a patient?
A)Reception
B)Dentist's private office
C)Dental laboratory
D)Consultation
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Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instrument exchange is used to transfer surgical instruments?
A)Palm grasp
B)Two-handed instrument exchange
C)Single-handed instrument exchange
D)Reverse palm-thumb grasp
Q2) The theory of team dentistry,also referred to as _____,is based on the concept of the chairside dental assistant being seated across from the dentist and the two of them working together as a team.
A)four-handed dentistry
B)six-handed dentistry
C)teamwork
D)expanded-function dentistry
Q3) The basic instrument grasps include which of the following?
A)Pen grasp
B)Palm grasp
C)Palm-thumb grasp
D)All of the above
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35
Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Composite placement instruments are made from ____________ to prevent scratching of the composite material.
A)stainless steel
B)Teflon
C)anodized aluminum
D)both b and c
Q2) An amalgam _____ is also known as a plugger.
A)condenser
B)knife
C)carrier
D)carver
Q3) Which hand cutting instrument is used to cut enamel and bevel along the gingival margins of a cavity preparation?
A)Hatchet
B)Excavator
C)Hoe
D)Gingival margin trimmer
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of a metal shaft on which sandpaper disks or other abrasives are mounted?
A)Shaft
B)Working end
C)Screw
D)Mandrel
Q2) The _____ handpiece can operate both forward and backward and can be used with a variety of attachments.
A)high-speed
B)laboratory
C)low-speed
D)laser
Q3) Air abrasion handpieces are most effective when used for which of the following?
A)External stain removal
B)Sealants
C)Crown preparations
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is(are) used most throughout a restorative dental procedure?
A)Saliva ejector
B)High-volume evacuator
C)Spittoon
D)Both a and b
Q2) Which of the following is not an advantage of using cotton rolls for isolation?
A)Easy application
B)Limited retraction
C)No additional equipment
D)Flexible for easy adaptability to areas of the mouth
Q3) Which of the following is used along with the HVE to complete the rinsing process?
A)Dental dam
B)Cup of water
C)Air-water syringe
D)Dry-angle
Q4) The dental dam is placed _____ the local anesthetic is administered.
A)before
B)after
C)either a or b
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ratios of vasoconstrictor to local anesthetic would contain the highest level of vasoconstrictor?
A)1:100,000
B)1:20,000
C)1:50,000
D)1:200,000
Q2) Nitrous oxide oxygen administration always begins and ends with:
A)the patient deep breathing.
B)the patient breathing 100% oxygen.
C)taking the patient's blood pressure and temperature.
D)both b and c.
Q3) Anesthesia is defined as:
A)the passage of a substance into the interior of another by solution or penetration.
B)a substance for killing microorganisms on the skin.
C)the temporary loss of feeling or sensation.
D)the act of inhalation, or ingestion, as of a foreign object.
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Chapter 38:
Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the operator's film badge indicates an exposure to small amounts of radiation,what should be done?
A)Consult a physician.
B)Ignore the report.
C)Evaluate the x-ray equipment and techniques.
D)Change the mA and kVp.
Q2) Primary radiation is:
A)also called the useful beam.
B)the beam of x-rays that comes from the target.
C)less penetrating than secondary radiation.
D)both a and b.
Q3) How much filtration is federally required for a dental x-ray machine operating over 70 kVp?
A)2.75 mm
B)2.50 mm
C)2.25 mm
D)0.5 mm
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Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When loading the film into the cassette before exposure (in extraoral radiography),the:
A)film comes preloaded in the cassette.
B)procedure must be done in the darkroom.
C)film may be placed in the holder outside the darkroom.
D)film does not need an intensifying screen.
Q2) The most commonly used film size for adult intraoral dentistry is size:
A)#0.
B)#2.
C)#3.
D)#4.
Q3) The gallon of fixer is mistaken for developer,and developer is mistakenly thought to be fixer.As a result,films pass through the fixer first,then the developer.Each film will now be:
A)clear.
B)completely black.
C)gray.
D)yellowish-brown.
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) After performing the film-screen contact test,areas of good film-screen contact will:
A)be uniform.
B)be darker.
C)vary in densities.
D)all of the above.
Q2) An administrative quality control plan:
A)ensures that each individual is trained to perform assigned duties.
B)maintains a written description of the quality insurance plan.
C)maintains records of control tests.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The process of informing the patient about the nature and purpose of dental imaging is termed:
A)informed consent.
B)disclosure.
C)respondeat superior.
D)quality control test.
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Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exposure sequence for the posterior teeth should begin with the _____ view.
A)maxillary right premolar
B)maxillary right molar
C)mandibular right premolar
D)mandibular right molar
Q2) According to the guidelines for film placement,which of the following is true?
A)The colored side of the film always faces the teeth.
B)Anterior films are always placed horizontally.
C)Posterior periapical films are always placed vertically.
D)The identification dot on the film is always placed in the slot of the film holder.
Q3) When using a #2 film sensor for anterior views using the paralleling technique,there are _____ anterior images.
A)four
B)six
C)seven
D)eight
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43
Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anterior teeth that appear fat are caused by the:
A)patient's teeth positioned too far forward on bite block.
B)patient's teeth positioned too far back on bite block.
C)patient not sitting or standing up straight.
D)chin positioned too low.
Q2) The cause of a panoramic image that comes out with a radiopaque cone-shaped artifact that interferes with the diagnostic information is the:
A)patient's chin was too high during the procedure.
B)patient's lead apron was incorrectly placed or a lead apron with a thyroid collar was used.
C)patient's head was posterior to the focal trough.
D)patient moved during the procedure.
Q3) How can a lead apron artifact be avoided during exposure of panoramic images?
A)Use a lead apron without a thyroid collar.
B)Place the lead apron high around the neck of the patient so that it does not block the x-ray beam.
C)Place the lead apron low around the neck of the patient so that it does not block the x-ray beam.
D)Both a and c are correct.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the process by which the resin material is changed from a pliable state into a hardened restoration.
A)Trituration
B)Retention
C)Polymerization
D)Galvanism
Q2) Corrosion of metal restorative materials:
A)is a reaction that occurs when metal is exposed to products such as temperature, humidity, and saline.
B)is easily removed with polishing agents.
C)both a and b.
D)does not occur.
Q3) Chewing is an example of _______ stress.
A)compressive
B)tensile
C)shear
D)all of the above
Q4) Retention holds a material in place and seals the structures together.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acid etching utilizes etchant containing _____ acid.
A)sulfuric
B)hydrochloric
C)phosphoric
D)citric
Q2) Calcium hydroxide liner is a frequently used liner because it:
A)stimulates production of secondary dentin.
B)can be used with only composite resin material.
C)acts as a base as well as a liner.
D)does not require the use of a filling material.
Q3) Calcium hydroxide:
A)cannot be placed under direct composite resins because it will inhibit polymerization.
B)stimulates the production of reparative dentin.
C)functions as a thick base to support extensive restorations.
D)consists of a resin in an organic solvent.
Q4) If a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type _____ glass ionomer cement is designed for restoring areas of erosion near the gingiva.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q2) Temporary cements are used when the dentist:
A)is cementing porcelain laminate veneers.
B)will need to remove the indirect restoration at a later time.
C)is cementing cast restorations permanently.
D)restores teeth with silver amalgam restorations.
Q3) When removing cement from a casting,never:
A)use a explorer.
B)use a firm fulcrum.
C)move instruments in a horizontal direction.
D)pull excess cement down away from the casting.
Q4) The provisional should be lined with ZOE cement when being placed for temporary coverage.
A)True
B)False
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alginate impression material can:
A)change color as it sets.
B)be normal set or fast set.
C)be supplied with flavoring.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The length or depth of the alginate impression tray borders can be extended by adding _____ to the tray.
A)utility wax
B)acrylic
C)boxing wax
D)border molding compound
Q3) Syneresis in an alginate impression occurs when:
A)water evaporates from the impression.
B)the mix changes colors.
C)excess moisture is absorbed by the impression.
D)the mixing time is increased.
Q4) Although technique may vary,when assisting a dentist in taking an elastomeric impression,mix the light-bodied material first.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A custom impression tray should fit and adapt well to the model and should maintain ____ mm of impression material between itself and the teeth.
A)1 to 2
B)2 to 3
C)3 to 4
D)5 to 6
Q2) ________ wax is pre-formed with a thin sheet of aluminum foil between the layers.
A)Sticky
B)Inlay casting
C)Baseplate
D)Bite registration
Q3) The advantage of more equipment and expertise in the office dental laboratory is that:
A)overhead costs rise.
B)the dentist or private laboratory technician can handle larger cases.
C)more work will be completed by the commercial laboratory.
D)there is less work to do for the private dental laboratory technician.
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The class V restoration is defined as a pit and fissure restoration.
B)The class V lesion occurs on the incisal third of the facial and lingual surface of any tooth.
C)The class V lesion is prepared by having a smooth surface outline with angles.
D)The class V lesion location will determine the type of restorative material selected.
Q2) Which statement is not true concerning tooth whitening?
A)Tooth whitening can be achieved using over-the-counter products.
B)Tooth whitening is permanent.
C)Tooth whitening can have some adverse effects on the teeth.
D)The main ingredient for whitening products is peroxide or a form of peroxide.
Q3) The purpose of a veneer is to ______ teeth.
A)improve the appearance of anterior
B)improve alignment of
C)close spaces between
D)all of the above
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The larger side of the universal matrix band loop is always toward the____ third of the tooth.
A)gingival
B)incisal
C)occlusal
D)buccal
Q2) Mylar strips are used for class ___ restorations.
A)I
B)III
C)V
D)II
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of posterior metal matrix bands?
A)The smaller circumference of the band is the occlusal edge.
B)The smaller circumference is placed toward the gingival edge.
C)The larger circumference of the band is the gingival edge.
D)The edge of the band is contoured in the proximal contact area.
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final appointment in the crown and bridge process involves:
A)cementation of a permanent crown.
B)try-in of the casting.
C)picking a shade.
D)writing the laboratory prescription.
Q2) When assisting with the final impression in a crown and bridge preparation,the operator may "blow" around the light-bodied impression material before inserting the heavy-bodied material.The purpose of this procedure is to:
A)dry the area off.
B)make it easier for the operator to see the margins of the preparation.
C)make it easier to set the impression tray.
D)thin out the material to allow it to flow better within the sulcus and around the margins.
Q3) Which statement is true of a fixed bridge?
A)There are at least two abutment teeth in a fixed bridge.
B)The fixed bridge is described by the number of units involved.
C)A fixed bridge consists of at least one abutment and one pontic.
D)Both b and c are true statements.
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52
Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two types of provisional coverage include _____ and _____.
A)direct and indirect
B)functional and esthetical
C)custom and prefabricated
D)polymer and monomer
Q2) Patient home-care instructions for someone with provisional coverage should instruct him to:
A)"pop" the floss out of the contact.
B)pull floss through the contact, either to the facial or lingual side, once floss is placed below the contact.
C)have the provisional coverage recemented or replaced if it becomes loose or is lost.
D)leave the provisional coverage out of the mouth until the final restoration is cemented if it becomes loose or is lost.
Q3) Provisional crowns are commonly cemented with _____ cement.
A)temporary
B)polycarboxylate
C)glass ionomer
D)composite resin
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Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long of an appointment is scheduled to deliver the partial denture?
A)10 to 20 minutes
B)About 1 hour
C)20 to 30 minutes
D)5 to 10 minutes
Q2) Which of the following is an intraoral factor that must be considered when the dentist is recommending a removable prosthesis for a patient?
A)Age
B)Physical health
C)Musculature
D)Dietary habits
Q3) Which type of impression material is used for the final impressions for the creation of the baseplates and occlusal rims?
A)Alginate
B)Elastomeric
C)Acrylic
D)Template
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A properly placed dental implant has a success rate of more than ___%.
A)90
B)80
C)70
D)60
Q2) The dental radiographs that are necessary to determine anatomic structures include:
A)periapical.
B)bitewing.
C)occlusal.
D)vertical bitewing.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the formation of dental plaque and calculus on implants?
A)Neither dental plaque nor dental calculus can form on dental implants.
B)Dental plaque can form on dental implants but dental calculus will not.
C)Dental plaque cannot form on dental implants but dental calculus will form.
D)Both dental plaque and dental calculus can form on dental implants.
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55
Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which dentist specializes in the prevention,diagnosis,and treatment of the dental pulp and the tissues that surround the root of the tooth?
A)Periodontist
B)Endodontist
C)Oral surgeon
D)Prosthodontist
Q2) When the tooth pulp is irritated and the patient experiences pain to thermal stimuli,a diagnosis of ____ can be made.
A)periradicular cyst
B)reversible pulpitis
C)irreversible pulpitis
D)periodontal abscess
Q3) If a tooth has a necrotic pulp,it will not respond to:
A)heat and cold stimulus.
B)percussion and palpation.
C)nonvital and vital stimulus.
D)reversible and irreversible stimulus.
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Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acronym "laser" means :
A)less amplification of stimulated emission of radiation
B)light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
C)Light amplification by simulations of emission of radiation
D)light amps of simulated emission of rays
Q2) _____ is defined as a surgical procedure involving the removal of bone.
A)Osseous surgery
B)Ostectomy
C)Osteoplasty
D)A pedicle graft
Q3) The soft material that forms on the teeth that is the primary cause of gingival inflammation and other forms of periodontal disease is:
A)calculus.
B)exudates.
C)fluoride.
D)plaque.
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospital may grant the oral surgeon privileges to operate in the hospital based on:
A)the surgical team.
B)if they have room.
C)their experience and competency.
D)their training only.
Q2) The difference between surgical and suture scissors is:
A)surgical scissors are more delicate than suture scissors.
B)surgical scissors have a small notch on the cutting edge of blade, whereas suture scissors have straight blades.
C)suture scissors have serrated cutting edges designed to cut only suture material, whereas surgical scissors have only smooth cutting edges.
D)suture scissors are interchangeable with surgical scissors, whereas surgical scissors should only be used for surgical tasks.
Q3) _____ is/are used to remove a tooth in one piece,with the crown and root intact.
A)A periosteal elevator
B)Forceps
C)A surgical curette
D)A rongeur
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pediatric dentistry is the specialized area of dentistry that focuses on providing oral healthcare to the needs of:
A)infants, children, and adolescents.
B)infants and children, but not adolescents.
C)children and adolescents, but not infants.
D)children, but neither infants nor adolescents.
Q2) Which is not used in the pulpotomy procedure?
A)rubber dam
B)high-speed handpiece
C)ZOE base
D)slow-speed handpiece.
Q3) The dentist will treat severely decayed and endodontically treated primary teeth with:
A)stainless steel crowns.
B)porcelain-fused-to-metal crowns.
C)gold crowns.
D)provisional coverage.
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Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disclosing agent can be used for:
A)identifying areas of plaque.
B)evaluating the effectiveness of the polishing.
C)showing intrinsic stain.
D)both a and b.
Q2) Which of the following is not a possible negative effect of coronal polishing?
A)Dentinal hypersensitivity during and after the appointment
B)Loss of enamel
C)Scratches or rough surfaces left on restorations
D)Decreased fluoride uptake
Q3) Which of the following choices represents an endogenous stain?
A)An excessive amount of fluoride during the development of the tooth
B)Blueberries
C)Dental amalgam that has been incorporated into tooth structure
D)Coffee
Q4) The operator should ask the patient to ______ throughout the procedure.
A)wear safety glasses
B)keep their eyes closed
C)keep the mouth open wide
D)all of the above
60
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Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of sealant loss is:
A)use of unfilled material.
B)use of outdated material.
C)moisture contamination during placement.
D)bruxism.
Q2) Which teeth would be the most likely candidates for sealants?
A)Premolars
B)Teeth that are well coalesced
C)Teeth that have been erupted for six years
D)Primary molars with deep pits and fissures
Q3) Which is an indication for sealants?
A)Presence of small interproximal decay
B)A partially erupted tooth
C)Adjacent teeth with occlusal decay
D)Patient has adequate fluoride program
Q4) Filled sealant resins,as compared with unfilled:
A)require occlusal adjustment.
B)have a lower wear rate.
C)may be visible on x-rays.
D)all of the above.
61
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the frontal evaluation of facial esthetics,the face is examined:
A)to determine whether the jaws are proportionately positioned.
B)to evaluate lip protrusion.
C)for bilateral symmetry.
D)to evaluate the vertical facial proportions and the mandibular angle.
Q2) Buccal arch wire tubes are located on _____ bands.
A)the maxillary first molar
B)the mandibular first molar
C)all
D)both a and b.
Q3) Class II occlusion _____.
A)is normal occlusion
B)is mesioclusion
C)occurs when the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the interdental space between the mandibular second premolar and the mesial cusp of the mandibular first molar
D)occurs when the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the interdental space between the distal cusp of the mandibular first permanent molar and the mesial cusp of the mandibular second permanent molar
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Page 62
Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A)Americans spend more time with their coworkers than their own families.
B)How well you get along with your coworkers can affect the patient's opinion of the dental practice.
C)Since everyone in the office has his or her own responsibilities, teamwork does not play a role in the patient's perception of the practice.
D)A patient can tell quickly the level of harmony that exists in a dental practice.
Q2) Good verbal communication does not include:
A)using technical language when talking to a patient to sound professional.
B)voice quality.
C)asking questions.
D)using common language.
Q3) When completing written correspondence to insurance carriers,which of the following should be included?
A)Patient's name, address, contract number, social security number
B)Patient's name, phone number, contract number
C)Patient's name, address, identification number
D)Patient's name, identification number, social security number
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41128
Sample Questions
Q1) Most dental practices use ___-minute time units,because they provide maximal flexibility in scheduling,allowing for more productivity.
A)10
B)15
C)30
D)60
Q2) Which of the following is the most commonly used system for patient filing because it is the easiest and follows basic rules of indexing?
A)Numerical
B)Color-coding
C)Alphabetic
D)Chronologic
Q3) Files for those patients who have been recently seen (in the past two to three years),which are maintained in the areas of easiest accessibility,are called _____ files.
A)inactive
B)active
C)current patient
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 64
Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41129
Sample Questions
Q1) Financial arrangements:
A)should be made before treatment is initiated in all cases, including emergencies.
B)are public information and should be made in a public setting, such as at the front desk where others can witness the discussion.
C)should be made, in an unhurried manner, with the person responsible for the account.
D)should be recorded on the patient's medical and dental history form.
Q2) Participation in a(n) _______ means that the dentist has contracted to provide to subscribers all or most of the dental services covered under the program,in return for payment on a per capita basis.
A)capitation program.
B)direct reimbursement plan.
C)individual practice association.
D)preferred provider organization.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
65
Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41130
Sample Questions
Q1) A personal philosophy:
A)tells people all about who you are.
B)reflects your commitments, values, and concerns related to future employment.
C)expresses your goals for your personal life.
D)should be changed every six months.
Q2) _____ provide short-term positions so that you can evaluate firsthand the responsibilities and challenges of a given position; this experience can be helpful in determining whether the dental practice and the prospective employee are a good match for each other.
A)Newspaper advertisements
B)Campus placements
C)Temporary agencies
D)Dental supply companies
Q3) The resume should:
A)convince the employer to hire you without needing an interview.
B)list your work experiences in order, beginning with the oldest and working up to the most recent.
C)list your educational background.
D)include personal data such as hobbies and interests.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 66