Radiologic Technology Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Radiologic Technology is an essential healthcare discipline that focuses on the use of specialized imaging equipment to produce visual representations of the internal structures of the human body. This course provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles, techniques, and safety measures involved in radiography, including patient positioning, image production, radiation protection, and quality control. Students will learn to operate various imaging modalities such as X-ray, computed tomography (CT), and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) while adhering to ethical and legal standards in the clinical environment. Emphasis is also placed on patient care, communication, and collaboration within a multidisciplinary healthcare team, preparing graduates for professional certification and diverse roles within the medical imaging field.
Recommended Textbook Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1009 Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20000
Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibition of ATP production by hypoxia causes all of the following except:
A) Increased production of lactic acid in the cytoplasm
B) Degranulation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Dilation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Swelling of the mitochondria
E) Alkalinization of the hyaloplasm
Answer: E
Q2) Liquefactive necrosis typically occurs within an infarct of the:
A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) Kidney
E) Pancreas
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common cause of delayed healing of a skin wound caused by a traffic accident?
A) Lack of vitamin B
B) Lack of vitamin C
C) Zinc deficiency
D) Infection
E) Diabetes mellitus
Answer: D
Q2) Release of histamine at the site of inflammation causes:
A) Increased vascular permeability
B) Decreased vascular permeability
C) Accumulation of neutrophils
D) Accumulation of platelets
E) Activation of the complement system
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of immunity is based on a specific response elicited by substances that act as antigens?
A) Innate immunity
B) Acquired immunity
C) Secondary immune reactions
D) Primary immune reactions
E) Antibody immunity
Answer: B
Q2) Protective proteins,the epidermis,phagocytic cells,and neutrophils are all examples of:
A) Innate immunity
B) Active immunity
C) Secondary immune reactions
D) Immunopreventatives
E) Antigen stimulators
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Retinoblastoma gene (RB1)is classified as a(n):
A) Oncogene
B) Tumor suppressor gene
C) Point mutation
D) Gene amplification
E) Viral oncogene inserted into the human genome
Q2) Which of the following physical carcinogens is the cause of most skin cancers in humans?
A) Ultraviolet light
B) Infrared light
C) X-rays
D) Radon
E) Gamma rays
Q3) The most important source of chemical carcinogens in the human habitat is:
A) Cigarette smoke
B) Asbestos
C) Air pollution
D) Food additives
E) Pesticides in the food
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis may present in newborns with signs of:
A) Dehydration
B) Meconium peritonitis
C) Malabsorption
D) Diarrhea
E) Bronchiectasis
Q2) Children born with a fragile X chromosome suffer from:
A) Muscle weakness
B) Blindness
C) Spinal cord deformities
D) Mental retardation
E) Glucose intolerance
Q3) Congenital rubella occurs only in which of the following situations?
A) Unimmunized mother is infected with rubella virus before conception
B) Unimmunized mother is infected with rubella virus during the first trimester
C) Unimmunized mother is infected with rubella virus during the second trimester
D) Unimmunized mother is infected with rubella virus during the third trimester
E) Baby is exposed to rubella in the first 24 to 48 hours after birth
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Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinically significant emboli are most often composed of:
A) Air
B) Amniotic fluid
C) Foreign particulate material
D) Fat
E) Thrombi
Q2) Red cheeks in a person who is blushing is an example of:
A) Hemorrhage
B) Petechiae
C) Ecchymoses
D) Active hyperemia
E) Passive hyperemia
Q3) Pulmonary edema is a typical complication of:
A) Right-sided heart failure
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) Pulmonary saddle embolus
D) Cor pulmonale
E) Pulmonary fibrosis
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Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the diastolic phase,the right side of the heart is filled with:
A) Peripheral venous blood
B) Pulmonary venous blood
C) Peripheral arterial blood
D) Pulmonary arterial blood
E) A mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
Q2) The most common complication of rheumatic endocarditis is:
A) Bacterial endocarditis
B) Viral endocarditis
C) Fungal myocarditis
D) Parasitic endocarditis
E) Pulmonary embolism
Q3) The medical term for chest pain is:
A) Infarct
B) Ischemia
C) Myocardial infarct
D) Hypertension
E) Angina pectoris
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9
Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary tuberculosis can be identified with which laboratory test?
A) Throat culture
B) Tuberculin test
C) Acid-fast bacilli sputum test
D) Fungal scraping
E) Candida albicans sputum test
Q2) The most important cause of emphysema is:
A) Cigarette smoking
B) Air pollution in the cities
C) Tuberculosis
D) AIDS
E) Asthma
Q3) Lung infection that develops in patients who have heart failure and pulmonary edema is called:
A) Interstitial pneumonia
B) Hypostatic pneumonia
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E) Lobar pneumonia
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epstein-Barr virus,a possible cause of Burkitt's lymphoma,has a predilection for infecting:
A) T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes
B) T-helper lymphocytes
C) Plasma cells
D) B lymphocytes
E) Eosinophils
Q2) The sickling of red blood cells of patients with sickle cell anemia can be induced in a test tube by exposing the blood to:
A) Normal blood
B) Normal serum
C) Oxygen
D) An oxygen-binding chemical such as metabisulfite
E) Alkali
Q3) Overall,the most common form of leukemia is:
A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B) Acute myelogenous leukemia
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E) Plasma cell leukemia
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Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obstructive ileus may be caused by all of the following except:
A) Gallstones
B) Fecaliths
C) Volvulus
D) Incarceration of intestinal loops in a hernia sac
E) Spinal cord injury
Q2) Most pedunculated colonic neoplastic polyps are classified as:
A) Hyperplastic polyp
B) Juvenile polyp
C) Inflammatory polyp
D) Tubular adenoma
E) Villous adenoma
Q3) Hiatal hernias may be caused by all of the following except:
A) Exogenous acids in food
B) Smoking
C) Caffeine
D) Heartburn in pregnancy
E) Reflux of gastric juice
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12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Yellow cholesterol gallstones are typically found in association with:
A) Hemochromatosis
B) Viral hepatitis
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Chronic autoimmune hemolytic anemia
E) Obesity
Q2) All of the following are major functions of the liver except:
A) Excretory
B) Metabolic
C) Storage
D) Neuroendocrine
E) Synthetic
Q3) What immunologic finding is most typical of primary biliary cirrhosis?
A) Antinuclear antibodies
B) Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
C) Antimitochondrial antibodies
D) Antimicrosomal antibodies
E) Antinucleolar antibodies
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13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma of the pancreas is the:
A) Third most common cancer-related cause of death in males
B) Third most common cancer-related cause of death in females
C) Fourth most common cancer-related cause of death in males
D) Fourth most common cancer-related cause of death in females
E) Fifth most common cancer-related cause of death in males
Q2) What is the most important and most abundant hormone secreted by the pancreas?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Somatostatin
D) Gastrin
E) Cholecystokinin
Q3) The most prominent histologic feature of chronic pancreatitis is:
A) Metaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Fibrosis
D) Ongoing necrosis
E) Apoptosis
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerosis of the aorta and renal arterioles causing significantly reduced blood flow through the kidneys is known as:
A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Nephroangiosclerosis
D) Acute tubular necrosis
E) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
Q2) Which of the following is the most prevalent metabolic disease that affects the kidneys?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Lupus
C) Hypertension
D) Heart disease
E) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) Patients with diabetes are prone to which disorder of the kidney?
A) Bacterial urinary infections
B) Viral urinary infections
C) Fungal urinary infections
D) Edema
E) Deposits of immunoglobulin G in the glomeruli
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Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most carcinomas of the prostate:
A) Present with symptoms of cystitis
B) Present early in their course with urinary obstruction
C) Invade early into the urethra
D) Occur in the peripheral part (posterior lobe) of the prostate
E) Tend to secrete androgens
Q2) The most common cause of bacterial urethritis in men is:
A) Genital herpes
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Syphilis
E) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Q3) A typical manifestation of gonorrhea in males is:
A) Orchitis
B) Cystitis
C) Inflammation of the seminal vesicles
D) Purulent urethritis
E) Ulceration of the glans penis
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Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cystic ovarian lesion filled with clear,straw-colored fluid,showing multiple peritoneal metastases,is most likely a:
A) Mucinous cystadenoma
B) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
C) Serous cystadenoma
D) Serous cystadenocarcinoma
E) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
Q2) Which of the following is part of the external female genitalia?
A) Vagina
B) Vulva
C) Cervix
D) Endometrium
E) Fallopian tube
Q3) The most common malignant neoplasm of the female genital organs among U.S.women is carcinoma of the:
A) Ovaries
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Endometrium
D) Cervix
E) Vagina
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) In postmenopausal women,the breasts gradually atrophy as a result of the loss of:
A) Acinar cells
B) Prolactin
C) Hormone-rich connective tissue
D) Hormone-sensitive connective tissue
E) Estrogen
Q2) Women who have symptoms related to fibrocystic disease report flair up of symptoms if placed on:
A) Oral contraceptives
B) Estrogen replacement therapy
C) Progesterone
D) Fertility hormones
E) Calcium
Q3) Acute mastitis is most often caused by:
A) Staphylococcus
B) Escherichia coli
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Herpesvirus
E) Toxoplasma gondii
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common benign thyroid tumor?
A) Follicular adenoma
B) Follicular carcinoma
C) Anaplastic carcinoma
D) Papillary carcinoma
E) Medullary carcinoma
Q2) Neuroblastomas have a peak incidence in which age group?
A) 1-5 years
B) 10-15 years
C) 20-25 years
D) 40-45 years
E) 60-65 years
Q3) Exophthalmos is a feature of:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Graves' disease
C) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D) Congenital thyroid aplasia
E) Iodine deficiency
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19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) In patients with burns,to estimate the chances for survival and to determine appropriate treatment modalities health care workers utilize the:
A) Rule of three
B) Rule of fives
C) Rule of seven
D) Rule of nines
E) Rule of twelves
Q2) In what condition does the skin best act as a barrier against infection?
A) Moist skin with small open areas
B) Dry skin with small open areas
C) Dry intact skin
D) Moist intact skin
E) Peeling skin
Q3) Which of the following neoplastic lesions originates in the dermis rather than in the epidermis?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Dermatofibroma
E) Seborrheic keratosis
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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a long-bone fracture has numerous lines and fragments,it is called:
A) Simple
B) Greenstick
C) Comminuted
D) Complete
E) Incomplete
Q2) Which joint disease is characterized by destruction and loss of cartilage,sclerosis of subchondral bone,cyst formation,and osteophytes?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Osteomalacia
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Gout
E) Infectious arthritis
Q3) The most common symptom of degenerative joint disease is:
A) Fever
B) Swelling
C) Pain
D) Ankylosis
E) Crepitation
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common histologic type of soft tissue sarcoma in adults is:
A) Liposarcoma
B) Polymorphous cell sarcoma
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Leiomyosarcoma
E) Synovial sarcoma
Q2) Which muscular dystrophy involves the same gene as Duchenne's dystrophy?
A) Becker's dystrophy
B) Limb-girdle dystrophy
C) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
D) Myotonic dystrophy
E) Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
Q3) In women the first symptoms of myasthenia gravis appear most often in which age group?
A) 0-5 years
B) 5-20 years
C) 20-35 years
D) 35-50 years
E) Older than 50 years
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22
Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most primary malignant tumors of the brain originate from:
A) Neurons
B) Astrocytes
C) Oligodendroglia cells
D) Microglia cells
E) Meninges
Q2) In Parkinson's disease,which part of the brain shows depigmentation?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Occipital cortex
C) Cerebellum
D) Substantia nigra
E) Medulla oblongata
Q3) St.Louis encephalitis is transmitted by:
A) Dust inhalation
B) Living in close quarters
C) Mosquito and tick bites
D) Sexual contact
E) Kissing
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Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important complication of untreated glaucoma is:
A) Conjunctivitis
B) Keratitis
C) Iridocyclitis
D) Retinitis
E) Loss of eyesight
Q2) Which of the following diseases is the most important cause of cataracts?
A) Amyloidosis
B) Anthracosis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Gout
E) Hyperthyroidism
Q3) An irregular surface of the cornea or the lens that results in an uneven refraction of light is known as:
A) Myopia
B) Hyperopia
C) Astigmatism
D) Presbyopia
E) Myosis
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ear is connected to the nasopharynx by the:
A) Internal auditory canal
B) External auditory canal
C) Tympanic membrane
D) Eustachian tube
E) Stapes
Q2) Medications such as streptomycin,antimalarial drugs,and certain diuretics may cause deafness and are classified as:
A) Aural toxic
B) Otosclerosis
C) Ototoxic
D) Cochlear-toxic
E) Presbycusis
Q3) The ceruminous glands produce a greasy substance known as earwax and are located in the:
A) External auditory canal
B) Internal auditory canal
C) Middle ear
D) Inner ear
E) Tympanic membrane
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