Radiologic Science Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Radiologic Science is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and practices of medical imaging. The curriculum covers topics such as the physics of radiation, image acquisition techniques, patient positioning, radiation safety, and quality assurance in diagnostic radiology. Students will also learn about various imaging modalities, including X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and ultrasound. Emphasis is placed on ethical issues, patient care, and effective communication within the healthcare team. By the end of the course, students will be equipped with the foundational knowledge necessary to pursue advanced studies or a professional career in radiologic technology.
Recommended Textbook Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy 3rd Edition by Charles M. Washington
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cancer: An Overview
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Q1) Immunotherapy suppresses the patient's immune systems to aid in other forms of treatment such as radiation therapy or chemotherapy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following is not a phase of the mammalian cell cycle?
A) G0
B) G1
C) G2
D) G3
Answer: D
Q3) Anaplastic tumors:
A) closely resemble the cells of origin
B) maintain some resemblance of the cells of origin
C) do not resemble the cells of origin
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Ethics and Legal Considerations of Cancer Management
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Q1) Which patient/provider relationship model is best represented by the informed consent process?
A) engineering model
B) priestly model
C) collegial model
D) contractual model
E) covenant model
Answer: D
Q2) What is the study of ethical issues in medicine?
A) biometrics
B) bioethics
C) macroethics
D) microethics
Answer: B
Q3) Minors of any age can give or withhold consent.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Principles of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hodgkin's disease is a neoplasm that typically involves the _________.
A) brain
B) lung
C) lymph nodes
D) liver
Answer: C
Q2) The purpose of the staging system for cancer is:
A) to evaluate the degree of differentiation of tumor
B) to estimate the prognosis of the patient
C) to evaluate the degrees of malignancy
D) to estimate the geographical extent of disease
Answer: D
Q3) The hallmark of reversible cell damage is cellular swelling.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Overview of Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms describes the separation of water into hydrogen and oxygen following exposure to radiation?
A) radiolysis
B) radioactivity
C) ionization
D) Duplication
Q2) Organ dose can be measured directly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cellular response to high LET varies by dose rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tumors that have a PO<sub>2</sub> less than 10 mm Hg have a poor prognosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) SLD repair increases with increasing LET.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Detection and Diagnosis
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Q1) One part of the staging by the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC)is called histologic type; this refers to:
A) staging of the cell
B) cell type
C) differentiation of the cell
D) grading of the cell
Q2) In the TNM staging system,the "T" indicates:
A) metastases
B) nodal status
C) primary tumor
D) grade of the tumor
Q3) The chance of developing invasive breast cancer at some time in a woman's life is approximately one out of every ___ women.
A) 5
B) 7
C) 8
D) 10
Q4) A diagnosis can be subjective or objective.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Medical Imaging
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Q1) Image fusion as used in the production of PET images may fuse together the PET images with the images of what other imaging modality?
A) ultrasound
B) x-ray
C) CT
D) all of the above
Q2) A quality radiograph taken 100 cm using 20 mAs could be replicated at 50 cm using:
A) 15 mAs
B) 10 mAs
C) 7 mAs
D) 5 mAs
Q3) The quantity of photons in an x-ray beam is directly proportional to:
A) kVp
B) anode temperature rating
C) tube current
D) filtration
Q4) In 1895,Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen discovered the process of phosphorescence.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Treatment Delivery Equipment
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Q1) A Van de Graaff machine __________________. I.is an electrostatic generator
II.operates at 2 MV
III.operates a 200 kV
IV.uses a doughnut-shaped accelerator structure
A) I and II
B) II and IV
C) III and IV
D) I and IV
Q2) a(n._______________ test is performed on the cobalt 60 unit to determine whether the source's seal is broken.
A) penumbra
B) light field-radiation field coincidence
C) electron equilibrium
D) wipe
Q3) The rate of decay per month on a cobalt 60 unit is:
A) 1% per month
B) 2% per month
C) 3% per month
D) 5% per month
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Treatment Procedures
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Q1) The comprehensive electronic medical record (EMR)in radiation oncology may include all of the following except:
A) patient's history and physical
B) schedules
C) clinical charting
D) radiation treatment details
Q2) The goal of radiation therapy planning is to deliver an evenly distributed radiation dose to the ________ while minimizing the dose to the normal surrounding tissue.
A) isodose lines
B) target volume
C) hinge angle
D) penumbra
Q3) An anterior oblique and posterior oblique treatment field is an example of:
A) arc therapy
B) four-field box or brick
C) wedge pair
D) parallel opposed portals (POP)
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Chapter 9: Radiation Therapy Education
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Q1) Which professional organization is charged with administering the credentialing examination for graduates of radiation therapy educational programs?
A) ACR
B) JRCERT
C) ASRT
D) ARRT
Q2) Only the radiation oncology nurse or patient educator is responsible for the education of cancer patients regarding their treatments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the radiation therapist is deciding what educational material to use,which of the following factors must be taken into consideration?
A) skill or knowledge is needed
B) intrinsic and extrinsic incentives
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
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11
Chapter 10: Infection Control in Radiation Oncology
Facilities
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Q1) The term used to indicate the number of antibodies present in a blood sample is:
A) vaccine
B) titers
C) pathogens
D) antibiotics
Q2) The agency that mandates the minimum level of respiratory protection in caring for those with tuberculosis is:
A) WHO
B) NCI
C) JRC
D) OSHA
Q3) Nosocomial infections affect:
A) patients
B) health care workers
C) the public
D) a and b
E) all of the above
Q4) Fomites include food,water,medications,and medical equipment and supplies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Patient Assessment
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Q1) Assessment of the patient allows health care providers to do all except:
A) Determine the nature of the problem.
B) Select an intervention for that problem.
C) Find a cure for their disease.
D) Evaluate the effectiveness of the intervention.
Q2) _________ is defined as identifying with the feelings,thoughts,or experiences of another person.
A) Empathy
B) Sympathy
C) Emotionally
D) Willingly
Q3) The dynamic process directed toward the goal of enabling persons to function at their maximum level within the limitations of their disease or disability in terms of physical,mental,emotional,social,and economic potential is:
A) rehabilitation
B) coping strategy
C) reflecting
D) therapeutic relationship
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13
Chapter 12: Pharmacology and Drug Administration
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Q1) Select potential reasons why a patient may be unable to take oral preparations of a drug.
A) Patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
B) Patient has difficulty in swallowing.
C) Patient refuses to swallow medication.
D) all of the above
Q2) Select the type of medication administration that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract.
A) topical administration
B) parenteral administration
C) mucous membrane administration
D) administration via the rectum
Q3) A drug is any substance that alters physical function,while a medication has a therapeutic goal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Applied Mathematics Review
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Q1) Which of the following is not a fundamental SI unit?
A) time
B) distance
C) weight
D) electrical current
Q2) How many significant figures are there in 6,800?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) unable to determine
Q3) Simplify 5(3b)<sup>2</sup>:
A) 15b<sup>2</sup>
B) 5(9b<sup>2</sup>)
C) 45b<sup>2</sup>
D) already simplified
Q4) How many significant figures are there in 0.0068?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
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Chapter 14: Introduction to Radiation Therapy Physics
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Q1) Wavelength is represented by:
A) Lambda
B) Hertz
C) inch
D) second
Q2) Ground state is the minimum amount of energy needed to keep the nucleons together.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ground state is the lowest energy state for an atom.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The speed of light is:
A) 3 x 10<sup>10 </sup>m/sec
B) 3 x 10<sup>8 </sup>m/min
C) 3 x 10<sup>10 </sup>m/min
D) 3 x 10<sup>8 </sup>m/sec
Q5) Rest mass refers to the mass (weight)of a particle when it is not moving.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Aspects of Brachytherapy
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Q1) The shape of the isodose distribution for a tandem and ovoid treatment is:
A) apple shaped
B) triangular
C) mushroom shaped
D) pear shaped
Q2) Of the following,which brachytherapy would be used to treat the breast?
A) intracavitary
B) interstitial
C) topical
D) permanent implant
Q3) An autoradiograph is taken to:
A) determine the energy of the source
B) check source placement in the patient
C) verify uniformity of source
D) determine source strength
Q4) Which of the following brachytherapy sources is used to treat breast cancer?
A) gold-198
B) iodine 125
C) iridium 192
D) radium 226
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Chapter 16: Special Procedures
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Q1) Radiation oncology goals include all of the following except:
A) reduce side effects
B) deliver accurate and precise treatments
C) increase toxic effects
D) all of the above
Q2) Heavy charged particles like protons have a(n)_____________ in tissue that is desirable.
A) continuous fall-off
B) sharp fall-off
C) shortened fall-off
D) absent fall-off
Q3) Protons are:
A) highly imaged
B) heavy charged particles
C) extended range
D) electrons
Q4) Deformable image registration is easier than rigid body registration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Intensity-Modulated Radiation Therapy
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Q1) Intensity-Modulated Radiation Therapy (IMRT)can only be used with multileaf collimators (MLCs).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dose escalation refers to:
A) delivery of higher doses of radiation than those traditionally administered
B) delivery of higher dose to the surrounding tissue than the tumor dose
C) delivery of a high dose to a small treatment volume
D) delivery of a lower dose of radiation than traditionally prescribed
Q3) Contouring can best be described as:
A) drawing of beam symmetry
B) accurate delineation of tumor volume and surrounding structures
C) a process for dosimetric verification
D) treatment information routing
Q4) Biologic imaging uses which of the following technologies?
A) PET scans
B) PET scans using fluorodeoxyglucose
C) CT scan with and without contrast
D) MRI with postcontrast enhancement
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Chapter 18: Radiation Safety and Protection
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Q1) The annual dose equivalent limit to the heart for occupationally exposed individuals is ____ mSv.
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 500
Q2) The average annual dose received by the general public from all medical radiation procedures is ____ mSv.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 0.5
Q3) The annual dose equivalent limit to the lens of the eye for occupationally exposed individuals is ____ mSv.
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 500
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Quality Improvement in Radiation Oncology
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Q1) Which organization guides specific radiation oncology staff in the development of a quality assurance (QA)program as it relates to treatment planning and delivery?
A) ACR
B) NRC
C) AAPM
D) ASRT
Q2) Among continuous improvement methods,the system of Six Sigma is one that focuses on improving processes by:
A) emphasizing quality control procedures that are routinely performed,documented,and evaluated
B) emphasizing speed and efficiency
C) the elimination of defects in the process through precision and accuracy
D) continuous statistical assessment of date being collected
Q3) Appropriate use of CQI assists the health care organization in responding to all of the following except:
A) increased competition
B) escalating costs
C) quality concerns
D) development of individual performance
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Surface and Sectional Anatomy
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Q1) The carina is approximately located at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sinuses that are located directly inferior to and form the floor of the orbit are the:
A) maxillary sinus
B) sphenoidal sinus
C) frontal sinus
D) ethmoidal sinus
Q3) 1. superior orbital margin
2. nasion
3. external occipital protuberance
4. mastoid process
A) 1
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) all of the above
Q4) The pharyngeal tonsils,or adenoids,are located in the oropharynx.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Simulator Design
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Q1) A light field radiation field coincidence test verifies:
A) that the light from the blades represents the radiation field
B) that the field wires define the radiation field
C) the symmetry of the radiation beam
D) all of the above
Q2) The matrix size is determined by the number of:
A) voxels
B) Hounsfield units
C) detectors on the scanner
D) pixels
Q3) The difference in completing an axial scan as compared to spiral CT is that the:
A) aperture size is larger in an axial scanner
B) detector size is larger in the spiral CT scanner
C) gantry is rotating in a diagonal
D) table moves for the spiral CT
Q4) A light field radiation field coincidence test is performed in all instances except:
A) when a bulb is replaced
B) when the mirror is realigned
C) when the radiation field appears off center from the film
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Chapter 22: Conventional Fluoroscopy-Basedsimulation Procedures
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Q1) According to ICRU Report 62,another term used to describe critical structures that may limit the amount of radiation delivered to the tumor volume is
A) GTV
B) CTV
C) OAR
D) RBE
Q2) Evidence of collimation,by reducing the diaphragm opening on the radiograph,should appear as a clear ___- to ___-cm border on the processed film.
A) 0.25,0.50
B) 0.5,1.0
C) 1.0,2.0
D) 3.0,5.0
Q3) Most treatment planning on the fluoroscopy-based simulator is divided into two types of procedures: SAD and SSD setups.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Computed Tomography Simulation
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Q1) Which of the following are benefits of CT simulation?
I.the ability to outline critical structures and view these structures in three dimensions
II.machine setup parameters and treatment accessories unable to be verified on the CT scanner
III.virtual simulation allows for construction of DRRs without patient present
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I,II,and III
Q2) What are the varying electron densities displayed as pixels in shades of gray on the imaging screen?
A) incrementations
B) interpolations
C) Hounsfield units
D) translations
Q3) Window level is the range of numbers displayed or the contrast on a CT image.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: Photon Dosimetry Concepts and Calculations
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Q1) Absorbed dose at a given depth divided by the dose in air dose at a fixed reference is the definition of:
A) TAR
B) TMR
C) TPR
D) PDD
Q2) The intensity of a radiation beam is measured at 10.0 mR/hr at a distance of 20 cm.What will be the intensity of this beam at 30.0 cm?
A) 22.5 mR/hr
B) 4.44 mR/hr
C) 6.67 mR/hr
D) 15.0 mR/hr
Q3) As the SSD increases,the TAR:
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains the same
D) shows no effect
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26
Chapter 25: Photon Dose Distributions
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Q1) Effective SSD and TAR methods of correcting for tissue heterogeneities result in accurate isodose distributions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which tissue heterogeneity correction method are primary and scatter separated?
A) power law TAR method
B) generalized Batho correction
C) equivalent TAR method
D) delta volume method
Q3) The desired outcome in radiation oncology is a high degree of tumor control with minimal deleterious side effects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The 3DCRT method uses conventional inverse planning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Each point along an isodose line has exactly the same dose.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Electron Beams in Radiation Therapy
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Q1) Unlike photons,electrons have a mass and a charge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 12-MeV electron beam lacks skin sparing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What effect will an increase in the nominal energy of an electron beam have on the depth of the 80% isodose line?
A) increase
B) decrease
C) remain the same
D) dose dependence
Q4) Which treatment energy for electrons is most likely to use a scanning beam technique rather than a scattering foil?
A) 4 MeV
B) 12 MeV
C) 20 MeV
D) 25 MeV
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Electronic Charting,and Image Management
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Q1) Standards of care are a:
A) set of education standards for a profession
B) compilation of the customs and behaviors of a profession
C) set of moral and religious conduct
D) all of the above
Q2) HIPAA provides guidelines and regulations for:
A) computerizing medical records
B) patients' right and responsibilities
C) standards of care
D) use and disclosure of patient information
Q3) ________ is online management of the entire order tracking and documentation process from order entry to return of results.
A) EMR
B) Computerized physician order entry (CPOE)
C) Medical imaging
D) all of the above
Q4) EMRs can optimize efficiency and access through process formulization and single point data entry.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Bone,Cartilage and Soft Tissue Sarcomas
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Q1) Most STSs generally spread through: I.the lymphatic system
II.direct invasion and extension
III.hematogenous spread
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I,II,and III
Q2) In which anatomical location are primary bone lesions most common?
A) spine
B) upper extremity
C) lower extremity
D) trunk
Q3) Primary treatment for osteogenic sarcoma involves: I.radiation therapy
II.surgery
III.chemotherapy
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I,II,and III
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Lymphoreticular System Tumors
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Q1) NHLs are highly curable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What stage is a Hodgkin lymphoma affecting only the right cervical lymph nodes?
A) stage I
B) stage II
C) stage III
D) stage IV
Q3) Which treatment field for HD includes the cervical lymph node chain?
A) mantle
B) inverted-Y (abdominal portion)
C) inverted-Y (pelvic portion)
D) all of the above
Q4) A mantle field is used to treat which type of cancer?
A) mycosis fungoides
B) multiple myeloma
C) non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
D) Hodgkin disease (HD)
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Chapter 30: Leukemia
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Q1) Which chemotherapy agent can be used to reduce the leukemic cell load and impair the host's ability to reject the donor bone marrow?
A) dexamethasone
B) vincristine
C) L-asparaginase
D) cyclophosphamide
Q2) A lower than normal dose rate is used to treat total-body irradiation (TBI).
A)True
B)False
Q3) CML and CLL occur more frequently in children than in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not one of the stages in the natural history of CML?
A) plague
B) chronic
C) accelerated
D) acute
Q5) TBI can used as part of the treatment of patients with leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Endocrine System Tumors
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Q1) In which gland is ACTH produced?
A) pancreas
B) pituitary
C) thyroid
D) adrenal
Q2) In which gland is oxytocin produced?
A) pancreas
B) pituitary
C) thyroid
D) adrenal
Q3) Radiation is a known risk factor for cancers of which of the following endocrine glands?
A) adrenal
B) pancreas
C) pituitary
D) thyroid
Q4) The parathyroid glands are imbedded in the thyroid gland.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Respiratory System Tumors
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Q1) Which of the following terms is used to describe the surgical removal of an entire lung?
A) lobectomy
B) segmentectomy
C) pneumonectomy
D) wedge resection
Q2) Treatment of superior vena cava syndrome requires an off cord oblique boost.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a common acute side effect a patient may experience during the course of radiation treatments for lung cancer?
A) dermatitis
B) erythemia
C) esophagitis
D) diarrhea
Q4) Which of the following symptoms is not associated with Horner syndrome?
A) ipsilateral miosis
B) ptosis
C) exophthalmos
D) anhydrosis
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Chapter 33: Head and Neck Cancers
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition frequently develops in users of smokeless tobacco?
A) erythroplakia
B) leukoplakia
C) thrush
D) dysplasia
Q2) What T stage is a glottic tumor that involves only one vocal cord but does impair mobility?
A) T1a
B) T1b
C) T1c
D) T2
Q3) What is the name of the leaf-shaped cartilage that protects the larynx?
A) glottis
B) epiglottis
C) pharynx
D) larynx
Q4) Over the past decade,the incidence of larynx cancers is on the rise.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Central Nervous System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the standard dose delivered to the tumor of a patient with a low grade astrocytoma?
A) 3000 to 3500 cGy
B) 4000 to 4500 cGy
C) 5000 to 5500 cGy
D) 6000 to 6500 cGy
Q2) What is the most common type of brain tumor?
A) GBM
B) astrocytoma
C) meninegioma
D) metastatic brain lesions
Q3) In which portion of the CNS do most CNS tumors occur?
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) brain stem
D) thalamus
Q4) Metastatic brain lesions are more common in children than are primary brain tumors.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Digestive System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the growths that arise from the mucosal lining and protrude into the lumen of the bowel?
A) adenomatous polyps
B) achalasia
C) hematochezia
D) tenesmus
Q2) The vermiform appendix is most closely associated with which portion of the digestive tract?
A) ileum
B) cecum
C) duodenum
D) rectum
Q3) The treatment volume for colon cancers typically includes pelvic lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Radiation treatment portals of the lower third of the esophagus typically include the supraclavicular lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Gynecological Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pap testing is a screening tool used to detect which cancer?
A) ovarian
B) cervical
C) vaginal
D) vulvar
Q2) Cone biopsies are used to detect cancer of the vulva.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cervical cancer that has spread outside the cervix to the upper third of the vagina is which stage?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q4) Chlamydia infections are a risk factor for developing which female reproductive cancer?
A) ovarian
B) cervical
C) vaginal
D) vulvar
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Male Reproductive and Genitourinary Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A total dose of 2500 cGy in fractions of 160 cGy is used to treat which male reproductive cancer?
A) penis
B) testicle
C) prostate
D) bladder
Q2) The survival data for external beam radiotherapy and brachytherapy are better than surgery for prostate cancer when like groups are compared.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the 5-year survival of all stages of prostate cancer combined?
A) 39%
B) 59%
C) 79%
D) 99%
Q4) Which of the following treatment techniques can be used to treat the prostate?
A) 4-field box
B) IMRT
C) brachytherapy
D) all of the above
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Chapter 38: Breast Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) DCIS is classified as which stage?
A) stage 0
B) stage 1
C) stage 2
D) stage 3
Q2) Breast implants at an early age increase a woman's risk of developing breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Radiation therapy is the only treatment necessary for T1 and T2 breast cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In which quadrant do most breast cancers occur?
A) upper outer
B) upper inner
C) lower outer
D) lower inner
Q5) Most breast cancers are infiltrating ductal carcinoma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Pediatric Solid Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common intracranial tumor in children?
A) medulloblastoma
B) metastatic lesion
C) astrocytoma
D) craniopharyngioma
Q2) Which pediatric brain tumor often mimics medulloblastomas?
A) ependymomas
B) low-grade astrocytomas
C) high-grade astrocytomas
D) CNS germ cell tumors
Q3) Wilms tumors are cancers of which organ?
A) kidney
B) bone
C) skeletal muscle
D) smooth muscle
Q4) Radiation therapy is the treatment of choice for Ewing sarcoma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Skin Cancers and Melanoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do the ABCDs of melanoma represent?
A) adenocarcinoma,basal cell carcinoma,carcinoma in situ,dermatoma
B) abrasion,bruise,cut,dimpling
C) asymmetry,border,color,diameter
D) appearance,blackness,contour,depth
Q2) Malignant melanomas are extremely radiosensitive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Traditional fraction doses of 180 to 200 cGy should be used when treating malignant melanoma with radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the technique in which the tumor is removed and examined one layer at a time?
A) curettage and electrodesiccation
B) Mohs surgery
C) cryosurgery
D) laser surgery
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