Radiologic Technology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Radiologic Technology is a specialized course designed to introduce students to the principles and practices of medical imaging and diagnostic radiology. The curriculum covers foundational topics such as patient positioning, image acquisition, radiation physics, and the safe operation of radiographic equipment. Emphasis is placed on radiation protection, ethical responsibilities, patient care, and quality assurance in clinical settings. Students will develop technical competence in performing a variety of radiologic procedures and learn to work effectively as part of a healthcare team, preparing them for professional roles in hospitals, imaging centers, and other medical facilities.
Recommended Textbook
merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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34 Chapters
1670 Verified Questions
1670 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fundamental responsibility of radiographers is to ensure that each radiation exposure upholds the ALARA concept. ALARA stands for:
A) as low as reasonably achievable.
B) as long as radiograph is acceptable.
C) acceptable limits allowed for radiographic attempts.
D) attempts to lessen all radiographic allowances.
Answer: A
Q2) An increase in technical factors may be required to penetrate a part on a patient who has:
A) atrophy.
B) emphysema.
C) pleural effusion.
D) degenerative arthritis.
Answer: C
Q3) In screen-film radiography, which term is defined as the degree of blackening?
A) Optical density
B) Contrast
C) Recorded detail
D) Distortion
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Sample Questions
Q1) A commonly performed projection that is significantly improved with the use of a compensating filter is the AP:
A) hand.
B) skull.
C) leg.
D) thoracic spine.
Answer: D
Q2) The Boomerang filter would provide an even image density for which body area?
A) Hip
B) Chest
C) Shoulder
D) C7-T1 region
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following will provide maximum patient safety when using compensating filters?
A) Use two hands to mount a collimator filter.
B) Use two hands to position a contact filter.
C) Use a low-kVp exposure technique.
D) Use a high-mA exposure technique.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the hand is turned toward the ulnar side, it is termed: A) adduction.
B) abduction.
C) ulnar deviation.
D) radial deviation.
Answer: B
Q2) A serious fracture in which the bones are not in anatomic alignment is called:
A) impacted.
B) compression.
C) displaced.
D) nondisplaced.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following planes divides the body into superior or inferior portions?
A) Horizontal
B) Oblique
C) Midsagittal
D) Midcoronal
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the lateral projection of the forearm, the elbow should be flexed _____ degrees.
A) 45
B) 80
C) 90
D) 120
Q2) The carpal bones articulate with the: 1)radius. 2)ulna. 3)phalanges.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which of the following is shown in profile on an AP projection of the humerus?
A) Capitulum
B) Glenoid cavity
C) Greater tubercle
D) Lesser tubercle
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Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the central ray directed for an inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder joint?
A) 5 degrees horizontally
B) 15 to 30 degrees horizontally
C) 5 degrees cephalad
D) 15 to 30 degrees cephalad
Q2) For a transthoracic lateral projection of the shoulder, lung detail may be blurred to better visualize the shoulder area. Which exposure time is recommended to blur the lung structures?
A) Minimum of 1 second
B) Minimum of 2 seconds
C) Minimum of 3 seconds
D) Minimum of 5 seconds
Q3) What is the central-ray angulation for the AP oblique projection (Grashey method) of the shoulder joint?
A) 0 degrees
B) 5 degrees
C) 0 to 5 degrees
D) 5 to 10 degrees
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the knee is flexed 40 degrees for the PA axial intercondylar fossa (Camp-Coventry) projection, the central ray will be angled _____ degrees.
A) 0
B) 40
C) 50
D) 40 to 50
Q2) In which position is the patient placed for a PA projection of the patella?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Lateral
D) Upright
Q3) Where is the central ray directed for a lateral projection of the calcaneus?
A) 1 inch distal to the medial malleolus
B) 2 inches distal to the medial malleolus
C) 1 inch posterior to the medial malleolus
D) 2 inches posterior to the medial malleolus
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Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the central ray directed for the AP oblique projection (modified Cleaves) of the femoral necks?
A) At the pubic symphysis
B) 1 inch superior to the pubic symphysis
C) 1 inch inferior to the pubic symphysis
D) 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
Q2) Which of the following describes the direction of the central ray for an axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller)?
1)Perpendicular to the IR
2)Perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck
3)Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The SI joint is a _____ joint.
A) synovial irregular, gliding
B) synovial, ellipsoidal
C) cartilaginous, synchondroses
D) cartilaginous, symphysis
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine form an angle of how many degrees with the midsagittal plane?
A) 45
B) 90
C) 15 to 20
D) 70 to 75
Q2) The vertebra prominens is the name given to the _____ vertebra.
A) first cervical
B) second cervical
C) seventh cervical
D) first thoracic
Q3) Where is the central ray directed for the AP axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral foramina?
A) Second cervical vertebra
B) Third cervical vertebra
C) Fourth cervical vertebra
D) Seventh cervical vertebra
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ribs are called the true ribs?
A) 1 to 7
B) 1 to 10
C) 8 to 12
D) 11 and 12
Q2) Which ribs are called the false ribs?
A) 1 to 7
B) 1 to 10
C) 8 to 12
D) 11 and 12
Q3) The phase of respiration for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints is:
A) expiration.
B) inspiration.
C) suspended respiration.
D) slow, shallow breathing.
Q4) The 12 costovertebral joints of the ribs are:
A) synovial-pivot.
B) synovial-gliding.
C) cartilaginous-symphysis.
D) cartilaginous-synchondroses.
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Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the position of the thymus gland?
A) In the mediastinum
B) In the anterior neck
C) Behind the heart
D) Behind the manubrium
Q2) How many degrees of body rotation are required for routine AP or PA oblique chest radiography?
A) 30
B) 45
C) 60
D) 30 to 40
Q3) What is the central-ray angulation for an AP or PA oblique projection of the chest?
A) 0 degrees
B) 10 degrees caudad
C) 15 to 20 degrees caudad for PA
D) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad for AP
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Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is currently the examination method of choice for long bone measurements because of its accuracy and reduced dose?
A) Conventional radiography
B) Magnetic resonance imaging
C) Computed tomography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q2) Which long bone measurement technique requires a special single, long image receptor and uses a long SID?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q3) What projection is used for long bone measurement radiographs?
A) PA
B) AP
C) Lateral
D) Variable depending on body habitus
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13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following joints are most commonly examined by contrast arthrography?
1)Knee
2)Hip
3)Shoulder
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following contrast media may be injected into a joint space for radiography of the menisci, cartilage, bursae, etc.?
1)Air
2)Barium
3)Iodine contrast medium
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extreme eversion of the foot is a sign of traumatic injury to the:
A) tibia and fibula.
B) knee joint.
C) pelvis.
D) hip.
Q2) Which projection is necessary if the top of T1 and the C7-T1 interspace is not clearly demonstrated on the lateral projection, dorsal decubitus position of the cervical spine?
A) AP projection, open-mouth position
B) Lateral projection, swimmer's technique
C) Lateral projection of the thoracic spine
D) AP axial C-spine
Q3) Which of the following would be considered a trauma radiography guideline?
1)Remove all splints.
2)Do not move the patient unless necessary.
3)Obtain a minimum of two radiographs of each body part.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual
Q2) Where does the submandibular duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q3) Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q4) Radiographic examination of the salivary glands using contrast medium is called:
A) parotitis.
B) angiography.
C) sialography.
D) sialostenosis.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) The laryngeal prominence known as the Adam's apple is the:
A) epiglottis.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) thyroid cartilage.
D) hyoid bone.
Q2) Which of the following lies in the anterior neck?
1)Thyroid gland
2)Parathyroid glands
3)Thymus gland
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) For the AP projection of the pharynx and larynx, the central ray should be directed perpendicular to the:
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) laryngeal prominence.
C) cricoid cartilage.
D) jugular notch.
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Demonstrating small amounts of intraperitoneal gas in patients with an acute abdomen is often necessary. How long should the patient lie in the left lateral position before the exposure is made?
A) 10 to 20 minutes
B) 30 to 45 minutes
C) Variable, depending on the body habitus
D) Variable, depending on the patient's condition
Q2) The central-ray angulation for an AP abdominal image is:
A) 0 degrees.
B) 5 degrees caudad.
C) 5 degrees cephalad.
D) 7 degrees cephalad.
Q3) Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the long axis of the grid for a lateral projection of the abdomen?
A) Transverse plane
B) Horizontal plane
C) Midcoronal plane
D) Midsagittal plane
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18
Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommended oblique projection and position for the best demonstration of the esophagus?
A) AP, LAO
B) AP, LPO
C) PA, RAO
D) PA, LAO
Q2) The degree of body rotation for an AP oblique projection of the large intestine is _____ degrees.
A) 30
B) 45
C) 20 to 30
D) 35 to 45
Q3) The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct usually unite to form the:
A) pyloric portion.
B) duodenal bulb.
C) hepatopancreatic ampulla.
D) greater duodenal papilla.
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) A GFR of 90 mL or below is an indication of:
A) normal renal function.
B) normal liver function.
C) liver dysfunction.
D) renal dysfunction.
Q2) A calculation that uses the creatinine level, age, race, gender, and body size, and is the best overall indicator of kidney function is:
A) glomerular filtration rate.
B) blood urea nitrogen level.
C) creatine-plus rate.
D) kidney function indicator.
Q3) What type of motion is used to cleanse the skin before venipuncture?
A) Circular
B) Upward
C) Downward
D) "Up-down"
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiographic examination of the uterus and uterine tubes is termed:
A) vaginography.
B) hysterosalpingography.
C) pelvic pneumography.
D) pelvimetry.
Q2) Measurement of the fetal head and pelvic outlet can be performed using which of the following?
1)Sonography
2)Hysterosalpingography
3)Pelvimetry (Colcher-Sussman method)
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which of the following is a type of temporary intrauterine contraceptive device (IUD)?
A) Essure
B) ParaGard
C) Insure
D) CerviGard
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Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The suture located between the occipital bone and the parietal bones is the:
A) lambdoidal.
B) squamosal.
C) sagittal.
D) corona.
Q2) What type of joint is the TMJ?
A) Synovial-hinge
B) Synovial-gliding
C) Synovial-ellipsoidal
D) Synovial-hinge and gliding
Q3) Which facial bone contains a foramen through which the tear duct passes?
A) Nasal
B) Palatine
C) Maxilla
D) Lacrimal
Q4) What is the central-ray angulation for the SMV projection?
A) 0 degrees
B) 5 degrees caudad
C) 5 degrees cephalad
D) 5 to 7 degrees cephalad
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Chapter 21: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the mediolateral oblique projection of the breast?
1)The central ray enters the superomedial aspect of the breast.
2)The marker is placed along the lower border of the breast.
3)The breast should not droop on the image.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) MRI is commonly used in mammography for imaging:
A) male patients.
B) patients older than 75.
C) after lumpectomy surgery.
D) the augmented breast.
Q3) How many projections are required for a complete examination of both breasts on a patient who has implants?
A) Four
B) Eight
C) Four, depending on the patient's age
D) Eight, depending on the patient's age
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Q1) The position of the patient's head during myelography should be in _____ to prevent contrast from passing into the cerebral ventricles.
A) lateral flexion
B) acute extension
C) forward flexion
D) acute flexion
Q2) The largest part of the brain is the:
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) brainstem.
D) medulla oblongata.
Q3) Which interventional procedure uses a balloon catheter to expand a compressed vertebral body to near its original height before injection of the bone cement?
A) Myelography
B) Vertebroplasty
C) Kyphoplasty
D) Discography
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Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Q1) According to the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association (ACC/AHA), all of the following are relative contraindications for cardiac catheterization except:
A) active gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) severe anemia.
C) diabetes.
D) recent stroke.
Q2) Which of the following pumps deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary artery?
A) Right ventricle
B) Left ventricle
C) Inferior vena cava
D) Superior vena cava
Q3) The muscular wall of the heart is called the:
A) myocardium.
B) epicardium.
C) endocardium.
D) pericardium.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of fractures have high specificity for nonaccidental trauma to a child?
1)Spiral fractures
2)Scapular fractures
3)Posterior rib fractures
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) When a radiographer suspects child abuse, what is the required response?
A) Notify the state child welfare office/social services.
B) Call the police.
C) Ask a nurse to look at the child.
D) Notify the radiologist or attending physician.
Q3) Which pediatric age groups benefit from a warmer exam room?
A) Toddlers and adolescents
B) Premature infants and neonates
C) Preschoolers and school-age
D) All pediatric age groups
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Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be common sites for decubitus ulcers?
1)Heel
2)Knee
3)Elbow
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following musculoskeletal conditions increases in incidence as age increases?
1)Osteoporosis
2)Degenerative joint disease
3)Osgood-Schlatter's disease
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Dementia is a natural part of the aging process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following attire is worn by the radiographer if a patient has drainage secretion precautions?
1)Mask
2)Gown
3)Gloves
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) What will result if the grid IR is leaning on a mobile lateral decubitus examination of the chest or abdomen?
A) Increased scatter
B) Distortion
C) The distal anatomy will not be demonstrated
D) The proximal anatomy will not be demonstrated
Q3) The generators for mobile units have the same kilowatt rating as stationary x-ray equipment.
A)True
B)False
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) Reaching over a sterile field is allowed by:
A) both sterile and nonsterile team members.
B) only nonsterile team members.
C) only sterile team members.
D) only the surgeon.
Q2) Who would be included as nonsterile team members?
1)Anesthesia provider
2)Physician assistant
3)Radiographer
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The sterile field is the:
A) whole surgical room.
B) area around the surgeon.
C) area prepared for the patient.
D) surgical incision.
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29
Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) All of the following are methods of 3D reconstruction techniques in CT except:
A) volume rendering.
B) maximum intensity projection.
C) shaded surface display.
D) pixel-voxel reregistration.
Q2) An array of numbers arranged in a grid of rows and columns is called a:
A) pixel.
B) voxel.
C) matrix.
D) scan profile.
Q3) CT detectors are most commonly _____ detectors.
A) ionization (xenon gas)
B) scintillation (solid-state)
C) thermoluminescent
D) phosphorescent
Q4) The most significant geometric factor that contributes to spatial resolution is:
A) detector aperture width.
B) FOV.
C) slice thickness.
D) x-ray beam energy.
Page 30
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Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proton density helps determine signal strength; however, it cannot be used alone because of the:
A) rate at which excited protons release energy to the environment.
B) different chemical environments of the nuclei.
C) fact that most soft tissues have similar numbers of protons.
D) influence of surrounding nuclei.
Q2) When the RF pulse is applied and the protons absorb the energy, the result is the protons orient to:
A) a plane perpendicular to the main field.
B) a plane parallel to the main field.
C) different precessional frequencies.
D) their original state in the nucleus.
Q3) Generally MRI is considered safe; however, there are some hazards, which would include:
A) rapid echo spin.
B) local burns from wires on a patient.
C) headaches from the magnetic field.
D) spontaneous random molecular motion.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) The echo pattern of a cyst can be referred to as:
A) echogenic.
B) anechoic.
C) hyperechoic.
D) hypoechoic.
Q2) The principle on which the ultrasound transducer operates is the _____ effect.
A) photoelectric
B) crystalline
C) piezoelectric
D) transducer
Q3) The velocity of an ultrasound beam is:
A) constant in speed.
B) constant for all solids.
C) determined by the density of material.
D) proportional to frequency cubed.
Q4) Hertz measures:
A) cycles per second.
B) amplitude of an echo.
C) number of waves.
D) wavelength.
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) An array of photomultiplier tubes (PMTs) is located:
A) in front of the crystal.
B) to the back of the crystal.
C) after the pulse height analyzer.
D) after the collimator.
Q2) Collimators are used in nuclear medicine to:
A) cone down the beam.
B) limit patient dose from the radiation.
C) maintain signal strength.
D) keep scattered rays from entering the camera.
Q3) Positron-emitting radionuclides have a:
1)neutron-deficient nucleus.
2)proton-deficient nucleus.
3)similar size to electrons.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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33
Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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18 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common osteoporotic fracture is found in the:
A) hips.
B) femurs.
C) vertebrae.
D) ankles.
Q2) Precision relates to the ability of the system to:
A) measure the true value of an object.
B) reproduce the same results in repeat measurements of the same object.
C) reflect the bone measurement by the scanner software.
D) measure the variability of the spread of data values around the mean.
Q3) Patient positioning should be exactly the same for all scans because:
A) the images need to look the same over time.
B) the results will be more precise, reflecting a true biologic change.
C) that will allow scans from different manufacturers to be comparable.
D) radiologists want the same positioning to read the images.
Q4) Radiation dose for DXA scans is:
A) twice as much as for a diagnostic lumbar x-ray.
B) half as much as for a lumbar CT examination.
C) similar to natural background radiation.
D) similar to a diagnostic hand x-ray.
Page 34
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Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The linac can produce a beam of electrons of varying energies when:
A) filtration is changed.
B) the target is removed.
C) IMRT is used.
D) simulation is required.
Q2) _____ is done to relieve symptoms, not to cure.
A) Fractionation
B) Differentiation
C) Palliation
D) Conformal radiation
Q3) The accurate calculation and measurement of radiation dose for treatment of a therapy patient is referred to as:
A) brachytherapy.
B) simulation.
C) dosimetry.
D) linear energy transfer.
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