Radiological Science for Dental Hygienists
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Radiological Science for Dental Hygienists provides an in-depth introduction to the principles and techniques of radiology as they apply to dental hygiene practice. The course covers the production and properties of x-rays, radiation biology and safety, intraoral and extraoral radiographic techniques, film processing, digital imaging, and interpretation of dental radiographs. Students gain foundational knowledge to safely expose, process, and evaluate dental images, as well as identify common technical and anatomical errors. Emphasis is placed on infection control, legal and ethical responsibilities, and patient management to ensure the effective and safe use of radiographic procedures in the dental setting.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Q1) When designing barriers it is important to remember that x-rays travel in _______ lines.
Answer: straight
Q2) Examples of particulate radiation include:
A)alpha particles
B)electrons
C)neutrons
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Pointed, plastic cones are not used in dental radiology because:
A)the cones are difficult for the practitioner to line up correct anatomic structures
B)the cones cause the production of excess secondary and scatter radiation
C)the cones require a higher kVp setting on the control panel
D)the cones require an increase in the time setting
Answer: B
Q4) The quantity of x-ray photons produced is determined by the _________ setting. Answer: milliamperage
Q5) The quality of the x-ray photons is determined by the __________. Answer: kilovoltage
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Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Q1) When the position-indicating device (PID)is positioned 2 inches away from the face and all other factors are equal, the resulting film will be:
A)light
B)dark
C)distorted
D)magnified
Answer: A
Q2) When using the bisecting method the object-film distance is kept to a ______________.
Answer: minimum
Q3) All of the following are useful in viewing radiographs EXCEPT:
A)an illuminator
B)ceiling light
C)a magnifying glass
D)a darkened room
Answer: B
Q4) The most common cause of lack of detail on a radiograph is __________.
Answer: patient movement
Q5) In order to increase the contrast on a radiograph one should ________ the kVp.
Answer: decrease
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Q1) The lead foil backing is included in the intraoral film packet:
A)to absorb back-scattered radiation
B)to help keep the film packet light-tight
C)to hold the film in place
D)to protect the film from saliva
Q2) A film that has been fogged will have decreased _____________.
Q3) Identify the fastest film speed currently available for intraoral radiography:
A)B
B)C
C)E
D)F
Q4) Film-screen imaging systems produce ___________ definition than intraoral film.
Q5) Taking films to be duplicated out of the mounts:
A)is never necessary
B)makes processing easier
C)improves the detail of the duplicates
D)prolongs the life of the duplicating device
Q6) The plot of film density versus exposure time is called a (an)___________.
Q7) Film cassettes can be either _______ or _______.
Page 5
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) The quality factor in measuring x-radiation is ___________.
Q2) To further protect our patients from excessive exposure to radiation in dental procedures, the ADA recommends the use of:
A)F-speed film and/or digital sensors
B)the use of selection criteria in ordering radiographic exams
C)rectangular collimation
D)all of the above
Q3) The output of a dental x-ray machine is expressed in ________.
Q4) Identify the largest source of artificial radiation to which the population is exposed:
A)medical and dental radiation
B)consumer products
C)nuclear accidents
D)solar radiation
Q5) A tissue that is near the primary beam and receives a lot of secondary radiation is the _________.
Q6) A tissue that lies within the primary dental beam and is very radiosensitive is the
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Q1) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 \(\frac {3} {4} \) inches at the skin
C)3 \(\frac {1} {2} \)inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
Q2) Radiographs taken to confirm that procedures have been completed are called __________.
Q3) An area in which a secretary sits constantly that is adjacent to a dental operatory where radiographs are taken is said to have an occupancy factor of:
A)8 hours
B)1
C)1/4
D)1/16
E)5 days
Q4) It is predicted that the MPD will ________ be reduced in the near future.
Q5) An x-ray machine that has tube-head drift may produce dental images that are:
A)distorted
B)blurred
C)cone-cut
D)all of the above
Page 7
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Q1) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
Q2) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
Q3) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
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Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Q1) Cell phones should not be used in the darkroom because:
A)the illumination from the phone could cause film fog or expose the film
B)talking on the phone while processing radiographs is confusing
C)the phone could be dropped into the processing solutions
D)the operator may inadvertently open the darkroom door while processing
Q2) The minimum size for a darkroom should be:
A)2 × 2 feet
B)4 × 4 feet
C)6 × 6 feet
D)none of the above
Q3) Under typical working conditions, the developer and fixer solutions should be changed:
A)at least every other day
B)once each week
C)every 2 to 3 weeks
D)every 2 to 3 months
Q4) Defective film hangers should be disposed of because they can cause
Q5) The protective coating on the emulsion is softened by the _______ and hardened by the _________.
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Q6) Panoramic films are __________ sensitive to darkroom light than intraoral film.
Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Barrier envelopes should be used for:
A)all patients
B)patients with a positive medical history
C)patients who are bleeding
D)patients with contaminated saliva
Q2) Items to consider for infection control with radiographic procedures include:
A)lead apron
B)film packets
C)dental chair
D)all of the above
Q3) In a practice in which there are many HIV-positive patients, the film rollers in automatic processors should be:
A)scrubbed with an abrasive cleaner every day
B)autoclaved every day
C)disinfected after every use
D)treated in the usual acceptable manner
Q4) Soaps for hand washing in the dental operatory should be _____________.
Q5) Infection control procedures should be followed for __________ patients.
Q6) HBV and HBC are acronyms for types of the _________ virus.
Page 10
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Q1) An overexposed film will appear similar to a (an)__________ film.
Q2) Dark films can be caused by:
A)increased focal-film distance
B)increased object-film distance
C)overexposure
D)underdevelopment
Q3) Improper horizontal beam alignment results in:
A)overlapping
B)collimator cut-off
C)film placement
D)elongation
Q4) The film packet and the long axis of the tooth being radiographed must be parallel to each other, and the central ray of the x-ray beam must be directed perpendicular to both describes the basic principles of what intraoral technique?
A)paralleling technique
B)bisecting technique
C)occlusal technique
D)localization technique
Q5) Reversing the film to the x-ray beam will cause ___________.
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with standard intraoral films, the occlusal film size is approximately:
A)the same
B)twice as large
C)4 times as large
D)8 times as large
Q2) If the vertical angulation of the PID is insufficient, _______ will result.
Q3) The imaginary angle that is bisected with the use of the Bisecting Angle Technique is formed between the long axis of the tooth and:
A)the long axis of the PID
B)the horizontal axis of the film
C)the long axis of the film
D)the horizontal axis of the tube head
Q4) A +75 degree vertical angulation for a maxillary cuspid will produce a (an)________ image.
Q5) In the bisecting technique the tooth-film distance is:
A)maximal
B)minimal
C)not important
D)none of the above
Page 12
Q6) The finger holding method should _____ be used with the bisecting technique.
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Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Q1) Identify the area of the mouth in which most overlapped images are seen during panoramic radiography:
A)incisors
B)canines
C)premolars
D)molars
Q2) A large radiopacity is seen on the middle of the panoramic film. Identify the cause of this appearance:
A)patient was slouched in the unit
B)patient's lead apron was placed too high
C)patient moved during the exposure
D)patient's chin was tilted up too far
Q3) Static electricity artifacts appear as:
A)multiple black linear streaks
B)multiple clear linear streaks
C)fogged areas on the film
D)yellow-brown artifacts on the film
Q4) A panoramic unit has a narrowly collimated __________.
Q5) If the patient is not positioned properly in the focal trough, _____________ will result on the opposite side.
14
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) The Waters' projection is taken in the:
A)coronal plane
B)sagittal plane
C)axial plane
D)none of the above
Q2) Identify the projection used in tomography as a scout film to determine condylar position:
A)posteroanterior
B)lateral oblique
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q3) For patients with bilateral mandibular impactions, the right and left lateral oblique techniques have been replaced by:
A)occlusal films
B)posterior anterior projections
C)panoramic films
D)all of the above
Q4) If there is no cassette available, in an emergency a (an)___________ can be used to make a lateral oblique projection of the mandible.
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) When examining the TMJ, one disadvantage of computed tomography is that this type of scan does not include images of the:
A)external meatus of the ear
B)mandibular condyle
C)articular disc
D)articular eminence
Q2) Complications may occur with:
A)arthrography
B)MRI
C)CT
D)a panoramic radiograph
Q3) Four views of the TMJ can be seen by:
A)MRI
B)CT
C)arthrography
D)the transcranial technique
Q4) _________ enables viewing of an area in three planes.
Q5) In TMJ radiography it is preferable to take films in the __________ positions.
Q6) The ________ projection can be used to view the TMJ from the axial plane.
Q7) The major cause of TMJ disorders is the __________.
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Q1) The wireless system that uses a plate and laser beam scanning to produce an image is known as:
A)direct digital radiography with CCD system
B)direct digital radiography with CMOS system
C)storage phosphor system
D)optically scanned digital imaging
Q2) The cost of a digital imaging unit is approximately __________.
Q3) One of the advantages of digital radiography over film is _________.
Q4) In the optical scanning method one starts with the __________.
Q5) In a digital image, you could expect to have:
A)256 shades of gray
B)100 shades of gray
C)32 shades of gray
D)10 shades of gray
Q6) Instead of duplication we can now send the third-party payer:
A)the original films
B)a hard copy of the digital radiograph
C)a telephone description
D)all of the above
Q7) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Q1) The CT number for air is:
A)-1000
B)1000
C)0
D)500
Q2) CBVT (CBCT)imaging may be utilized in dentistry for all of the following conditions
EXCEPT:
A)evaluation of interproximal caries
B)implant treatment planning
C)oral pathologies
D)evaluation of impacted teeth
Q3) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
Q4) The wavelengths used in MRI are:
A)long
B)cannot cause ionization
C)do not produce a radiation dose to the patient
D)all of the above
Q5) A CT scan taken in the axial plane can be reformatted to the _______ and _________ planes.
Q6) CT images for implant planning should have ________ and ___________ views.
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Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Q1) The sensors used with direct digital radiography should be covered with barrier sheaths before use to avoid sensor contamination. Phosphor plates used with indirect digital radiography should also be covered with an infection control barrier before use.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q2) A film that appears too light after processing may be the result of:
A)weak or cold developing solution
B)a light leak
C)not stirring the fixer solution
D)improper safelighting
Q3) The task for reviewing radiographs for acceptable quality is assigned to:
A)the hygienist
B)the dentist
C)any member of the professional dental staff
D)the office manager
Q4) Maintaining high levels of ________ competence is the basis of any quality assurance program.
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Q1) A patient with a shallow palatal vault presents a problem for which technique:
A)bitewing
B)bisecting angle
C)paralleling
D)occlusal
Q2) In taking a full-mouth survey, the first exposure should be of the __________ area.
Q3) The phrase "same lingual, opposite buccal" refers to:
A)buccal-object rule
B)right angle localization
C)pantomography
D)inverse square law
Q4) All of the following are positive ways to relax the dental patient EXCEPT:
A)to recognize the patient by name
B)to develop a good chairside manner
C)to chew gum during radiographic procedures
D)using small talk prior to radiographic procedures
Q5) Marking grids should not be confused with grids used to __________.
Q6) A film that is dragged across the patient's palate may cause ___________.
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) In order to improve viewing of radiographs, mounts should be made of _________.
Q2) All of the following restorations would have the same radiopaque appearance EXCEPT:
A)amalgam
B)gold
C)foils
D)composite
Q3) Mandibular landmarks visible on panoramic radiographs include:
A)mandibular condyle
B)condylar neck
C)sigmoid notch
D)all of the above
Q4) If visible, identify the appearance of mandibular tori:
A)clearly outlined radiopacities
B)vague, diffuse radiolucencies
C)well outlined radiolucencies
D)tori do not appear radiographically
Q5) Two soft tissue shadows often seen on periapical radiographs are the _______ and the ________.
Q6) Temporary acrylic crowns appear ___________ on radiographs.
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) ___________________ are located in specific areas of the oral cavity and are well within normal limits.
Q2) _________ is an "explanation" of the structures seen radiographically.
Q3) The final diagnostic role rests with the _________.
Q4) If all the borders of a lesion are not seen, the dental professional should:
A)recommend further imaging
B)retake the periapical
C)retake the bitewing
D)not take or recommend further radiographs
Q5) Most lesions appear ________ on processed radiographs.
Q6) ____% of all pathologic conditions seen in the jaws are the result of nonvital teeth and their sequela.
Q7) Edentulous areas:
A)cannot be radiographed
B)should be radiographed
C)should not be radiographed
D)may sometimes be radiographed
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) Teeth with short conical roots and bone loss have a very _________ prognosis.
Q2) Cement bases under restorations appear __________ on a radiograph.
Q3) Furcation involvement of periodontal disease could be found in which of the following teeth?
A)teeth #4, 5, 6
B)teeth #30, 31, 32
C)teeth #10, 11, 12
D)teeth #8, 9, 10
Q4) The height of alveolar bone is best evaluated on periapical films taken by the _______________.
Q5) Interproximal caries is best seen on:
A)periapical films utilizing bisecting angle technique
B)occlusal radiographs
C)bitewing radiographs
D)panoramic radiographs
Q6) Advance periodontal disease is characterized by:
A)furcation involvement
B)thickened periodontal membrane
C)advanced vertical bone loss
D)all of the above
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) High pulp horns on teeth are usually associated with ___________.
Q2) How do a periapical cyst and a periapical granuloma appear radiographically?
A)they may appear identical
B)a cyst is always larger
C)a cyst is always smaller
D)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following will appear radiopaque on radiographs?
A)a periapical granuloma
B)first-stage periapical cemental dysplasia
C)a periapical cyst
D)none of the above
Q4) Identify a possible cause(s)for the formation of secondary dentin:
A)pulp capping
B)attrition
C)deep dental caries
D)all of the above
Q5) To make the diagnosis of periapical pathology, the tooth involved must test
Q6) Periapical cemental osseous dysplasia is a three-stage lesion that is _________ and self-limiting, and for which no treatment is indicated.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) An S-shaped root condition is referred to as ______________.
Q2) Dens "invaginatus" is:
A)an invagination of the enamel organ
B)usually at the point of the cingulum
C)not a "tooth within a tooth"
D)all of the above
Q3) The teeth in the area of fissural cysts usually test __________.
Q4) The joining of two or more teeth by cementum is termed:
A)germination
B)fusion
C)concrescence
D)taurodontism
Q5) When teeth chip easily and radiographs reveal short roots and early pulp calcification, __________ is present.
Q6) Teeth that exhibit dilaceration may be a problem if what type of treatment is needed?
A)endodontic therapy
B)extraction
C)amalgam restoration
D)a and b
25
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Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) Bitewing projections cannot be used to detect:
A)periapical pathology
B)condensing osteitis
C)root fracture
D)all of the above
Q2) The radiographic appearance of the skull in Paget's disease will show:
A)a decrease in size
B)an increase in size
C)a cotton wool bony appearance
D)none of the above
Q3) Extraction sockets may be radiographically evident:
A)in the bone
B)up to 6 months after surgery
C)initially as radiolucent areas
D)all of the above
Q4) The best projection to visualize a sialolith of the submandibular duct is a:
A)mandibular molar periapical projection
B)lateral oblique projection
C)posterior anterior projection
D)right-angle mandibular occlusal projection
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Violations of the inspections of x-ray machines and radiation code may result in:
A)a warning given to the dentist
B)closing the dental practice for one month
C)suspension of a dentist's radiation permit
D)suspension of a dentist's license to practice
Q2) Dental radiographs, as other radiographs, are ______________.
Q3) Original radiographs should ________ be kept in the dental office.
Q4) In the defense of a malpractice action, poor or nondiagnostic radiographs are:
A)admissible
B)useless
C)necessary
D)optional
Q5) Dental radiographs of adult patients should be kept in the office for:
A)2 years
B)4 years
C)6 months
D)7 years
Q6) A litigious society is one whose members are likely to _____ the dentist.
Q7) Radiographs belong to the ___________.
Page 28
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