Radiologic Technology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Radiologic Technology is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental principles and practices involved in medical imaging and diagnostic procedures. Students will learn about the safe operation of radiologic equipment, image acquisition and analysis, and patient care techniques within the context of radiography. The curriculum covers key topics such as anatomy and physiology, radiation protection, image evaluation, and the ethical and legal responsibilities of radiologic technologists. Through a combination of classroom instruction and hands-on clinical experience, students are prepared for professional roles in healthcare settings, enabling them to contribute to accurate diagnosis and effective patient management.
Recommended Textbook
Radiologic Science for Technologists Physics Biology and Protection 11th Edition by Stewart C. Bushong
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40 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposure is measured in units of ___________.
A) becquerel
B) sieverts
C) meters
D) grays
Answer: D
Q2) The biggest source of man-made ionizing radiation exposure to the public is ______________.
A) atomic fallout
B) diagnostic x-rays
C) smoke detectors
D) nuclear power plants
Answer: B
Q3) An example of a derived quantity in mechanical physics is a ________.
A) meter
B) second
C) dose
D) volume
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Structure of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter _____.
A) A
B) X
C) Z
D) n
Answer: C
Q2) An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of _______.
A) one
B) zero
C) positive
D) negative
Answer: B
Q3) The periodic table of the elements was developed by __________ in the late 19th century.
A) Bohr
B) Rutherford
C) Mendeleev
D) Roentgen
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Electromagnetic Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its frequency must ___________.
A) double
B) increase four times
C) decrease by half
D) remain constant
Answer: C
Q2) Photons with the highest frequencies have the ____________.
A) highest velocity
B) lowest energy
C) longest wavelengths
D) shortest wavelengths
Answer: D
Q3) What is the velocity of all electromagnetic radiation?
A) 8 × 103 m/s
B) 2 × 108 m/s
C) 3 × 108 m/s
D) 4 × 103 m/s
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Like magnetic poles ________ and unlike magnetic poles ________.
A) attract, attract
B) repel, repel
C) repel, attract
D) attract, repel
Q2) An alternating (AC) current is represented by a __________ line.
A) sinusoidal
B) horizontal
C) vertical
D) descending
Q3) What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength?
A) Ampere
B) Tesla
C) Dipole
D) Ohm
Q4) The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called ____________.
A) magnetic force
B) electron spin
C) unified field theory
D) magnetic induction
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Chapter 5: The X-ray Imaging System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A step-down transformer is located in the _______ circuit.
A) tube
B) timing
C) filament
D) rectifier
Q2) The step-up transformer increases voltage _________ times.
A) 500-1000
B) 200-300
C) 60-120
D) 20-50
Q3) Full-wave rectified, three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at _____ pulse(es) per second.
A) 1
B) 60
C) 120
D) 360
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The X-ray Tube
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Q1) When electrons bombard the target, ____% of their kinetic energy is converted to heat.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 99
Q2) The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective housing, and the ___________.
A) anode
B) cathode
C) glass envelope
D) focusing cup
Q3) The cathode side of the tube should be directed toward the _____ part of the patient.
A) upper
B) lower
C) thicker
D) thinner
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Chapter 7: X-ray Production
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Q1) The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to _________.
A) rotor speed
B) filament current
C) kVp
D) tube current
Q2) Most of the heat generated at the target is due to ___________.
A) inner-shell ionization
B) outer-shell excitation
C) nucleus bombardment
D) K x-rays
Q3) The quantity of bremsstrahlung radiation increases proportionately with increased
A) kVp
B) mAs
C) filtration
D) rotor speed
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Chapter 8: X-ray Emission
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Q1) An x-ray beam that could pass through dense tissue would have high _____.
A) penetrability
B) quality
C) quantity
D) Both A and B
Q2) A compensating filter is used to create ________ optical density with a body part of _________ thickness.
A) uniform, non-uniform
B) non-uniform, non-uniform
C) non-uniform, uniform
D) uniform, uniform
Q3) X-ray beam quality is improved by ____________.
A) lowering kVp
B) decreasing filtration
C) increasing filtration
D) increasing distance
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Chapter 9: X-ray Interaction with Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains _____ of the energy of the incident photon.
A) none
B) little
C) most
D) all
Q2) If 5% of an incident beam is transmitted through a body part, then 95% of that beam was ______________.
A) scattered
B) attenuated
C) absorbed
D) back-scattered
Q3) As kVp ___________, the probability of photoelectric absorption
A) increases, remains the same
B) increases, decreases
C) decreases, decreases
D) decreases, remains the same
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Chapter 10: Radiographic Image Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) A film with a characteristic curve showing a high slope would be useful when ________ is needed.
A) low contrast
B) wide latitude
C) high contrast
D) fine detail
Q2) The best way to minimize magnification is to use a __________.
A) long SID
B) small OID
C) large OID
D) Both A and B
Q3) Spatial resolution improves with decreased _________ blur.
A) screen
B) motion
C) geometric
D) All of the above
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Control of Scatter Radiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a compression device will increase __________.
A) film fog
B) patient dose
C) contrast
D) scatter
Q2) How can you improve image contrast with a heavy patient without increasing patient dose?
A) Lower kVp and raise mAs.
B) Use tight collimation.
C) Raise kVp and lower mAs.
D) Do both A and B.
Q3) Federal regulations passed in _____ required that positive beam limiting devices be on all manufactured x-ray collimators.
A) 1954
B) 1974
C) 1994
D) 2000
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Chapter 12: Screen-Film Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of an intensifying screen to absorb x-rays is called
A) quantum mottle
B) intensification factor
C) conversion efficiency
D) detective quantum efficiency
Q2) All of the following are advantages of proper screen-film use except
A) flexibility of kVp selection.
B) adjustment of radiographic contrast.
C) decreased patient dose.
D) spatial resolution is increased.
Q3) Crystals in film emulsion consist of __________________ and __________________.
A) potassium bromide, silver bromide
B) silver nitrate, silver bromide
C) silver bromide, silver iodide
D) silver nitrate, potassium bromide
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14
Chapter 13: Screen-Film Radiographic Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) If mAs is increased from 20 mAs to 40 mAs, the patient dose will _____________.
A) not be affected
B) increase slightly
C) be halved
D) be doubled
Q2) List the following tissues in order from the most radiolucent to the most radiopaque.
I. muscle
II) fat
III) lung
IV) bone
A) IV, I, II, III
B) III, I, II, IV
C) III, II, I, IV
D) II, III, I, IV
Q3) Both beam quality and beam quantity are increased by ______________.
A) increasing kVp
B) using 3-phase voltage
C) increasing mAs
D) Both A and B
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Medical Imaging Computer Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is an example of computer input hardware.
A) printer
B) CPU
C) mouse
D) diskette
Q2) All of the below are examples of a type of computer storage except:
A) microprocessor.
B) solid state drive.
C) hard disk drive.
D) flash drive.
Q3) Automatic bank tellers are _________ computer systems.
A) time-sharing
B) online
C) batch processing
D) pipeline processor
Q4) _________ is a computer language used to write some applications programs.
A) Quicken
B) Word
C) Excel
D) QuickBASIC
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Computed Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computed radiography screens respond to radiation with ______________________.
A) fluorescence
B) electron emission
C) photostimulable luminescence
D) biological phosphorescence
Q2) Computed radiography imaging produces _____________ gray levels.
A) 30
B) 100
C) 10,000
D) 1,000,000
Q3) Following the laser stimulation of the photostimulable phosphor, the excited electrons are _________________.
A) completely stabilized
B) mostly stabilized
C) still excited
D) completely removed
Q4) The digital imaging plate can sit for some time after the erase cycle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Digital Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary limitation of fanned beam radiography is
A) reduced spatial resolution
B) long scanning time
C) low contrast resolution
D) shortened dynamic range
Q2) Scanned projection radiography differs from conventional radiography in the lack of
A) patient motion
B) spatial resolution
C) contrast resolution
D) scattered x-rays
Q3) Spatial resolution is determined by the ratio of ________________ to
A) matrix size, field of view
B) field of view, matrix size
C) bit depth, field of view
D) field of view, dynamic range
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18
Chapter 17: Digital Radiographic Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of an image receptor with _____ DQE can result in _____ patient doses. I. low, lower II) high, lower III) high, higher
IV) low, higher
A) I
B) II
C) I, III
D) II, IV
Q2) With digital imaging, patient dose can be reduced by using higher ______ techniques.
A) mAs
B) kVp
C) optical density
D) contrast
Q3) Image detail is also called _______________________.
A) spatial resolution
B) spatial frequency
C) signal-to-noise ratio
D) dynamic range
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Chapter 18: Viewing the Digital Image
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Q1) Almost all medical flat panel digital display devices are _______________.
A) color liquid crystal displays
B) monochrome liquid crystal displays
C) color CRTs
D) monochrome CRTs
Q2) Preprocessing the digital image is done _____________, and post-processing is done ______________.
A) automatically, manually
B) manually, manually
C) manually, automatically
D) automatically, automatically
Q3) A digital display monitor is best viewed ______________.
A) straight on
B) from above
C) from below
D) at a 30° angle
Q4) An advantage to viewing the AMLCD screen is that the image quality is equally good viewed from any angle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Screen-Film Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) A streak of high optical density on the finished radiograph can be caused by
A) film boxes stacked too high in storage
B) light leaks in the cassette or darkroom
C) inadequate washing in the processor
D) high humidity in the darkroom
Q2) Low humidity in the darkroom can cause ________________.
A) tree static
B) brown stains
C) pressure marks
D) film fog
Q3) Misalignment of the processor turnaround assembly can cause __________________.
A) tree static
B) grid cutoff
C) Pi lines
D) guide-shoe marks
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21
Chapter 20: Screen-Film Radiographic Quality Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The x-ray field must center accurately to within ____% of SID.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 0.5
D) 1
Q2) Probably the most important patient protection characteristic of a radiographic imaging system is ______________.
A) filtration
B) focal spot size
C) accurate collimation
D) high contrast resolution
Q3) A quality assurance program monitors __________.
A) films
B) imaging equipment
C) people
D) processors
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Digital Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) The three classifications of digital imaging artifacts are _______________________.
A) processing, exposure, and handling/storage
B) processing, image receptor, and exposure
C) image receptor, software, and object
D) software, object, and exposure
Q2) Creating distinctly collimated margins on all four sides of a DR image is important in preventing ____________________ errors.
A) flatfielding
B) lossless compression
C) histogram analysis
D) archiving
Q3) Each anatomical part has an image histogram with a(n) _______________ shape.
A) identical
B) characteristic
C) S-curve
D) round
Q4) Artifacts are an acceptable part of digital imaging.
A)True
B)False
23
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Chapter 22: Digital Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) Specular reflection can be tested with the _______________. I. TG18-AD pattern
II) ambient light turned on
III) ambient light turned off
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II, and III
Q2) Specular reflection is reduced with the use of __________________.
A) improved anti-reflective coating
B) brighter ambient lighting
C) color monitors
D) larger monitors
Q3) The Task Group Report 18 is a procedure manual for _____________________.
A) evaluating the Grayscale Display Function
B) testing digital display devices
C) evaluating the SMPTE pattern
D) testing doing CT exams
Q4) Daily quality control testing is done by the medical physicist.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Cancer Society recommends biannual screening mammograms for all women ____________.
A) over age 65
B) age 30-39
C) age 50-59
D) age 40-49
Q2) Every dedicated mammography unit is equipped with a ________________.
A) low ratio grid
B) high ratio grid
C) three-phase voltage generator
D) tungsten filter
Q3) It is recommended that women obtain their first baseline mammogram before the age of _____.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
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Chapter 24: Mammography Quality Control
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Q1) The role of medical physicist includes _________________________.
A) doing annual performance evaluations of equipment
B) consulting with the mammographers concerning QC
C) reviewing the QC records to check for compliance
D) All of the above
Q2) The mammography quality control program is outlined by the ___________________.
A) radiology department
B) Mammography Quality Standards Act
C) state governments
D) Bureau of Radiation Health
Q3) The _____________________ is responsible for supervising quality assurance.
A) chief radiologist
B) mammographer
C) department manager
D) medical physicist
Q4) When is the QC evaluation of the equipment performed?
A) Once a year
B) When major components are replaced
C) When repairs are needed
D) Both A and B
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Chapter 25: Fluoroscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The image intensifier improved fluoroscopy by increasing image
A) brightness
B) resolution
C) magnification
D) contrast
Q2) What is the milliamperage used during fluoroscopy?
A) £100 mA
B) £50 mA
C) £5 mA
D) £1 mA
Q3) The ____________ in the image intensifier emits electrons when it is stimulated by light photons.
A) input phosphor
B) output phosphor
C) photocathode
D) electron gun
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Digital Fluoroscopy
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Q1) A charge-coupled device used in digital fluoroscopy provides high
A) spatial resolution
B) signal-to-noise ratio
C) detective quantum efficiency
D) All of the above
Q2) The combination of temporal and energy subtraction techniques is called
A) interlacing mode subtraction
B) hybrid subtraction
C) dual subtraction
D) superimposition
Q3) Remasking may be required due to __________________.
A) noise artifacts
B) motion artifacts
C) technical factors
D) Any of the above
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28
Chapter 27: Interventional Radiology
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Q1) When imaging a flow of contrast from the abdomen to the feet, a ___________ is used.
A) tilting table
B) stepping table
C) sliding tube
D) cine camera
Q2) A technologist who passes the ARRT exam in cardiovascular and interventional radiography may add _____ after the RT (R).
A) (VT)
B) (CI)
C) (IR)
D) (CV)
Q3) A patient must have _____________ prior to having an angiography or interventional procedure.
A) a history and physical examination
B) orders for IV hydration
C) a diet of clear liquids
D) All of the above
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29
Chapter 28: Computed Tomography
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Q1) The principal drawback of the first-generation CT scanner was the
A) high patient dose
B) long scanning time
C) translate-rotate assembly
D) degree of rotation
Q2) Each sweep of the source-detector around the body during CT is called a __________.
A) rotation
B) reconstruction
C) translation
D) projection
Q3) What is the principal disadvantage of third-generation CT scanners?
A) Slow speed
B) Ring artifacts
C) Patient dose
D) Poor reconstruction
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Human Biology
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Q1) The cell "engines" are the _________________.
A) ribosomes
B) lysosomes
C) mitochondria
D) nucleoli
Q2) A codon is a _______________.
A) protein molecule
B) cell organelle
C) genetic message
D) somatic cell
Q3) Before cells mature, they are called ________________ cells.
A) stem
B) precursor
C) undifferentiated
D) All of the above
Q4) Meiosis is the process of cell division for ___________ cells.
A) muscle
B) skin
C) somatic
D) genetic
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Chapter 30: Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology
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Q1) A _________ response to radiation is directly proportional to the dose received.
A) linear
B) nonlinear
C) curvilinear
D) non-threshold
Q2) A protracted dose of radiation is given _______________.
A) over a long period of time
B) all at one short exposure
C) in a series of separate doses
D) in two large doses
Q3) _________ is a measure of the rate that energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to soft tissue.
A) LET
B) RBE
C) MeV
D) OER
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Chapter 31: Molecular Radiobiology
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Q1) The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be ________________.
A) indirect effects
B) direct effects
C) DNA damage
D) cell destruction
Q2) The most radiosensitive macromolecule is ___________.
A) protein
B) DNA
C) mRNA
D) tRNA
Q3) Two OH* free radicals can join to form __________________ molecules.
A) organic free radical
B) hydroperoxyl
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) DNA
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Cellular Radiobiology
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Q1) If oxygen is present during high-LET radiation the effect of radiation is __________.
A) reduced
B) minimal
C) maximal
D) the same
Q2) The DO represents the ______________ dose for human cells.
A) mean survival
B) mean lethal
C) 50% survival
D) 50% lethal
Q3) Which of the following types of radioactive particle has the highest LET?
A) Alpha particle
B) X-ray
C) Gamma-ray
D) Proton
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Chapter 33: Deterministic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Some radiation victims of _______________ syndrome(s) may recover completely.
A) central nervous system
B) gastrointestinal
C) hematologic
D) All of the above
Q2) The most radiosensitive cells in the hematopoietic system of the human body are the _________________.
A) granulocytes
B) erythrocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) platelets
Q3) The LD / for humans is approximately _____ Gy.
A) 1
B) 2.5
C) 3.5
D) 10
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Stochastic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Low doses of radiation have been shown to cause ________________.
A) chromosome damage
B) loss of fertility
C) cataracts
D) radiodermatitis
Q2) Studies of A-bomb survivors indicate that leukemia has a ______________________ dose-response relationship to radiation.
A) nonlinear, threshold
B) linear, threshold
C) linear, nonthreshold
D) nonlinear, nonthreshold
Q3) A __________ effect increases in incidence but not severity as the dose increases.
A) non-stochastic
B) stochastic
C) deterministic
D) localized
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36
Chapter 35: Health Physics
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Q1) A tenth-value layer is equal to ________ half-value layers.
A) 1.2
B) 3.3
C) 5.5
D) 10.0
Q2) What is the best approach to occupational radiation exposure?
A) Maintain the annual dose limits.
B) Follow the concept of ALARA.
C) Reduce your exposure to half the NCRP dose limits.
D) Wear protective apparel at all times.
Q3) If the HVL in a radiology department is 0.25 mm Pb, then how thick should a shield be to reduce the technologists' exposure to one fourth the incident scatter?
A) 0.125 mm Pb
B) 0.25 mm Pb
C) 0.5 mm Pb
D) 1.0 mm Pb
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Chapter 36: Designing for Radiation Protection
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary radiation is ______________________.
A) leakage radiation
B) the scattered beam
C) the useful beam
D) All of the above
Q2) What is the minimum requirement for filtration on x-ray equipment operating above
70 kVp?
A) 1.5 mm Al equivalent
B) 2.0 mm Al equivalent
C) 2.5 mm Al equivalent
D) 3.5 mm Al equivalent
Q3) The x-ray control panel must show ____________.
A) beam on time
B) mAs used
C) positive beam limitation
D) automatic exposure controls
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38
Chapter 37: Radiography/Fluoroscopy Patient Radiation
Dose
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient skin exposure can be measured indirectly by using a ________________.
A) thermoluminescent dosimeter
B) nomogram
C) G-M counter
D) stop watch
Q2) The radiation dose absorbed by an organ such as bone marrow:
A) can be accurately measured by a direct method.
B) cannot be measured by a direct method; it can only be estimated.
C) is negligible for all diagnostic radiography examinations.
D) can only be measured to a small degree by a direct method.
Q3) Which of the following procedures has caused the most sentinel events?
A) Fluoroscopy
B) Cardiac catheterization
C) Interventional radiology
D) B and C
Q4) An estimation of patient dose is reported as _______________.
A) entrance skin exposure
B) bone marrow dose
C) gonadal dose
D) Any of the above
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Chapter 38: Computed Tomography Patient Radiation
Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) The collimator that improves image contrast by limiting the amount of scatter radiation that reaches the detector is the ____________________.
A) prepatient collimator
B) postpatient collimator
C) A and B
D) None of the above
Q2) U.S. Public Health Service data suggests that CT examinations currently account for approximately ________ of total patient effective dose.
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 70%
Q3) A pitch of 1 indicates that with each rotation of the tube, the patient will move
A) 8 cm
B) 16 cm
C) 24 cm
D) 32 cm
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Chapter 39: Patient Radiation Dose Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digital mammography results in lower doses than screen/film mammography.
A)True
B)False
Q2) CT is considered a low-dose procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a pregnant patient must undergo a radiographic procedure, which of the following practices will minimize radiation exposure?
A) Selecting technical exposure factors that are appropriate for the part of the body to be radiographed
B) Opening the x-ray beam collimator shutters as wide as possible to ensure complete coverage of the image receptor
C) Precisely collimating the radiographic beam to include only the anatomic area of interest and shielding the lower abdomen and pelvis when this area does not need to be included in the area to be irradiated
D) A and C
Q4) The dose in CT is lower if the multislice number is higher.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Occupational Radiation Dose Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lowest occupational exposure of diagnostic x-ray personnel occurs during _______________.
A) CT
B) mammography
C) fluoroscopy
D) Both A and B
Q2) For diagnostic x-ray personnel, the highest occupational exposure occurs during ___________________ exams. I. fluoroscopy
II) mobile radiography
III) spinal
IV) dental
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I and IV
D) III and IV
Q3) There are no circumstances under which a technologist should be given an involuntary leave of absence due to pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
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