Radiologic Technology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Radiologic Technology is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles, techniques, and safety standards required in diagnostic imaging using radiation. The curriculum covers foundational topics such as human anatomy, patient care procedures, radiographic positioning, and the physics of X-ray production. Students will learn about equipment operation, exposure factors, image evaluation, and various imaging modalities including fluoroscopy, CT, and MRI. Emphasis is placed on radiation protection for both patients and healthcare workers, ethical considerations, and adherence to professional standards. Through practical laboratory sessions and clinical experience, students gain the skills and knowledge necessary for a career as a radiologic technologist in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Imaging and Exposure 3rd Edition by Terri L. Fauber
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Chapter 1: Radiation and Its Discovery
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Q1) X-ray photons travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A _____ is a small, discrete bundle of energy.
A) phaser
B) quark
C) photon
D) mesion
Answer: C
Q3) Chemical changes may occur as a result of exposure to ionizing radiation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) When were x-rays discovered?
A) October 8, 1985
B) November 8, 1895
C) January 23, 1896
D) August 15, 1902
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The X-Ray Beam
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Q1) Which of the following could be defined as the production of an x-ray photon by the electrostatic attraction between the incident electron and the nucleus of the tungsten atom?
A) Photoelectric interaction
B) Bremsstrahlung interaction
C) Characteristic interaction
D) Pair production interaction
Answer: B
Q2) Effective compensation for the anode heel effect would involve positioning:
A) the thinnest portion of the part under the anode.
B) the thickest portion of the part under the anode.
C) the thinnest portion of the part under the cathode.
D) b and c
Answer: A
Q3) The maximum speed the rotating anode will most likely achieve is _____ rpm.
A) 3200
B) 5000
C) 10,000
D) 20,000
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Radiographic Image Formation
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Q1) When the x-ray photon strikes an atom within the tissue being imaged and loses all of its energy to an inner shell electron of that atom, the photon is said to have been _____ and undergone the _____.
A) transmitted, Compton effect
B) absorbed, photoelectric interaction
C) attenuated, Compton effect
D) scattered, coherent interaction
Answer: B
Q2) The photoelectric effect is dependent on both the energy of the x-ray photon and the composition of the anatomic tissue.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) During image intensification, the electrons are focused by the:
A) input phosphor.
B) output phosphor.
C) electrostatic lenses.
D) TV monitor.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Radiographic Image Quality: Photographic Properties
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Q1) Kilovoltage does not affect radiographic density until adequate penetration is reached.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For every _____ of part thickness, the radiographer should adjust the mAs by a factor of 2.
A) 2-3 cm
B) 4-5 cm
C) 6-7 cm
D) 8-9 cm
Q3) If barium sulfate is selected as the contrast media, it is necessary to:
A) increase kVp.
B) increase mAs.
C) decrease the grid ratio.
D) decrease the time.
Q4) As it applies to a radiograph, density is:
A) the difference between two dark areas approximately 2.5 cm apart.
B) the measurement of the overall blackening on the radiographic image.
C) the measurement of the difference in the blackening on the radiographic film.
D) the difference between similar shades of gray.
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Chapter 5: Radiographic Image Quality: Geometric Properties
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Q1) The SOD can be found by:
A) adding SID and OID.
B) adding the MF to the OID.
C) subtracting the OID from SID.
D) subtracting the SID from the MF.
Q2) If the image size measures 4.6 inches and the magnification factor is 1.42, what is the size of the object?
A) 2.43 inches
B) 3.24 inches
C) 5.63 inches
D) 6.53 inches
Q3) Shape distortion can be created by:
A) off-centering the central ray.
B) angling the central ray.
C) increasing the SID.
D) a and b only
Q4) What effect will using a higher grid ratio have on recorded detail?
A) Increased recorded detail
B) Decreased recorded detail
C) No effect on recorded detail
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Chapter 6: Scatter Control
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Q1) The results of the collimator alignment quality control test should demonstrate that the alignment is within 5% of the SID used.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What occurs when scatter radiation strikes the film?
A) Radiographic contrast increases.
B) Radiographic contrast decreases.
C) Recorded detail decreases.
D) Visibility of recorded detail improves.
Q3) The number of lead strips per inch in a grid is a measure of:
A) grid selectivity.
B) grid ratio.
C) grid frequency.
D) contrast improvement number.
Q4) Which beam restriction device can be cut to the size needed?
A) A collimator
B) An aperture diaphragm
C) A cylinder
D) A cone
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Chapter 7: Image Receptors
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Q1) What is the term specifically used to describe the emission of light during and after external stimulation?
A) Luminescence
B) Phosphorescence
C) Fluorescence
D) Incandescence
Q2) What is the term specifically used to describe the emission of light during stimulation only?
A) Luminescence
B) Phosphorescence
C) Fluorescence
D) Incandescence
Q3) What kind of radiographic film is designed to respond specifically to x-radiation and not to the light emitted from intensifying screens?
A) Direct exposure film
B) Screen film
C) Orthochromatic film
D) Panchromatic film
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Chapter 8: Radiographic Film Processing
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Q1) In the developer solution, exposed silver halide crystals are reduced to _____ silver.
A) ionic
B) liquid
C) negative
D) metallic
Q2) At what stage does the process of removing unexposed and undeveloped silver halide from the emulsion occur?
A) Developing
B) Fixing
C) Washing
D) Drying
Q3) The concept of routinely using film that has been stored the longest is known as:
A) FIFO.
B) FOFO.
C) LILO.
D) FFIO.
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Chapter 9: Sensitometry
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Q1) A film that allows 100% of the incident light to be transmitted has a logarithmic value of:
A) 0.
B) 10.
C) 50.
D) 100.
Q2) What aspect of the sensitometric curve represents the contrast of a film?
A) Toe
B) Shoulder
C) Slope
D) a and c
Q3) Which portion of the curve should be evaluated to assess the range of exposures over which a film produces diagnostic densities?
A) Toe
B) Straight-line
C) Shoulder
D) a or c
Q4) The lower the speed exposure point, the faster the film speed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Exposure Factor Selection
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Q1) Radiographic contrast would be standardized with the:
A) variable kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
B) variable kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
C) fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
D) fixed kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
Q2) If a technique chart is being used and the resultant image is overexposed, the technologist should assume the chart is inaccurate and come up with his or her own exposure factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A variable kVp/fixed mAs chart may be most effective with:
A) geriatric patients.
B) trauma patients.
C) patients imaged with mobile equipment.
D) pediatric patients.
Q4) A technique chart should be established for:
A) each radiographer.
B) each radiographic tube.
C) each radiologist.
D) a and c
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Automatic Exposure Control
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Q1) Where is the sensor located in an automatic exposure device that converts light into an electrical signal?
A) In front of the patient
B) Behind the image receptor
C) In front of the image receptor
D) On the table-top
Q2) If the detector is directly exposed to the primary beam during a film-screen study, the area of interest will appear:
A) overexposed.
B) underexposed.
C) correctly exposed.
D) to have high contrast.
Q3) What is the appropriate setting for backup time/mAs?
A) 50% of the expected mAs
B) 100% of the expected mAs
C) 150% of the expected mAs
D) 400% of the expected mAs
Q4) AEC can typically be used with table-top exams.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Digital Imaging
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Q1) Image noise in digital imaging is primarily a result of:
A) quantum mottle.
B) low dynamic range.
C) wide window width.
D) postprocessing image enhancement.
Q2) As compared to CR, a disadvantage of direct digital radiography is:
A) increased image processing time.
B) lower dynamic range.
C) incompatibility with existing equipment.
D) increased spatial resolution.
Q3) The range of exposure intensities an image receptor can accurately detect determines its:
A) dynamic range.
B) matrix size.
C) histogram.
D) window width.
Q4) The pixel bit depth determines the amount of shades of gray the system is capable of displaying on the digital image.
A)True
B)False
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