Radiologic Science Fundamentals
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Radiologic Science Fundamentals introduces students to the essential principles and practices of radiologic technology. The course covers the foundational concepts of anatomy, medical imaging, radiation physics, and patient care within the context of diagnostic radiology. Students will learn about the characteristics and safe operation of imaging equipment, radiation protection measures, image quality factors, and the role of radiologic technologists in healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on ethical and professional responsibilities, as well as the development of critical thinking skills for effective clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the following proportional relationship: x = ay/bd.Assuming all other quantities remain constant, what happens to the value of x when d decreases?
A)increases
B)decreases
C)remains the same
D)cannot be determined
Answer: A
Q2) Consider the following proportional relationship: x = ay/bd.Assuming all other quantities remain constant, what happens to the value of x when the product of bd increases?
A)increases
B)decreases
C)remains the same D)cannot be determined
Answer: B
Q3) P = 2L + 2W; solve for L.
Answer: (P - 2W)/2
Q4) F = Gm<sub>1</sub>m<sub>2</sub>/r<sup>2</sup>; solve for m<sub>1</sub>.
Answer: Fr<sup>2</sup>/Gm<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) expressed as the height of the wave
A)infrared energy
B)gamma rays
C)radio waves
D)ultraviolet energy
E)excitation
F)lambda
G)amplitude
H)velocity
Answer: G
Q2) Groups of the periodic table
A)represent elements with the same outer electron configuration.
B)are horizontal.
C)represent elements with the same atomic density.
D)none of the above
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the current supplied to a circuit with two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms in series and two resistances of 4 ohms each in parallel.
Answer: 2 amperes
Q2) If a conductor is positively charged, it
A)has too many electrons.
B)is deficient in electrons.
C)has more neutrons than electrons.
D)is deficient in protons.
Answer: B
Q3) V = I x R
A)semiconductor
B)conductor
C)insulator
D)ampere
E)volt
F)Ohm's law
G)series circuit
H)parallel circuit
Answer: F
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Q1) designed to permit electron flow in one direction only
A)semiconductor
B)diode
C)p-type material
D)n-type material
E)thyristor
F)valve tube
G)arsenic
H)gallium
Q2) List the three ways to induce an electromagnetic field.
Q3) an electron doper to improve conductance
A)semiconductor
B)diode
C)p-type material
D)n-type material
E)thyristor
F)valve tube
G)arsenic
H)gallium
Q4) The magnitude of an induced electromagnetic field depends on what four factors?
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what point in the x-ray circuit is the rectification circuit located?
A)between the semiconductors and the valve tubes
B)between the step-down transformer and the rheostat
C)between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube
D)between the thermionic diode tubes and the x-ray machines
Q2) The diagnostic x-ray range is approximately
A)10 to 1,200 mA.
B)0.001 to 10 seconds.
C)25 to 150 kVp.
D)all of the above
Q3) All of the following are x-ray tube support systems EXCEPT
A)C-arm.
B)floor-to-ceiling.
C)overhead suspension.
D)fluoroscopic tower.
Q4) Radiographing a thin body part using automatic exposure control (AEC)
A)requires a longer minimum reaction time.
B)is recommended in order to reduce dose.
C)may produce inconsistent images due to AEC timer errors.
D)requires higher kVp values in order to reduce motion.
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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Sample Questions
Q1) To cover a 14 in.x 17 ft field at 40 ft, a ____-degree target angle is required.
A)3
B)5
C)7
D)12
Q2) To determine the allowable combination of exposures factors, thus preventing x-ray tube damage,
A)a tube rating chart is referenced after exposure to check correctness.
B)the automatic exposure circuit is activated.
C)an x-ray tube rating chart is checked prior to exposure.
D)an anode cooling chart is referenced prior to exposure.
Q3) Metal envelope x-ray tubes are gaining in popularity.Explain some key advantages to a metal housing x-ray tube.
Q4) The problem of off-focus radiation
A)is particularly important with digital detectors.
B)distorts the digital histogram.
C)may result in suboptimum digital images.
D)all of the above
Q5) Why is a vacuum created in the x-ray tube?
Q6) List the three primary functions of the x-ray tube's protective housing.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the end of the characteristic cascade, the ____ shell is missing an electron.
A)innermost
B)K
C)outermost
D)characteristic
Q2) When comparing the x-ray emission spectrum between beams produced at 70 kVp and 110 kVp
A)the 110 kVp beam would demonstrate less brems and a higher characteristic spike.
B)the 110 kVp beam would demonstrate more brems and a higher characteristic spike.
C)the 70 kVp beam would demonstrate less brems and a higher characteristic spike.
D)the 70 kVp beam would demonstrate an equal amount of brems and characteristic radiation.
Q3) X-rays are characterized as
A)charged particles.
B)electromagnetic waves of short wavelength.
C)electromagnetic waves with high frequencies.
D)both b and c
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9
Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Personnel monitoring devices include all of the following except the ____ dosimeter.
A)film badge
B)thermoluminescent
C)scintillation
D)OSL
Q2) An alpha particle contains
A)two protons and two neutrons.
B)two protons and two electrons.
C)two electrons and two neutrons.
D)one proton and two neutrons.
Q3) The sum of the weighted equivalent doses for all irradiated tissues and organs is the A)quality factor.
B)effective dose.
C)equivalent dose.
D)integral dose.
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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel
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Sample Questions
Q1) A threshold dose will likely yield the biologic effect.
A)compound filter
B)added
C)Thoraeus filter
D)trough filter
E)beryllium
F)aluminum
G)HVL
H)keV
I)1.5 mm aluminum minimum filtration
J)2.5 mm Al
Q2) For an individual to reduce exposure by a factor of 25, the distance between the individual and source of ionizing radiation should
A)increase by a factor of 5.
B)decrease by a factor of 4.
C)increase by a factor of 3.
D)decrease by a factor of 5.
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11
Chapter 10: Filtration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When comparing two x-ray beams, one at 60 kVp and another at 85 kVp,
A)adding aluminum to the 60 kVp beam greatly reduces the skin dose to the patient.
B)the 85 kVp beam will offer a lower entrance skin exposure.
C)adding 0.5 mm of aluminum to the 85 kVp beam will require no additional mAs in order to maintain beam intensity.
D)all of the above
Q2) Beam filtration does what to patient dose?
A)It has no effect on patient dose.
B)It increases patient dose.
C)It decreases patient dose.
D)It increases patient dose by the square of the filter thickness.
Q3) Which term best describes the filtration that occurs as the primary beam passes through the glass window of the x-ray tube?
A)total
B)inherent
C)added
D)scatter
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12
Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acceptable radiograph was taken using 20 mAs at 70 kVp at a distance of 40 inches.A second radiograph is requested at 72 inches.What mAs should be used to produce this radiograph with a 72-inch distance?
Q2) A radiographer takes an initial radiograph using the technical factors of 50 mA at 0.46 sec.There is involuntary motion on the radiograph, but the radiographer wants to maintain radiographic film density.If the exposure time is reduced to 0.115 sec, what is the new mA?
Q3) A radiograph is taken at 400 mA, 55 ms, 95 kVp.A second image could be taken to improve contrast at
A)400 mA, 0.110 sec, 80 kVp.
B)400 mA, 0.055 sec, 110 kVp.
C)500 mA, 4 ms, 95 kVp.
D)600 mA, 0.083 sec, 92 kVp.
Q4) Which of the following sets of exposure factors would best control involuntary motion?
A)100 mA, 0.09 sec
B)300 mA, 30 ms
C)500 mA, 18 ms
D)200 mA, 0.045 sec
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a photon interacts with matter and scatters, the photon
A)no longer exists.
B)exists with greater energy.
C)exists with less energy.
D)is totally absorbed.
Q2) Unwanted radiographic image densities caused predominantly by scattered photons is called
A)base fog.
B)radiation fog.
C)chemical fog.
D)photoelectric fog.
Q3) Which of the following interactions with matter results in a radiograph with a loss of radiographic image contrast?
A)Compton scattering
B)coherent scatter
C)photoelectric interactions
D)photodisintegration
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Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiographic examination of the small bowel for a 25-cm abdomen was performed doing a 15-min PA; 30-min PA; 60-min PA; and 90-min PA radiograph.What is the total approximate entrance skin exposure if each radiograph was produced at 100 kVp, 25 mA, and 40 in (100 cm)? According to calculations, 100 kVp = 5.6 mR/mA.
Q2) What is the approximate entrance skin exposure for a 20-cm AP pelvis produced at 80 kVp, 20 mA, and a SID of 40 in (100 cm), if 70 kVp = 2.5 mR/mA?
Q3) When the primary-beam field size ____, the patient exposure ____.
A)increases; decreases
B)decreases; decreases
C)decreases; increases
D)increases; increases
Q4) In an effort to reduce dose, the recommended SID for routine radiography is
A)36-38 inches.
B)40-42 inches.
C)44-48 inches.
D)56 inches.
Q5) What is the approximate entrance skin exposure in mR for the fluoroscopic examination of the stomach performed for 4.5 minutes at 110 kVp at 1.7 R/min?
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Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The art of controlling the image in space involves correct A)part positioning.
B)central ray angle.
C)image placement.
D)all of the above
Q2) The brightness of light intensity is expressed in A)Roentgens.
B)Lamberts.
C)Seiverts.
D)Teslea.
Q3) In the human eye, the area of sharpest vision is located
A)in the cornea.
B)in the iris.
C)at the fovea centralis.
D)through the pupil.
Q4) The ____ nerve transmits visual neurological information to the brain.
A)trigeminal
B)sciatic
C)auditory
D)optic
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Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scattered photons will
A)impair image quality.
B)add density to image receptor exposure.
C)not be considered part of the useful beam.
D)all of the above
Q2) A key factor that affects the amount of scatter produced is A)kilovoltage.
B)milliamperage.
C)time.
D)anode composition.
Q3) Scattered photons from Compton interactions are of no use in demonstrating radiographic structures of interest.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The volume of the irradiated tissue increases as A)field size and patient thickness increase.
B)patient density increases.
C)patient orientation to the beam changes.
D)tissue composition increases.
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary source of radiation exposure for occupational personnel is due to A)Compton scatter.
B)classical scatter
C)photoelectric effect.
D)coherent scatter.
Q2) Clinically speaking from a diagnostic viewpoint, the only useful radiation exposure is that radiation
A)absorbed in the patient.
B)produced from Compton interactions.
C)detected by the receptor.
D)intercepted by the radiographic grid.
Q3) With a patient in the supine position, the anatomical structure that would demonstrate the greatest subject detail would be the A)nasal bones.
B)sternum.
C)vertebral pedicles.
D)spinous processes.
Q4) The incident beam is significantly altered as it passes through the patient.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition of _______ presents a characteristic "ground-glass" appearance radiographically and is considered a/an ________ condition.
A)multiple myeloma; destructive
B)bronchiectasis; additive
C)ascites; additive
D)cirrhosis; destructive
Q2) Which of the following pathologies is not considered an additive condition?
A)osteoporosis
B)calcified stones
C)miliary tuberculosis
D)cardiomegaly
Q3) Which pathologic condition involves a tumor arising in the bone and cartilage, adding to subject density?
A)osteomyelitis
B)osteoarthritis
C)sarcoma
D)osteochondroma
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19
Chapter 18: The Grid
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Q1) A Potter-Bucky diaphragm must move the grid in a direction that is ____ to the direction of the grid lines.
A)perpendicular
B)parallel
C)at a 45° angle
D)at a 37° angle
Q2) The atomic interaction that produces scatter radiation is
A)Bremsstrahlung.
B)photoelectric.
C)Compton.
D)photodisintegration.
Q3) As a general rule, a radiographic grid is employed
A)for procedures below 60 kVp.
B)for part thicknesses above 10 cm.
C)for pediatric studies to improve contrast.
D)in order to improve positioning latitude.
Q4) What is the frequency of a grid with lead strips that are 33 micrometers thick and interspace material that is 310 micrometers thick?
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Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Q1) Emulsion is composed of gelatin and
A)silver halide crystals.
B)silver salts.
C)photosensitive crystals.
D)all of the above
Q2) sensitive to red light wavelengths
A)Gurney-Mott theory
B)sensitivity speck
C)film base
D)supercoat
E)latent image
F)panchromatic film
G)duplicating film
H)orthochromatic film
I)manifest image
J)30-60%
K)halation theory
L)68 95%
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Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Q1) The usual clearing time is
A)1 to 5 sec.
B)15 to 20 sec.
C)30 to 60 sec.
D)2 min.
Q2) The pass box is used to pass__________ to and from the darkroom.
A)chemicals.
B)contrast media.
C)film cassettes
D)replenisher
Q3) Which reducing agent works only in areas of light exposure?
A)phenidone
B)hydroquinone
C)sodium carbonate
D)potassium bromide
Q4) As the developer is in its final stages of oxidation, its color will change to A)sky blue.
B)lemon yellow.
C)mossy green.
D)rusty red.
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Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Q1) The difference between adjacent densities on a radiograph is the A)resolution.
B)speed.
C)definition.
D)contrast.
Q2) A sensitometer is excellent for monitoring which one of the following?
A)film density
B)film processors
C)film/screen combinations
D)none of the above
Q3) As crystal size increases, resolution
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)increases exponentially.
D)is unaffected
Q4) The ability of film to stop light is termed A)incidence.
B)lucency.
C)opacity.
D)neutrality.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Q1) reference value for system speeds
A)CaWO<sub>4</sub>
B)gadolinium oxysulfide:terbium activated
C)fluorescence
D)conversion efficiency
E)RS 100
F)MTF
G)artifact
H)phosphorescence
I)increases quantum mottle
J)line spread function
K)RS 400
L)lp/mm
Q2) The protective layer of an intensifying screen is easily damaged by A)excess light.
B)fingernails.
C)single-emulsion film.
D)screen cleaners.
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Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Q1) When using CR technology, it is important to remember that A)the IP is extrasensitive to exposure after the initial x-ray exposure.
B)the IP will lose about 25% of its signal in 8 hours if not processed.
C)the IP is very sensitive to scatter, making grids very important.
D)all of the above
Q2) The window level controls
A)image density.
B)image contrast.
C)speed.
D)brightness.
Q3) The window width controls A)image density.
B)image contrast. C)speed.
D)depth.
Q4) A matrix of size 2048x1536 would have _______ pixels.
A)512
B)3584
C)3,145,728
D)none of the above
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Q1) Gray scale bit depth determines
A)pixel size
B)pixel pitch
C)the number of gray shades
D)image resolution
Q2) A/An ____ uses a laser beam that scans in a raster pattern across the film as it is transported through the digitizer.
A)CCD digitizer
B)laser film digitizer
C)CCD linear array
D)analog-to-digital converter
Q3) Laser printers have which of the following components?
A)laser source
B)collimator lens
C)beam modulator
D)all of the above
Q4) What is the anticipated image file size in kilobytes for a computed radiography digital image comprised of a 512 x 512 matrix with a 12-bit depth?
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Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Q1) Upon analysis of a chest radiograph taken on a female patient, the radiographer notices that there is an uneven radiographic density over the lung bases.One lung base is significantly underexposed compared to the other.In an effort to determine the possible cause(s), a logical strategy to take would be to
A)inspect the AEC detectors and retake the image.
B)retake the image on expiration.
C)ask the patient if she has had a previous breast surgery.
D)make a note for the radiologist that you cannot explain the opacification, as the patient is asymptomatic.
Q2) Factors that affect the shape of the acceptance limit curve of medical images include all of the following EXCEPT
A)equipment condition.
B)department quality standards.
C)department location.
D)positioning abilities of the radiographer.
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Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) The 15% rule changes
A)density.
B)contrast.
C)distortion.
D)both a and b
Q2) Image brightness on an image display monitor is controlled by
A)window level.
B)window width.
C)EI number.
D)S number.
Q3) Which rule is used as a guide to maintain the same density when kVp changes?
A)doubling rule
B)15% rule
C)inverse square rule
D)density maintenance law
Q4) Which statement is FALSE?
A)As mAs increases, exposure increases.
B)As mAs decreases, density decreases.
C)As mAs increases, density increases.
D)As mAs decreases, exposure increases.
28
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Chapter 27: Contrast
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Q1) The total amount of irradiated material is a function of
A)tissue thickness and body position.
B)body part thickness and area of exposure.
C)field size and anode angle.
D)body position and focal spot size.
Q2) A radiograph that demonstrates considerable differences between densities is called
A)long scale.
B)low contrast.
C)high contrast.
D)all of the above
Q3) Image receptor contrast is expressed as the ____ of the D log E curve.
A)slope
B)toe
C)shoulder
D)straight line
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29
Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Q1) The best method for controlling motion when the patient is unable to cooperate is to A)increase kVp.
B)maintain mAs, while decreasing time.
C)maintain mAs, while decreasing mA.
D)decrease kVp.
Q2) Poor resolution is caused by unacceptable levels of A)density.
B)umbra.
C)penumbra.
D)contrast.
Q3) Resolution is improved when A)OID increases.
B)OID decreases.
C)SID decreases.
D)the x-ray tube is angled
Q4) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 1 in.
Q5) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in.distance, and OID of 2 in.
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Chapter 29: Distortion
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Q1) Which of the following occurs when the tube or the image receptor is not properly aligned?
A)elongation
B)magnification
C)foreshortening
D)minification
Q2) Performing a routine chest radiograph in the anterior-posterior (AP) projection will
A)decrease heart size on the image.
B)demonstrate higher resolution of the anterior ribs.
C)produce improved resolution of the thoracic spine.
D)decrease breast exposure.
Q3) If an object is measured as 4 in.in diameter on the image and 4 in.from the film, what is the actual size of the object if the SID is 40 in.?
Q4) Which one of the following occurs when the part is improperly aligned?
A)elongation
B)magnification
C)foreshortening
D)minification
Q5) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in.and the OID is 5 in.
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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Q1) residual feces in bowel
A)improper patient preparation
B)an S# of 50
C)film-screen contact problem
D)consistently low contrast images
E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette
F)presence of grid lines on image
G)white specks on final images
H)hypothesis
Q2) Images that are grossly overexposed
A)will have recorded detail.
B)will have a low S#.
C)will possess poor visibility of detail.
D)will have a large EI value.
Q3) All of the following are related EXCEPT
A)exposure timer error.
B)technical factor problem.
C)equipment malfunction problem.
D)procedural factor problem.
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Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distance indicators are checked with a A)yardstick.
B)densitometer.
C)laser.
D)tape measure.
Q2) A generator must be recalibrated when the kVp drifts beyond ____ kVp of the labeled setting.
A)2
B)5
C)10
D)12
Q3) Computerized storage and transmission systems for digitized images of all types are called A)DSR.
B)MRI.
C)CT. D)PACS.
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Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Q1) Fixed kVp systems
A)decrease patient dose.
B)reduce x-ray tube wear.
C)decrease time settings.
D)all of the above
Q2) developed a scientific approach to exposure techniques
A)calipers
B)Arthur Fuchs
C)APR
D)variable kVp system
E)fixed kVp system
F)AEC
G)Ed C. Jerman
H)phantom
I)fixed kVp systems
J)120 kVp
K)15% rule
L)2 kVp rule
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34
Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the event that the mAs needed for a small anatomical structure is very small, in order to ensure the AEC terminates the exposure correctly,
A)the kVp should be increased.
B)the mA should be decreased.
C)all three detectors should activated.
D)the large focal spot should be used.
Q2) The single function of an AEC is to eliminate the need to set
A)kVp.
B)mA.
C)time.
D)all of the above
Q3) AP abdomen radiograph
A)phototiming
B)minimum response time
C)backup mAs
D)underexposed image
E)overexposed image
F)density controls
G)all three detectors
H)center detector only
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Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Q1) A radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at a 40 in.distance.Calculate the new distance if 25 mAs is used.
Q2) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the variable kVp theory.The part measuring 10 cm and 65 kVp was used.To maintain exposure, what kVp should be used if the part measures 14 cm?
Q3) affects radiographic contrast with a direct relationship
A)decreased density
B)focal spot size
C)longer scale of contrast
D)grid ratio
E)receptor speed
F)increased mAs by 2x
G)additive pathology
H)higher amount of contrast
I)destructive pathology
J)density-distance relationship
Q4) A radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at a 40 in.distance.Calculate the new mAs at a 72 in.distance.
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36
Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) During mobile radiography, it is the radiographer's responsibility to request that ____ leave the immediate area prior to exposure.
A)physicians
B)family members
C)health professionals
D)all of the above
Q2) Proper tube-grid alignment is important during ____ radiography.
A)mobile
B)stationary
C)portable
D)all of the above
Q3) For mobile radiography, radiographic grids should have a
A)high ratio and low frequency.
B)low ratio and low frequency.
C)cross-hatch design.
D)low ratio and high frequency.
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Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The photocathode is composed of ____ metals.
A)lead-based
B)photoabsorptive
C)photoemissive
D)electrostatic
Q2) a function of flux and image minification
A)input phosphor
B)1-3 R/min
C)10 R/mn
D)fluoroscopic carriage
E)brightness gain
F)primary barrier
G)output phosphor
H)CsI
I)photocathode
J)ZnS-CdS:Ag
K)vignetting
L)TFT resolution
Q3) What is the minification gain for an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 10 in.and an output diameter of 2 in.?
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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Q1) should not exceed the section thickness
A)zonogram
B)panoramic tomography
C)40 degrees
D)focal plane
E)exposure amplitude
F)10 degrees or more
G)section interval
H)maximum blur
Q2) All of the following are true of digital tomosynthesis EXCEPT:
A)Multiple views are taken of the anatomy.
B)Flat panel detectors are essential to this technology.
C)The images taken are dynamic and real-time.
D)The software to reconstruct the images is different from the algorithms of CT.
Q3) Digital tomosynthesis has its greatest application currently with _________ studies.
A)chest
B)mammographic
C)renal
D)liver
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Chapter 38: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prominent heel effect in mammography is due to a A)short SID.
B)short OID.
C)long SOD.
D)long OID.
Q2) The advantage of using molybdenum for the anode material in mammography tubes is
A)a decreased number of low-energy photons.
B)low radiographic contrast.
C)production of specific x-ray energies.
D)none of the above
Q3) Which organization offers a voluntary accreditation program for mammography?
A)JRCERT
B)ACR
C)NRC
D)ASRT
Q4) Magnification projections of the breast provide
A)increased resolution.
B)a reduction in scatter radiation.
C)improved visibility of detail.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) bone-forming cells that can go dormant when not needed
A)fan-beam DXA
B)osteopenia
C)WHO
D)SPA
E)osteoblasts
F)osteoporosis
G)pencil-beam DXA
H)osteoclasts
I)NEXT
J)small stature
Q2) All of the following are true of the bone remodeling process EXCEPT:
A)It is a balanced activity between the action of osteocytes and chondrocytes.
B)It is influenced by hormones.
C)Osteoclast activity in excess can result in a loss of bone mass.
D)Osteoblast activity equals osteoclast activity in a healthy individual.
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heat-loading capacity of an x-ray tube depends on
A)focal spot size.
B)anode angle.
C)generator configuration.
D)all of the above
Q2) How many heat units are generated by a series of 10 exposures using 75 kVp, 300 mA, 0.15 sec.on a high frequency unit?
Q3) The amount of heat an anode can tolerate during a fluoroscopic exposure is known as ____ loading ability.
A)short-term
B)continuous-heat
C)pulsed fluoro
D)intermittent fluoro
Q4) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 70 kVp, 300 mA, 0.20 sec.on a three-phase, 6-pulse unit?
Q5) How many heat units are generated by a series of 30 exposures using 70 kVp, 200 mA, 250 ms.on a single-phase unit?
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CT radiographer usually varies the ____ to control the primary beam.
A)mA
B)time
C)kVp
D)distance
Q2) CT image data is acquired in the
A)coronal plane and reconstructed in the axial plane .
B)transverse plane and reconstructed in any plane.
C)sagittal plane .
D)axial plane and reconstructed in the coronal plane.
Q3) To achieve coronal or sagittal sections,
A)the gantry is repositioned.
B)the patient is repositioned.
C)reconfiguration software is implemented.
D)none of the above
Q4) With MSCT scanners, resolution is primarily determined by A) prepatient collimation.
B) dose.
C) collimation at the detector.
D) gantry rotation speed.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) MRI has been achieved with ____ magnets.
A)resistive
B)permanent
C)superconductive
D)all of the above
Q2) The size of the tissue voxel determines
A)brightness.
B)field strength.
C)section thickness.
D)spatial resolution.
Q3) Each of the following is an example of an RF pulse sequence EXCEPT A)stationary.
B)spin-echo.
C)gradient.
D)inversion recovery.
Q4) In order to create a more homogenous magnetic field in MR, ______ is required.
A)a radio frequency
B)a k-space coil
C)an autotransformer
D)shimming
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Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nuclear stability of an element is principally determined by the A)number of valence electrons.
B)neutron to proton ratio.
C)neucleon to electron ratio.
D)atomic number.
Q2) The isotope of choice for the measurement of myocardial perfusion is
A)Tc-99m.
B)Ga-67.
C)Tl-201.
D)F-18.
Q3) All of the following are true of a radionuclide effective half-life EXCEPT:
A)It takes into account the relationship between physical and biologic half-lives.
B)It is the product of the physical and biologic half-lives divided by the sum of the physical and biologic half-lives.
C)It is always shorter than either the physical half-life or biologic half-life.
D)It is of little importance as a consideration of radionuclides used for medical diagnosis.
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Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The very first successful use of radiation energy to treat and cure a disease process was with a case of A)acne.
B)psoriasis.
C)retinoblastoma.
D)melanoma.
Q2) Each of the following are essential to the calculation of irradiated tissue volume EXCEPT
A)dimensional target volume (DTV).
B)clinical target volume (CTV).
C)planning target volume (PTV).
D)gross target volume (GTV).
Q3) Radiotherapy treatments
A)are treated as prescriptions.
B)require a physician's order.
C)start with a consultation.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The piezoelectric crystal has the potential to convert 1.sound energy to electrical energy
2)sound energy to heat energy
3)electrical energy to sound energy
4)electrical energy to electromagnetic energy
5)sound energy to electromagnetic energy
A)1 and 5 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)4 and 5 only
Q2) Sound energy is a type of _______ energy.
A)electromagnetic
B)mechanical
C)compression
D)potential
Q3) A 3 MHz transducer would produce an ultrasound beam with a wavelength of
A)1.54 / 3 MHz.
B)5.13 x 10<sup> -7</sup>.
C)both a and b
D)none of the above
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