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Radiologic Technology Introduction provides students with a comprehensive overview of the field of medical imaging and the role of radiologic technologists within the healthcare system. The course covers foundational concepts such as the history and evolution of radiology, basic principles of radiation physics, patient care and safety, and ethical considerations. Students will learn about various imaging modalities, including X-ray, CT, MRI, and ultrasound, and gain insight into the equipment and procedures used in diagnostic imaging. Emphasis is placed on the importance of professional conduct, communication skills, and adherence to safety protocols to ensure effective and compassionate patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 2nd Edition by Susan M. Turley
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form tonsill/o- means tonsil.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The suffix -gram means :
A) process of recording.
B) a record or picture.
C) x-ray.
D) instrument used to examine.
Answer: B
Q3) The suffix -osis means :
A) condition; abnormal condition; process.
B) process of breaking down or destroying.
C) condition; state; thing.
D) pertaining to.
Answer: A
Q4) The abbreviation Dx stands for ____________.
Answer: diagnosis
Q5) The combining form hyster/o- means ____________.
Answer: uterus
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Q1) The combining form cav/o- means :
A) cavity.
B) hold together.
C) hollow space.
D) back part.
Answer: C
Q2) The combining form therap/o- means therapy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A doctor who has the initials D.P.M.after his name is a Doctor of ____________ Medicine.
Answer: Podiatric
Q4) The right and left ____________ regions are directly inferior to the ribs.
A) hypochondriac
B) lumbar
C) umbilical
D) hypogastric
Answer: A
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Q1) The second part of the small intestine is called the:
A) cecum, with a combining form of cec/o-.
B) duodenum, with a combining form of duoden/o-.
C) ileum, with a combining form of ile/o-.
D) jejunum, with a combining form of jejun/o-.
Answer: D
Q2) A patient scheduled to have an EGD is going to have a procedure involving:
A) the esophagus, the colon, and suturing.
B) the gallbladder and a tomography.
C) the large intestine, stomach, and a scope.
D) the esophagus, the stomach, the duodenum, and a scope.
Answer: D
Q3) A patient who is scheduled for a gastrectomy is going to have a:
A) reshaping of the stomach through the process of surgery.
B) stomach bypass surgery.
C) surgical excision of the stomach.
D) temporary or permanent opening into the stomach.
Answer: C
Q4) A patient who has ____________ has inflammation of his/her appendix. Answer: appendicitis
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Q1) The definition of orthopnea is ____________.
A) breathing in a straight up position
B) difficult breathing
C) breathing with the assistance of bones (ribs)
D) breathing fast
Q2) If you analyze the medical word pneumonia,the combining form ____________ means lung; air.
A) mon/o-
B) monia/o-
C) pne/o-
D) pneumon/o-
Q3) What is the medical word that means throat?
Q4) The ______________ is posterior to the mouth.
A) oropharynx
B) nasopharynx
C) trachea
D) laryngopharynx
Q5) A thoracentesis is a procedure to ____________ the thorax (chest).
Q6) A pulmonary ____________ is a blockage of a pulmonary artery due to a blood clot or fat globule.
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Q1) The combining form steth/o- means ____________.
Q2) The combining form rrhythm/o- means ____________.
A) electricity
B) regular in occurrence
C) rhythm
D) heartbeat
Q3) Which two combining forms both mean vein?
A) vas/o- and ven/o-
B) vascul/o- and arteri/o-
C) arteri/o- and my/o-
D) ven/o- and phleb/o-
Q4) An angiography is a/an ____________.
A) instrument used to examine an artery
B) mechanism for viewing a blood vessel
C) process of recording a blood vessel
D) record or picture of an artery
Q5) A prolapse of a heart valve occurs when it becomes thickened and hardened.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Bifurcation is a word associated with the ___________ aorta.
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Q1) White blood cells are the most numerous cells in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where do all lymphatic vessels end?
A) at one main lymph node
B) in the aorta
C) in large veins in the neck
D) in the heart
Q3) The body's immune response can detect and destroy which of the following?
A) bacteria, viruses, and protozoa
B) disease-causing fungi or yeasts
C) cancer cells
D) all of the above
Q4) The source of passive immunity that a mother gives to her infant through breast milk is known as:
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgM.
D) IgE.
Q5) Describe how a lymphangiography is performed.
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Q1) Acne vulgaris is a condition found in middle-aged people and is characterized by facial redness,edema,and dilated blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which skin lesion is elevated and is semisolid or contains some fluid?
A) pustule
B) macule
C) cyst
D) fissure
Q3) The combining form adip/o- means ____________.
Q4) The combining form prurit/o- means :
A) itching.
B) rash.
C) skin.
D) to cover.
Q5) Which syllable is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of the medical word cicatrix (sik-ah-triks)?
Q6) Coal tar drugs are used to treat ____________.
Q7) The combining form esthes/o- means ____________ or feeling.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form oste/o- means ____________.
Q2) An abnormal,excessive C-shaped or S-shaped lateral curvature of the spine is known as ____________.
Q3) A transverse fracture is:
A) fractured at an angle.
B) when the bone has broken the skin.
C) perpendicular to the long axis of the bone.
D) the same as a greenstick fracture in children.
Q4) The adjective peroneal refers to the ____________.
A) fibula
B) hallux
C) sacrum
D) radius
Q5) The olecranon is the heel bone.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The sternum consists of the triangular-shaped ____________,the body of the sternum,and the inferior,pointed tip.
Q7) The combining form acetabul/o- means acetabulum or hip ____________.
Page 10
Q8) The ____________ is the lower jaw bone,the only movable bone in the skull.
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Q1) Which condition is a flexed muscle that is immovable because of inactivity or paralysis coupled with continuing nerve impulses?
A) fibromyalgia
B) contracture
C) atrophy
D) avulsion
Q2) The medical language definition of the medical word ____________ is the action of again and again giving ability.
Q3) The combining form ____________ means to tear.
Q4) Incoordination of the muscles during movement is known as:
A) bradykinesia.
B) ataxia.
C) dyskinesia.
D) hyperkinesis.
Q5) The ____________ is a group of skeletal muscles in one body part or the muscles in the body as a whole.
Q6) Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The abbreviations VEP,VER,BAEP,BAER describe:
A) evoked potentials.
B) sleep study testing.
C) nerve conduction studies.
D) station testing.
Q2) ____________ is a multifaceted test used to diagnose the many underlying conditions that can cause insomnia,sleep disruption,sleep apnea,or narcolepsy.
Q3) To prevent a neural tube defect in her baby,the mother should take a vitamin B12 supplement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because of close living quarters in a dormitory,lack of sleep,and other factors,this infection can spread rapidly among college students.
A) meningitis
B) epilepsy
C) multiple sclerosis
D) Alzheimer's disease
Q5) What is cerebral angiography and what is its purpose?
Q6) Why is an electroencephalography used to diagnose epilepsy?
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Q1) A person with uremia would have a higher-than-normal level for which of these laboratory tests?
A) BUN
B) C&S
C) PSA
D) I&O
Q2) Stress ____________ occurs in a woman when she laughs,coughs,or sneezes,causing her to involuntary pass some urine.
A) hesitancy
B) retention
C) dysuria
D) incontinence
Q3) Which of the following is not filtered out of the blood by the glomerulus?
A) red blood cells
B) electrolytes
C) water
D) glucose
Q4) What is blood urea nitrogen?
Q5) The adjective form of ureter is ____________.
Q6) The ____________ is a reservoir for storing urine.
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Q1) The penile drainage from Mr.Miller was examined under a microscope and showed gram-negative diplococci that confirmed the diagnosis of:
A) syphilis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) herpes simplex type 2.
D) condylomata acuminata.
Q2) The male genitourinary system shares the ____________ with the urinary system.
Q3) All of the following are true about acid phosphatase except:
A) it is a semen test to show that sexual intercourse took place.
B) it is one of the many laboratory blood tests for syphilis.
C) when it is from the prostate gland, it is abbreviated PAP.
D) an increased blood level indicates prostate cancer has spread to the body.
Q4) Which of the following words is misspelled?
A) orchitis
B) epididymis
C) spermatozoon
D) varicosele
Q5) The ____________ glands are small,bulblike glands about the size of peas that are located on either side of the urethra just below the prostate gland.
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Q1) Human papillomavirus infection can lead to the development of ovarian cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discharge of milk from the breasts when the patient is not pregnant or breastfeeding is called:
A) galactorrhea
B) fibrocystic disease
C) mastitis
D) pelvimetry
Q3) A pregnancy test is a blood test performed to detect the presence of the hormone:
A) LMP.
B) LH.
C) HCG.
D) FSH.
Q4) HRT is treatment for:
A) premenstrual syndrome.
B) infertility to stimulate ovulation.
C) replacement of hormones during menopause.
D) contraception.

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Q1) The testes produce sperm when stimulated by FSH released by what gland?
A) posterior pituitary gland
B) hypothalamus
C) androgen
D) anterior pituitary gland
Q2) Increased cortisol levels would be found in patients with:
A) Addison's disease.
B) Graves' disease.
C) Hashimoto's disease.
D) Cushing's syndrome.
Q3) Which type of diabetes occurs only during pregnancy?
A) insipidus
B) type 1
C) type 2
D) gestational
Q4) Together FSH and LH are known as:
A) pineal bodies.
B) gonadotropins.
C) lobes.
D) endocrine glands.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining forms "phac/o-" and "phak/o-" mean:
A) capsule (enveloping structure).
B) iris (colored part of the eye).
C) lens (of the eye).
D) pupil (of the eye).
Q2) What is the medical word for the lateral deviation of the eye known as wall-eyed?
A) exotropia
B) esotropia
C) blindness
D) myopia
Q3) All of the following are true about vitreous humor except:
A) It is a clear, jelly-like substance.
B) Light rays pass through it to reach the retina.
C) It fills the anterior chamber between the cornea and the iris.
D) There is much more vitreous humor in the eye than aqueous humor.
Q4) The two types of strabismus are cross-eye or esotropia and wall-eye or ____________.
Q5) A diagnostic procedure to detect increased intraocular pressure and glaucoma is called ____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical word for a sore throat is ____________.
Q2) The tonsils and adenoids play a role in the immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The infection of the mouth and tongue called oral candidiasis is also known as:
A) thrush.
B) leukoplakia.
C) pharyngitis.
D) glossitis.
Q4) If the patient is experiencing constant ringing in the ears,he has tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The cause of cold sores is:
A) herpes simplex virus type 1.
B) herpes simplex virus type 2.
C) thrush.
D) leukoplakia.
Q6) A cholesteatoma is a benign,slow growing mass commonly found on the cochlea.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) ____________ is the fear of heights.
Q2) ____________ are chemicals that play an important role in emotions by relaying messages from one neuron to the next.
Q3) Knowingly exhibiting false medical or psychiatric symptoms and lying in order to get a tangible reward,such as narcotic drugs or disability payments,is known as: A) malingering.
B) hypochondriasis.
C) Munchausen by proxy.
D) agoraphobia.
Q4) The combining form hebe/o- in hebephrenic schizophrenia means : A) dramatic.
B) youth.
C) pleasure.
D) human being.
Q5) ____________ is the chemical that controls the day-to-day function of the involuntary processes in the body through the parasympathetic nervous system.
Q6) Hebephrenia,inappropriate,childish,and silly behavior,is a subtype of the psychosis known as ____________.
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Q1) What is a sarcoma?
Q2) Which gene is the most important suppressor gene? It is inactive until DNA in the cell's nucleus is damaged?
A) p53
B) Her2/neu
C) BRCA
D) CEA
Q3) A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignancy found,for example,in the biceps muscle of the upper arm.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The combining form ne/o- means :
A) cancerous.
B) growth; formation.
C) new.
D) tumor; mass.
Q5) A tumor with increased numbers of estrogen receptors or progesterone receptors is considered to be ____________ dependent.
Q6) ____________ is the process by which a cell divides.
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Q1) Bone has a high density and therefore is radiolucent on x-ray images.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The word spiral is related to a/an:
A) CT scan.
B) x-ray.
C) PET scan.
D) radiopharmaceutical drug.
Q3) A ____________ ____________ is worn by the x-ray technician to protect the body from x-rays.
Q4) In x-ray technology,areas of low density are said to be ____________.
Q5) The combining form magnet/o- means :
A) attraction to.
B) energy.
C) magnet.
D) to pull toward.
Q6) In nuclear medicine,radioactive substances are often injected directly into the patient's vein or given by inhalation.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) If the abbreviation SH is found as a heading in a patient's medical record,it means :
A) skilled health care.
B) social history.
C) subjective health.
D) suicidal history.
Q2) Which basic rule is correct for building medical words?
A) Join the prefix to the beginning of the combining form.
B) Join the prefix to the end of the combining form.
C) Join the suffix to the beginning of the combining form.
D) Always add a hyphen along with the prefix.
Q3) Which of the following statements about prefixes is true?
A) A prefix can be found anywhere in the medical word.
B) A prefix can be found at the end of a medical word.
C) A prefix can be found at the beginning of the medical word.
D) A prefix can be found in the middle of the medical word.
Q4) The abbreviation Dx stands for ____________.
Q5) The combining form cholecyst/o- means ____________.
Q6) The study of the heart is known as ____________.
Q7) The combining form arthr/o- means ____________.
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Q1) Seriously ill patients who cannot be quickly diagnosed or adequately treated in the physician's office are sent:
A) to a hospital
B) to a consultant.
C) to a hospice.
D) home.
Q2) The prefix mid- means ____________.
Q3) Which body system contains the nose,throat,larynx,trachea,bronchi,bronchioles,lungs,and alveoli?
A) cardiovascular
B) respiratory
C) gastrointestinal
D) hematology
Q4) What types of professionals support the physician and perform specific services ordered by the physician?
A) chiropractors
B) allied health professionals
C) CRNAs
D) gynecologists
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Q1) A person with a colostomy has:
A) a surgically created opening in the colon.
B) impacted stool that will be removed by an enema.
C) had a record or picture taken of their intestines.
D) had their cecum removed by surgical excision.
Q2) An inguinal hernia would appear in the area of the:
A) stomach.
B) navel.
C) ribs.
D) groin.
Q3) A patient undergoing a gastrectomy is having a surgical excision of the ____________.
Q4) The oral cavity is also known as the ____________.
A) stomach
B) throat
C) mouth
D) All of the above.
Q5) A patient with liver disease often has jaundice or cirrhosis,the combining forms of which both mean ____________.
Q6) The combining form cholecyst/o- means ____________.
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Q1) For the patient's cough,the physician prescribed the antitussive drug:
A) albuterol (Proventil).
B) cromolyn (Intal).
C) hydrocodone (Hycodan).
D) rifampin (Rifadin).
Q2) A normal depth and rate of respiration is known as eupnea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ____________,a sheet of skeletal muscle that lies along the inferior boundary of the thoracic cavity,is active during normal or forceful inhalation.
A) diaphragm
B) hilum
C) mediastinum
D) parenchyma
Q4) The suffix -ole means ____________.
A) condition
B) large
C) pertaining to
D) small thing
Q5) In the medical word oxyhemoglobin,the combining form hem/o- means
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Procedures
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Q1) The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and the:
A) lungs.
B) brain.
C) blood vessels.
D) skin.
Q2) All of the following arteries carry oxygenated blood to some part of the arm except the ____________ artery.
A) peroneal
B) axillary
C) radial
D) brachial
Q3) Telemetry alerts ICU healthcare professionals when what event happens?
A) a prolapsed heart valve
B) a hypertensive crisis
C) a deep venous thrombosis
D) a cardiac arrest
Q4) A patient who has a period of bradycardia has a state of a ____________ heart.
Q5) The adjective form of artery is ____________.
Q6) The combining form phleb/o- means ____________.
Q7) The smallest branches of an artery are known as ____________. Page 26
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Q1) The combining form erythr/o- means :
A) inflammation.
B) red.
C) cancer.
D) white.
Q2) When the antibodies in the patient's serum attack antigens on the erythrocytes in donor blood,this is known as ____________.
A) coagulopathy
B) hemophilia
C) an embolus
D) a transfusion reaction
Q3) ____________ is the disease condition in which the erythrocytes are decreased in number.
A) Coagulopathy
B) Septicemia
C) Leukemia
D) Anemia
Q4) White blood cells are the most numerous cells in the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A surgical procedure to remove all or part of a skin lesion for the purpose of diagnosis is called:
A) biopsy.
B) dermatoplasty.
C) rhytidectomy.
D) skin grafting.
Q2) The level of hydration of the body can be determined by pinching the skin to assess the skin ____________.
Q3) The process of sweating and the sweat itself are both known as ____________.
Q4) Removal of superficial and deep acne scars,fine or deep wrinkles,or tattoos,by means of topical chemicals,abrasion,or laser treatments is called:
A) skin resurfacing.
B) suturing.
C) biopsy.
D) skin graft.
Q5) The skin presents a moist and alkaline environment that discourages the growth of microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The hip joint is replaced in a surgery called an ____________,and the artificial hip replacement is known as a ____________.
A) arthrodesis; bone scan
B) arthroplasty; radiograph
C) arthroscopy, internal fixation
D) arthroplasty; prosthesis
Q2) Goniometry is used to measure range of motion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are examples of an orthosis except:
A) a brace.
B) a splint.
C) a rongeur.
D) a collar.
Q4) The opening between cranial sutures in an infant is known as a/an:
A) fontanel.
B) foramen.
C) osteophyte.
D) symphysis.
Q5) The combining form fract/o- means ____________ ____________.
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Q1) The category of ____________ drugs includes over-the-counter aspirin and acetaminophen drugs used to decrease inflammation and pain.
Q2) The combining form tax/o- means :
A) coordination.
B) lack of strength.
C) tendon.
D) rod shaped.
Q3) The prefix ad- means :
A) away from.
B) moving down.
C) moving up.
D) toward.
Q4) All of the following could be associated with a patient's rehabilitation,except:
A) OT.
B) ADLs.
C) CPK-MM.
D) PT.
Q5) The combining form ____________ means clavicle (collar bone).
Q6) The prefix ad- means ____________.
Q7) The combining form contus/o- means ____________. Page 31
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Q1) A very deep ____________ that runs anterior to posterior divides the cerebrum into right and left hemispheres.
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the central nervous system?
A) cerebrum
B) brain
C) cranial nerves
D) spinal cord
Q3) Which brain structure resembles a spider web?
A) ventricle
B) arachnoid
C) vertebra
D) cerebellum
Q4) The ____________ are four hollow chambers in the brain.
Q5) The ____________ division of the nervous system is active when the body is confronted with danger or during times of stress or anxiety.
Q6) The TENS unit is a device that is used to control chronic pain.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The ____________ nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord.
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Q1) ____________ is a general word for any disease process involving the kidney.
Q2) The pH of the urine is related to the:
A) amount of blood in it.
B) color and odor.
C) amount of protein in it.
D) acidity or alkalinity.
Q3) Hematuria is the presence of excessive urea in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a flexible tube to drain urine that is inserted through the abdominal wall just above the pubic bone?
A) shunt
B) suprapubic catheter
C) Foley
D) refractometer
Q5) Which is a common passageway that collects urine from many nephrons?
A) cortex
B) glomerulus
C) distal convoluted tubule
D) minor calix
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which surgical procedure in the male is done to prevent pregnancy in the female?
A) transurethral needle ablation
B) flagellum
C) vasectomy
D) prostatectomy
Q2) For his genital herpes,the patient takes:
A) Cialis.
B) Avodart.
C) Flomax.
D) Zovirax.
Q3) Semen is a combination of spermatozoa and fluids from the seminal vesicles,prostate gland,and penis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mr.Grey had a routine semen analysis for infertility.His semen was evaluated for all of the following except:
A) DNA analysis of the spermatozoa.
B) spermatozoa motility.
C) spermatozoa morphology.
D) sperm count.

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Q1) A medical procedure in which a hook is inserted into the cervix to catch and rupture the amniotic sac is called a/an:
A) amniotomy.
B) assisted delivery.
C) amniocentesis.
D) version.
Q2) The substance surfactant is present in the fetus from the seventh month of gestation and beyond.When the surfactant has not yet reached a normal level,the newborn has problems:
A) swallowing.
B) producing urine.
C) digesting.
D) breathing.
Q3) An unnatural craving for and compulsive eating of nonfood items during pregnancy is known as ____________.
A) pica
B) apnea
C) jaundice
D) salpingitis
Q4) The uterine tubes (fallopian tubes) are also called the ____________.
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Q1) Microphobia is a fear of:
A) germs.
B) science.
C) crowds.
D) small things.
Q2) Which psychiatric test assesses the degree of depression?
A) TAT
B) BDI
C) OCD
D) ECT
Q3) Chronic,mild bipolar disorder with mood swings is known as:
A) attention deficit disorder.
B) borderline personality.
C) cyclothymia.
D) delusional disorder.
Q4) Preoccupation with and misinterpretation of minor body sensations with the fear that those indicate disease is known as ____________.
Q5) A person who wears clothing that belongs to the opposite sex or poses as someone of the opposite sex is called a ____________
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Q1) The abbreviation Ca means :
A) a tumor registry.
B) a grading of a tumor.
C) cancer.
D) an estrogen receptor.
Q2) Alkylating drugs are used to break DNA strands in cancerous cells and are considered a type of chemotherapy drug.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________ is the study of the anatomy and physiology of cancer cells,including diagnostic tests,various treatments,and drugs.
Q4) An example of brachytherapy would be:
A) insertion of radioactive substances intravenously for thyroid cancer.
B) insertion of radioactive substances into the lymphatic system for leukemia.
C) external beam radiation directed at the chest for lung cancer.
D) placing a radioactive implant directly into the bladder for bladder cancer.
Q5) A ____________ is the smallest independently functioning structure in the body that can reproduce itself by division.
Q6) ____________ is a radiologic procedure used to screen for breast cancer.
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Q1) What type of procedure uses a computer to take many two-dimensional images or "slices" of the body?
A) ultrasonography
B) tomography
C) X-ray
D) mammography
Q2) When you hear the word proton,you think of what type of radiologic procedure?
A) MRI
B) CT
C) sonography
D) roentgenography
Q3) Although the heel or wrist bones can be tested for bone density,the hip and spine bones give the most accurate results.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The combining form poster/o- means :
A) back part.
B) front part.
C) middle part.
D) side part.
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