Radiologic Technology Solved Exam
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Course Introduction
Radiologic Technology is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the theory, practice, and application of medical imaging techniques. The course covers the fundamental principles of radiographic procedures, patient care, radiation safety, equipment operation, and image evaluation. Students will learn about anatomy and physiology relevant to radiographic positioning, as well as the ethical and legal responsibilities inherent in the profession. Emphasizing both classroom instruction and practical laboratory experiences, the course prepares students for clinical placement and certification exams in the field of radiologic technology.
Recommended Textbook
Nuclear Medicine and PETCT Technology and Techniques 8th Edition by Kristen M. Waterstram
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Chapter 1: Mathematics and Statistics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radioactive source decays from 20 mCi to 2.5 mCi in 18 hours.What is the physical half-life?
A)8 hours
B)7 hours
C)6 hours
D)5 hours
Answer: C
Q2) A source of <sup>18</sup>F (t<sub>1/2</sub> = approximately 2 hr) is noted to contain 3 mCi at noon.What was the radioactivity at 8:00 AM that same day?
A)24 mCi
B)18 mCi
C)12 mCi
D)6 mCi
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cell and Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are viruses linked to cancer, EXCEPT
A)influenza A.
B)hepatitis B.
C)human papilloma virus (HPV).
D)Epstein-Barr.
Answer: A
Q2) An organelle composed of a network of interconnected, closed, membrane-bounded vesicles that extend from the nucleus to the cell membrane is the A)Golgi body.
B)endoplasmic reticulum.
C)centrosome.
D)lysosome.
Answer: B
Q3) The process by which a gene is used as a template to transcribe messenger RNA (mRNA) is termed:
A)gene mutation.
B)gene expression.
C)regulation.
D)post-translation modification.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Chemistry/biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physical properties of a substance may be affected by a change in conditions.If this occurs, when the substance returns to its original condition, the physical properties
A)result in the formation of one or more "new" substances.
B)will be the same as the initial properties.
C)will still be different because they cannot have their change reversed.
D)result in a change of physical state.
Answer: B
Q2) A buffer solution
A)helps maintain pH.
B)is necessary for a neutralization reaction.
C)is necessary for the suspension of colloids.
D)is important in redox reactions.
Answer: A
Q3) The atomic number of an element is defined as the
A)number of neutrons in an atom.
B)atomic mass of an atom.
C)number of protons in an atom.
D)the number of protons minus the number of neutrons.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Radio-Chemistry/Radio-Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In studies using <sup>99m</sup>TcO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>, patients are often pretreated with a(n)
A)iodine solution.
B)sodium solution.
C)potassium iodide solution.
D)sodium iodide solution.
Q2) After elution of the generator, the concentration of (<sup>99</sup>Mo found in the <sup>99m</sup>)Tc is 0.10 µCi/mCi of <sup>99m</sup>Tc.The technologist should
A)not use the <sup>99m</sup>Tc and reelute the generator.
B)not use the <sup>99m</sup>Tc and wait 6 hours before reeluting the generator.
C)use the <sup>99m</sup>Tc as usual to make the kits.
D)use instant thin-layer chromatography (ITLC).
Q3) A patient is having a reaction during dipyridamole stress testing manifesting as bronchospasm.The technologist should ensure the availability of a dose of A)nitroglycerin.
B)aminophylline.
C)morphine.
D)nothing; it has rapid reversal.
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Chapter 5: Radiation Safety in Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) A point source with an exposure rate of 0.20 mrem/hr is placed behind 4 HVL of lead.What is the exposure rate in mrem/hr to the technologist with the shielding in place?
A)0.050
B)0.800
C)0.125
D)0.0125
Q2) Radiation levels outside a room are such that an individual could receive 0.30 rem in 1 hour.According to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC), the technologist should A)post a Caution: Radioactive Materials sign.
B)post a Radiation Area sign.
C)post a High Radiation Area sign.
D)not post a sign; it is considered an unrestricted area.
Q3) The exposure rate from a point source radioactive source is 250 mrem/hr at 2 m.What would be the exposure in mrem/hr at 3 m?
A)13.8
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Chapter 6: Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The written material related to a medical procedure that will be distributed to the public is usually written at the
A)first-grade level.
B)fifth-grade level.
C)seventh-grade level.
D)10th-grade level.
Q2) Following a procedure, a patient experiences syncope.The technologist should A)have the patient walk more slowly.
B)have the patient lie down.
C)contact the patient's family.
D)arrange for administration of IV solution.
Q3) All of the following may be used to premedicate patients to reduce the risk of an adverse reaction to ROCM, except A)prednisone.
B)diphenhydramine.
C)metformin.
D)methylprednisone.
Q4) MR contrast media is administered in high doses compared to CT contrast media.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Department Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are problem-solving techniques or tools, EXCEPT
A)force field analysis.
B)brainstorming.
C)contingency diagram.
D)satisfaction survey.
Q2) The 4 P's of marketing are
A)production, promotion, placement, preparation.
B)preparation, production, practice, process.
C)product (service), pricing, place, promotion.
D)process, price, procurement, procedure.
Q3) Licensure and certification are forms of
A)accreditation.
B)problem-solving techniques.
C)evaluation.
D)credentialing.
Q4) All of these provide quality guidelines for nuclear medicine, EXCEPT
A)American College of Radiology.
B)The Joint Commission.
C)American Society of Radiologic Technologists.
D)Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
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Chapter 8: Clinical Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following must be included within the protocol document, EXCEPT
A)purpose and objectives of the study.
B)number of patients to be included in the study.
C)description of the design.
D)expected outcomes of the trial.
Q2) A record of clinical study observations and other information that a study protocol designates that must be completed for each subject is the
A)clinical report form.
B)case report form.
C)source document.
D)monitor report.
Q3) Which acronym is used to aid in proper documentation during a clinical trial?
A)IRB
B)GCP
C)CRO
D)ALCOA
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Chapter 9: Health Informatics in Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an 8-bit color image, the range of displayed color intensities would be
A)0 to 64.
B)0 to 100.
C)0 to 128.
D)0 to 255.
Q2) Interpolation results in a loss of image data.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On a computer, image resolution
A)deteriorates as the acquisition matrix size increases.
B)deteriorates as the acquisition matrix size decreases.
C)remains consistent across matrix size for a given camera.
D)remains consistent across matrices if pixel rollover is controlled.
Q4) Software magnification
A)increases resolution.
B)decreases noise.
C)only increases image size.
D)increases sensitivity.
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Chapter 10: Physics of Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assuming the biological half-life of <sup>99m</sup>Tc-MAA is 3 hours, what would be the effective half-life?
A)0.3 hour
B)0.5 hour
C)2 hours
D)3 hours
Q2) The probability of a photoelectric interaction
A)increases with low-Z material.
B)increases with high-Z material.
C)is high in tissue.
D)is high in water.
Q3) An alternative process to the emission of a characteristic x-ray is
A)pair production.
B)photoelectric effect.
C)Compton scatter.
D)Auger effect.
Q4) Electrons can be deflected by an electronic or a magnetic field.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which survey meter is appropriate to use when measuring high levels of radiation?
A)Ionization chamber
B)Dose calibrator
C)GM meter
D)Body badge
Q2) The devices that operate in the saturation range include all of the following EXCEPT
A)dose calibrator.
B)ionization chamber.
C)personnel dosimeters.
D)Geiger-Mueller counter.
Q3) When performing quality control on a dose calibrator, the testing of the correct activity over the entire range of radioactivity used in the laboratory is the
A)accuracy test.
B)geometry test.
C)linearity test.
D)constancy test.
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Chapter 12: CT Physics and Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following restricts the width and shapes the beam to the area of interest for a single rotation of the tube and detectors around the patient?
A)Prepatient collimators
B)Postpatient collimators
C)Pitch
D)Rotation speed
Q2) In helical CT, pitch is defined as
A)the ratio of the patient's movement through the gantry during one 360-degree beam rotation relative to the beam collimation.
B)the total time for a patient to move through the gantry during a CT scan.
C)the ratio of the beam collimation relative to the mAs for a CT scan.
D)the coordination of a patient's possible movement,
E)g., breathing, during the CT scan relative to slice thickness.
Q3) Computed tomography (CT) scanning accomplishes all of the following EXCEPT
A)minimal superimposition of tissues.
B)improved contrast resolution.
C)reduction of radiation dose compared to conventional radiography.
D)differentiation of tissue densities.
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Chapter 13: Pet Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a PET system, gain update calibration should be performed at least A)weekly.
B)quarterly.
C)annually.
D)following repair.
Q2) Absolute activity calibrations should be performed after a major service, as well as A)daily.
B)weekly.
C)quarterly.
D)annually.
Q3) In a PET scanner, the determination of the annihilation event is made possible by A)electronic collimation.
B)parallel hole collimation.
C)back-scatter projection.
D)filtered back-scatter projection.
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15
Chapter 14: Principles of Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what year was the first MRI scan performed?
A)1946
B)1952
C)1967
D)1977
Q2) In a strong magnetic field, hydrogen atoms can align
A)perpendicular or antiperpendicular to the magnetic field.
B)parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field.
C)oblique or antioblique to the magnetic field.
D)at random to the magnetic field.
Q3) T1 refers to the recovery of longitudinal magnetization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When an RF pulse is applied and its energy is absorbed, the net magnetization vector moves from
A)transverse direction toward longitudinal direction.
B)parallel direction toward antiparallel direction.
C)longitudinal direction toward transverse direction.
D)antiparallel direction toward parallel direction.
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Chapter 15: Clinical Petct in Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diagnoses requires a head-to-toe PET scan?
A)Lymphoma
B)Melanoma
C)Colorectal cancer
D)Mesothelioma
Q2) If an injection of contrast media is going to follow an injection of FDG, the technologist should use
A)a butterfly needle to inject.
B)an 18- to 20-gauge intracatheter.
C)an indwelling central catheter.
D)a port-a-cath.
Q3) When imaging lymphomas, PET
A)can distinguish between scar tissue and residual tumor after therapy.
B)is comparable to CT in distinguishing scar tissue and residual tumor after therapy.
C)is comparable to MRI in distinguishing scar tissue and residual tumor after therapy.
D)is not involved in staging but is involved in therapy evaluation.
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Chapter 16: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is sent to the nuclear medicine department for a CSF study.The technologist prepares for the radiopharmaceutical injection by
A)dimming the lights in the procedure room.
B)setting up a three-way stop cock with a saline flush.
C)setting up for an intrathecal injection.
D)observing the patient for seizures.
Q2) Acetylcholine is
A)excitatory in the brain and inhibitory in the heart.
B)inhibitory in the brain and excitatory in the heart.
C)excitatory in the brain and excitatory in the heart.
D)inhibitory in the brain and inhibitory in the heart.
Q3) A patient is scheduled for a SPECT brain procedure.Before the radiopharmaceutical is administered, the patient should
A)be well hydrated.
B)be placed in a quiet, dimly lit room.
C)have received Lugol's solution.
D)have undergone a CT scan of the brain.
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Chapter 17: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The overall function of the thyroid gland is regulated by the hypothalamus-pituitary axis via
A)T<sub>4 </sub>and T<sub>3.</sub>
B)TRH.
C)TBG.
D)TSH.
Q2) When the thyroid gland is the source of excessive thyroid hormone, is diffusely large, and is homogenously active, it is characteristic of A)Graves' disease.
B)Plummer's disease.
C)multinodular goiter.
D)thyroid cancer.
Q3) When a patient is administered <sup>99m</sup>Tc-pertechnetate for a thyroid scan, the technologist should take the static images
A)immediately upon injection.
B)5 to 10 minutes after injection.
C)15 to 20 minutes after injection.
D)30 minutes after injection.
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Chapter 18: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is part of the patient preparation for lung scintigraphy?
A)Recent chest x-ray (within 24 hours)
B)Preceding meal withheld prior to contrast injection
C)NPO for a minimum of 8 hours prior to the exam
D)Pre-medications for increased uptake of radionuclide
Q2) All of the following are indications for lung scintigraphy, EXCEPT
A)evaluate lung transplants.
B)evaluate congenital heart or lung disease.
C)determine the likelihood for pulmonary embolism.
D)differentiate lung neoplasms.
Q3) In an adult human, what is the approximate number of capillaries to which each alveolus gives rise?
A)7 to 10
B)35
C)1000
D)250 to 300 million
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a myocardial perfusion exercise stress test, ideally the radiopharmaceutical should be injected at
A)the beginning of stress.
B)peak stress and the exercise continued for 1 to 2 minutes.
C)peak stress and the exercise terminated immediately.
D)1 to 2 minutes after peak stress and the exercise terminated within 1 minute.
Q2) In cardiac SPECT imaging, the vertical long-axis view corresponds to
A)sagittal views, presented from the apex to the base.
B)coronal images, presented from the septum to the lateral wall.
C)septal images, presented from the septum to the posterior wall.
D)transverse sections, presented from the inferior to the anterior surface.
Q3) Rubidium-82 (<sup>82</sup>Rb) behaves physiologically similar to A)strontium-82.
B)technetium-99m.
C)thallium-201. D)oxygen-15.
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Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of morphine sulfate serves to
A)reduce the patient's pain.
B)relax the sphincter of Oddi.
C)contract the sphincter of Oddi.
D)dilate the common bile duct.
Q2) When positioning a patient for a gastrointestinal bleed study using <sup>99m</sup>Tc-sulfur colloid, care should be taken to
A)avoid any liver and spleen activity in the field of view.
B)include small margins of the liver and spleen in the field of view.
C)avoid having the bladder in the field of view.
D)include the kidneys in the field of view.
Q3) Using the condensed image method to display results of an esophageal transit study allows for the display of
A)a gated dynamic sequence.
B)the complete dynamic sequence in a single image.
C)the count rate to be calculated using a region of interest (ROI) over the entire esophagus.
D)four parameters from a single curve.
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Chapter 21: Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common morphologic imaging agents include
A)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-DMSA and <sup>99m</sup>Tc-glucoheptonate.
B)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-MAG3 and <sup>99m</sup>Tc-DTPA.
C)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-DMSA and <sup>99m</sup>Tc-DTPA.
D)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-MAG3 and <sup>99m</sup>Tc-glucoheptonate.
Q2) The most common radio pharmaceutical used in testicular scintigraphy is A)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-DTPA.
B)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-DMSA.
C)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-MAG3.
D)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-pertechnetate.
Q3) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI) augments renal studies in patients with
A)infection and inflammation.
B)vesicoureteral reflux.
C)obstructive uropathy.
D)renal artery stenosis (RAS)-related hypertension.
Q4) A patient informs the technologist that he has a ptotic kidney.Because of this, the technologist positions the patient in a sitting position.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bone scan image of a female patient shows radiopharmaceutical uptake in the breasts.The technologist should
A)check to see if the patient was given the correct radiopharmaceutical.
B)check for contamination.
C)consider this to be a normal variant.
D)check the patient's history of trauma to the chest.
Q2) Equal-time imaging for bone scanning refers to the technique in which A)one area is imaged for preset counts with the time recorded and all subsequent images are taken for that same time interval.
B)third- and fourth-phase images are taken for the same time interval.
C)second- and third-phase images are taken for the same time interval.
D)parameters are set so the same amount of time is used for each image in a flow sequence.
Q3) Patients having a bone scan should be hydrated between injection and delayed imaging in order to
A)increase heterionic exchange.
B)aid clearance of the radiopharmaceutical from body.
C)aid the osseous phase of the study.
D)increase clarity of the blood pool image.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Inflammatory Tumoroncology Imaging and Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once <sup>99m</sup>Tc-sulfur colloid is administered as a pretreatment for abdominal malignant effusion therapy, the patient is instructed to A)refrain from any exercise for the following 4 hours.
B)drink fluids and void frequently.
C)roll from side to side for 60 to 90 minutes.
D)return the following day for administration of the therapy dose.
Q2) Meta-iodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) acts as an analog to A)glucagon.
B)neuroepinephrine.
C)calcium.
D)somatostatin.
Q3) Patient preparation for a <sup>99m</sup>Tc-depreotide study includes A)hydration prior to and following injection.
B)administration of a thyroid blocking agent.
C)IV administration of a glucose solution.
D)a laxative at 24 hours prior to imaging.
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Chapter 24: Hematopoietic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The values for a patient that has a 2% standard are: Standard = 9500 cpm
Urine sample = 658 cpm
Urine sample volume = 4 mL
Total urine volume = 1300 mL
The percent excretion for this patient is
A)15%.
B)23%.
C)45%.
D)56%.
Q2) The hematocrit (Hct) represents the A)percentage of RBCs in whole blood.
B)percentage of RBCs in the packed cells.
C)ratio of RBCs to platelets.
D)ratio of RBCs to WBCs.
Q3) The position typically used for a patient undergoing a spleen count as part of a splenic sequestration study is A)supine.
B)prone.
C)upright.
D)on the right side.
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