Radiologic Science Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Radiologic Science is the study of the principles and practices involved in medical imaging and the use of radiation to diagnose and treat diseases. This course covers foundational concepts in anatomy, physiology, and pathology as they relate to imaging, along with the physics of radiation, radiographic techniques, and safety protocols. Emphasis is placed on the operation of imaging equipment, image quality control, radiation protection for patients and staff, and the ethical and legal aspects of radiologic practice. Students gain practical skills and theoretical knowledge needed for roles in diagnostic radiology, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and other specialized imaging modalities.
Recommended Textbook
Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy 3rd Edition by Charles M. Washington
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Chapter 1: Cancer: An Overview
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Q1) Factors that may exclude a patient from having surgery include all of the following except:
A) preexisting medical conditions
B) tumor location
C) patient preference
D) classification
Answer: D
Q2) Pancreatic cancer may be treated using which technique?
A) interluminal
B) intervascular
C) intracavitary
D) intraoperative
Answer: D
Q3) As treatments reduce the number of tumor cells,the tumor's growth rate increases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Ethics and Legal Considerations of Cancer Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A civil lawsuit is punishable by:
A) loss of property
B) loss of liberty
C) loss of life
D) all of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Hospice is a form of active euthanasia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Fidelity is about being faithful or loyal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The ARRT Code of Ethics is the mandatory minimum acceptable standards of professional conduct.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Principles of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are organelles except:
A) mitochondria
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) ribosomes
D) leukosomes
Answer: D
Q2) When was the microscope introduced?
A) sixteenth century
B) seventeenth century
C) eighteenth century
D) none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) The hallmark of reversible cell damage is cellular swelling.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Overview of Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) SLD repair increases with increasing LET.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What does the term interphase death mean?
A) Cell dies prior to entering interphase.
B) Cell dies prior to leaving interphase.
C) Cell dies between mitotic phases.
D) The entire organism dies.
Q3) Mitosis occurs in germ cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A whole body radiation dose given in a period of seconds to minutes produces a clinical pattern called what?
A) delayed effects
B) mortality rates
C) acute radiation syndromes
D) clinical body dose
Q5) Tumors that have a PO<sub>2</sub> less than 10 mm Hg have a poor prognosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Detection and Diagnosis
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Q1) In the TNM staging system,the "T" indicates:
A) metastases
B) nodal status
C) primary tumor
D) grade of the tumor
Q2) Which of the following are part of the medical record?
I.lab results
II.medical history
III.simulation and treatment related images
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I,II,and III
Q3) A subjective indication of a disease or a change in condition as perceived by the patient is a ________.
A) sign
B) symptom
C) syndrome
D) screening
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Medical Imaging
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Q1) Portal imaging on the therapy machine may use which of the following screens?
A) intensifying screens
B) lead
C) copper
D) all of the above
Q2) The quantity of photons in an x-ray beam is directly proportional to:
A) kVp
B) anode temperature rating
C) tube current
D) filtration
Q3) The emulsion layer of radiographic film contains:
A) tungsten
B) silver halide
C) antimony trisulfide
D) thorium
Q4) The major components of an imaging system on a conventional radiation therapy simulator are an x-ray tube,a fluoroscope,and a CT scanner.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Treatment Delivery Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Depth of maximum dose for a 6 MV machine is how far below the skin surface?
A) 0.5 cm
B) 1.5 cm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 5 cm
Q2) Which of the following is not found inside the head of a linear accelerator?
A) ion chambers
B) target
C) accelerator structure
D) bending magnet
E) scattering foil
Q3) When using multileaf collimation,which concerns need to be evaluated?
A) penumbra between the leaves and the transmission of the leaves
B) movement of MLCs during the treatment give variation in dose that need to be evaluated along with penumbra between the leaves
C) movement of MLCs during treatment and interleaf transmission leakage
D) penumbra at the end of the leaves and interleaf transmission leakage
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Chapter 8: Treatment Procedures
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Q1) In opposing field techniques specifically designed for treatment of breast might be:
A) AP/PA arrangement
B) tangential fields
C) box technique
D) right and left laterals
Q2) Wedge systems used include which of the following?
I.global wedge
II.universal
III.virtual
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I,II,and III
Q3) Methods of matching abutting fields include all of the following except:
A) penumbra method
B) gaps
C) feathering
D) use of nondivergent beam edges
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10
Chapter 9: Radiation Therapy Education
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Q1) Why are communication and education necessary to establish a positive relationship with the patient and/or other health care providers?
A) verifies consent
B) ensures accurate explanation of the procedure
C) provides an opportunity for questions
D) all of the above
Q2) Federal minimum standards currently exist that mandate the minimum education and credentialing standards for individuals operating radiation producing equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Only the radiation oncology nurse or patient educator is responsible for the education of cancer patients regarding their treatments.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Infection Control in Radiation Oncology
Facilities
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Q1) One way to screen for hepatitis B is to use Mantoux tuberculin skin test.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most health care workers take advantage of free or low-cost vaccinations offered by employers for influenza.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At the turn of the century,tuberculosis was the leading cause of death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most important way to prevent the spread of infection is:
A) handwashing
B) wearing gloves
C) using a gown
D) using chemical disinfectants
Q5) The person to whom the infectious agent is passed is:
A) fomite
B) a host
C) a pathogenic
D) an iatrogenic
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Chapter 11: Patient Assessment
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Q1) The dynamic process directed toward the goal of enabling persons to function at their maximum level within the limitations of their disease or disability in terms of physical,mental,emotional,social,and economic potential is:
A) rehabilitation
B) coping strategy
C) reflecting
D) therapeutic relationship
Q2) Assessment of the patient allows health care providers to do all except:
A) Determine the nature of the problem.
B) Select an intervention for that problem.
C) Find a cure for their disease.
D) Evaluate the effectiveness of the intervention.
Q3) The affective responses that occur most commonly among cancer patients are:
A) anxiety and depression
B) anxiety and coping strategies
C) depression and coping
Q4) Quality of life is how long someone has to live.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Pharmacology and Drug Administration
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Q1) Which of the following are included in the "six rights" of drug safety?
I.Identify the right patient
II.Identify the right medication and right dose
III.Identify the right time
IV.Identify the route
A) I,II,and III
B) I,III,and IV
C) II,III,and IV
D) I,II,III,and IV
Q2) In which part of the body is barium sulfate is used as a contrast agent?
A) gastrointestinal tract
B) bronchography
C) myelography
D) cardiovascular
Q3) Select potential reasons why a patient may be unable to take oral preparations of a drug.
A) Patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
B) Patient has difficulty in swallowing.
C) Patient refuses to swallow medication.
D) all of the above
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Chapter 13: Applied Mathematics Review
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a random error?
A) inaccuracies in the laser positioning system
B) patient movement
C) human error
D) difference in cushioning capacity of couch materials between simulator and treatment table
Q2) Convert 2 Gy into rad.
A) 2 rad
B) 20 rad
C) 200 rad
D) 2000 rad
Q3) Solve for x in the equation 4x - 4 = 12.
A) 6
B) ± 6
C) 4
D) ± 4
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Introduction to Radiation Therapy Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common photon interaction that occurs in the energy range used in radiation therapy is:
A) photoelectric
B) Compton
C) photodisintegration
D) Thomson
Q2) A beta minus particle is the same as a helium atom.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The thickness of some added material required to reduce beam intensity to half its original value is called the:
A) half-life
B) inverse square factor
C) half-value layer
D) intensity coefficient
Q4) Which statement is not true?
A) The nucleus of the atom consists of protons and neutrons.
B) Protons and photons are collectively called nucleons.
C) Protons are positively charged particles.
D) Neutrons are neutral with no electric charge.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Aspects of Brachytherapy
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Q1) Regarding question 20,why is brachytherapy the treatment of choice?
A) It has a high energy.
B) It is more effective than stereotactic and proton therapy procedures.
C) Vision is spared due to lack of radiation-induced changes .
D) It is less expensive for the patient.
Q2) Decay constant is expressed as:
A) time it takes for activity to decay to half its original value
B) total number of atoms that decay per unit time
C) average lifetime for the decay of radioactive atoms
D) total number of atoms that decay
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of HDR over LDR?
A) HDR is noninvasive.
B) HDR dosimetry is simpler.
C) Treatment time is decreased from 72 hours to 24 hours.
D) HDR can be given on an outpatient basis.
Q4) Which of the following has the shortest half-life?
A) gold 198 - 2.7 days
B) iodine 125 - 59.4 days
C) cesium 137 - 30 years
D) cobalt 60 - 5.27 years
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Special Procedures
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Q1) For the ultrasound unit to know where it is in reference to the linear accelerator,it must be ________________ with the treatment delivery unit.
A) localized
B) attenuated
C) B-moded
D) registered
Q2) Respiratory motion can be managed by: I.rapid CT scanning
II.4DCT
III.two-breath-hold CT
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I and III
D) I,II,and III
Q3) IGRT is useful because it can: I.result in a more focused treatment
II.account for interfraction and intrafraction motion
III.compare in-room image set with treatment planning image set
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I and III
D) I,II,and III
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Chapter 17: Intensity-Modulated Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some institutions use forward IMRT treatment planning frequently for radiation therapy treatments of the:
A) lung
B) liver
C) prostate
D) colon
Q2) The term fluence pattern refers to:
A) the shoulder of dose-response curve use for treatment planning purposes
B) intensity pattern of the IMRT beam
C) intensity patterns of 3D treatment planning
D) intensity patterns of 3D treatment plans
Q3) Biologic imaging uses which of the following technologies?
A) PET scans
B) PET scans using fluorodeoxyglucose
C) CT scan with and without contrast
D) MRI with postcontrast enhancement
Q4) Intensity-Modulated Radiation Therapy (IMRT)can only be used with multileaf collimators (MLCs).
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Radiation Safety and Protection
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Q1) X-rays have a quality factor of what?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
Q2) A periodic leak test is performed on sealed sources to:
A) detect any leaks in the encapsulated container
B) ensure that personnel are working in a radiation-safe environment
C) neither a nor b
D) both a and b
Q3) Which particles can be electrons?
A) alpha particles
B) beta particles
C) x-rays
D) gamma-rays
Q4) Slow neutrons have a QF of what?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
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Chapter 19: Quality Improvement in Radiation Oncology
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Q1) A QI plan has a(n)_____________ that verifies that all aspects of the radiation oncology process meet national,state,institutional,and/or departmental quality standards and an mechanism to institute change if necessary:
A) audit mechanism
B) oversight committee
C) action plan
D) support staff
Q2) TJC's indicator measurement system (IM system)focuses primarily on:
A) acute inpatient care
B) quality indicators
C) electronic data
D) peer review
Q3) Peer review plays a part in several QA programs in radiation oncology.Select the programs listed below that incorporate peer review as part of QA.
A) weekly chart review
B) weekly film review
C) current patient case review
D) new patient planning conference
E) all of the above
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Surface and Sectional Anatomy
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Q1) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 5 and 6
D) none of the above
Q2) The atlas contains the dens,a bony process about which the head pivots.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The vertebral level that is associated with the spine of the scapula is the:
A) third thoracic vertebra
B) seventh cervical vertebra
C) seventh thoracic vertebra
D) second lumbar vertebra
Q4) The location of any organ in the abdomen and pelvis can vary with respiration,anatomic position,and level of fullness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) There are three pairs of floating ribs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Simulator Design
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Q1) The matrix size is determined by the number of:
A) voxels
B) Hounsfield units
C) detectors on the scanner
D) pixels
Q2) The CT number for dense bone is:
A) -1000
B) -100
C) 0
D) 1000
Q3) To reduce magnification during fluoroscopy,the image intensifier should be:
A) moved as close to the patient as possible
B) moved as far as possible from the patient
C) rotated in the direction of the central ray
D) centered
Q4) CT numbers are also known as:
A) Hounsfield units
B) Godfrey units
C) attenuation coefficient units
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Chapter 22: Conventional Fluoroscopy-Basedsimulation Procedures
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Q1) The human body is usually imaged in the following body planes: I.coronal
II.sagittal
III.transverse
IV.proximal
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) III and IV
D) I,II,and III
Q2) Most treatment planning on the fluoroscopy-based simulator is divided into two types of procedures: SAD and SSD setups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Orthogonal images are two images taken at right angles to one another and are usually included as part of the fluoroscopy-based simulation procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Computed Tomography Simulation
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Q1) Of the four desired qualities of a CT image,which refers to the ability to see shades of gray in tissue?
A) spatial resolution
B) image contrast
C) low noise
D) low dose
Q2) What is a maximum intensity projection,or MIP?
A) measurement of table translation
B) result of noise on an image
C) relationship between the matrix size and the pixel size on an image
D) fused scan that shows the maximum amount of tumor movement during the respiratory cycle
Q3) Window level is the range of numbers displayed or the contrast on a CT image.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The window width on a CT image is:
A) the range of numbers displayed on a CT image
B) the number of columns and rows of pixels demonstrated on an image
C) an unwanted image characteristic
D) the central Hounsfield unit of all the CT numbers displayed on an image
25
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Chapter 24: Photon Dosimetry Concepts and Calculations
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Q1) Find the PDD at 10 cm of a 6-MV beam of radiation that has a 5 x 5 cm treatment field.
A) 68.0 %
B) 64.1 %
C) 65.1 %
D) 62.8 %
Q2) As the depth increases,the PDD: A) increases B) decreases C) remains the same D) there is no effect
Q3) What is the patient separation if depth from the AP is 9 cm,and depth from PA is 11 cm?
A) 18 cm
B) 19 cm
C) 20 cm
D) 21 cm
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Chapter 25: Photon Dose Distributions
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Q1) Which of the following factors can be corrected to adjust the isodose lines of beams with oblique incidences?
I.PDD
II.TAR
III.TMR
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) I,II,and III
Q2) What is(are)spatial representation(s)of the magnitude of the dose produced by a source of radiation?
A) treatment planning
B) dose distributions
C) dose calculation matrix
D) dose-volume histogram (DVH)
Q3) What is the most common field arrangement used in radiation therapy?
A) single field
B) parallel-opposed
C) four-field box
D) wedged-pair
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Chapter 26: Electron Beams in Radiation Therapy
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Q1) Which technique is most likely to result in photon contamination of the electron beam?
A) use of an electron gun
B) use of a bending magnet
C) use of a scattering foil
D) use of a scanning beam
Q2) What effect will an increase in the nominal energy of an electron beam have on the depth of the 80% isodose line?
A) increase
B) decrease
C) remain the same
D) dose dependence
Q3) According to the AAPM Task Group 25 report,what distance is considered an extended SSD for electron beams?
A) greater than 100 cm SSD
B) greater than 110 cm SSD
C) greater than 115 cm SSD
D) greater than 130 cm SSD
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Chapter 27: Electronic Charting,and Image Management
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Q1) ________ can be defined as an assembly of tasks performed to accomplish a goal.
A) Input methods
B) Workflow
C) Medical record
D) Decision making
Q2) What communication standards are shaped by a joint committee of the National Electronic Manufacturers Association (NEMA)and the American College of Radiology (ACR)?
A) data entry
B) HIPAA
C) DICOM
D) HL7
Q3) Which is information gathered during initial patient examinations?
I.chief complaint
II.history and physical examination
III.review of systems
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I only
D) I,II,and III
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Chapter 28: Bone,Cartilage and Soft Tissue Sarcomas
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Q1) All of the following are examples of primary bone tumors except:
A) malignant histiocytoma
B) rhabdomyosarcoma
C) osteosarcoma
D) multiple myeloma
Q2) The most common primary site that leads to bone metastasis is:
A) breast
B) prostate
C) kidney
D) lung
Q3) When used with radiation therapy,which of the following reduces the loss of function and improves overall control?
A) intralesional resection
B) radical resection
C) amputation
D) limb-sparing surgery
Q4) Most primary bone tumors are radioresistant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Lymphoreticular System Tumors
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Q1) The incidence of NHL is higher than that of HD.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What stage is a Hodgkin lymphoma that involves SCV lymph nodes and the spleen?
A) stage I
B) stage II
C) stage III
D) stage IV
Q3) What stage is a Hodgkin lymphoma with extralymphatic extension?
A) stage I
B) stage II
C) stage III
D) stage IV
Q4) What is the most common long-term side effect of total lymphoid irradiation?
A) skin erythema
B) dysphagia
C) secondary malignancy
D) developmental anomalies
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Chapter 30: Leukemia
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Q1) What is the most common type of pediatric leukemia?
A) ALL
B) AML
C) CLL
D) CML
Q2) Which of the following is not a symptom commonly associated with a diagnosis of leukemia?
A) fever
B) loss of appetite
C) dysphagia
D) weight loss
Q3) TBI can used as part of the treatment of patients with leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is also known as maintenance therapy?
A) remission induction
B) consolidation
C) prophylaxis of overt CNS disease
D) continuation therapy
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Chapter 31: Endocrine System Tumors
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Q1) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)-secreting tumors of the pituitary typically present with symptoms similar to cancer of which other endocrine gland?
A) parathyroid
B) adrenal
C) thyroid
D) pancreas
Q2) Which endocrine gland contains a medulla and a cortex?
A) pancreas
B) pituitary
C) thyroid
D) adrenal
Q3) The most common form of pituitary tumors is adenocarcinomas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pituitary gland is located within what portion of the sphenoid bone?
A) hypothalamus
B) cribiform plate
C) sphenoid sinus
D) sella turcica
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Chapter 32: Respiratory System Tumors
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Q1) What is the most commonly used diagnostic imaging tool used to detect lung cancers?
A) chest x-ray
B) CT
C) MR
D) PET
Q2) Treatment of superior vena cava syndrome requires an off cord oblique boost.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following types of lung cancer is also known as oat cell lung cancer?
A) small cell lung cancer
B) non-small cell lung cancer
C) mesothelioma
D) carcinoid tumors of the lung
Q4) Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related death in women.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Head and Neck Cancers
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common form of larynx cancer?
A) adenocarcinoma
B) basal cell
C) squamous cell
D) transitional cell
Q2) Most larynx cancers are discovered early.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is commonly referred to as the voice box?
A) vestibular folds
B) epiglottis
C) pharynx
D) larynx
Q4) What structure of the neck is also known as the glottis?
A) true vocal cords
B) false vocal cord
C) vestibular folds
D) nasal turbinates
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Central Nervous System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The entire brain is irradiated when treating a primary brain tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which portion of the brain is the site of intelligence and judgment?
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) brain stem
D) thalamus
Q3) Primary brain lesions are the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) From which cells to medulloblastomas arise?
A) primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)
B) primitive neuroectodermal cells
C) astrocytes
D) lymphocytes
Q5) T2 lesions are the most common stage of primary brain tumors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Digestive System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition is most closely associated to gastroesophageal reflux?
A) Barrett esophagus
B) Gardner syndrome
C) Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D) tenesmus
Q2) At what age should a person of average risk have his or her first screening colonoscopy?
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
Q3) What are the growths that arise from the mucosal lining and protrude into the lumen of the bowel?
A) adenomatous polyps
B) achalasia
C) hematochezia
D) tenesmus
Q4) The treatment volume for colon cancers typically includes pelvic lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Gynecological Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common histologic form of cervical cancer?
A) squamous cell
B) adenocarcinoma
C) epithelial
D) germ cell
Q2) Pap testing is a screening tool used to detect which cancer?
A) ovarian
B) cervical
C) vaginal
D) vulvar
Q3) Bolus may be used when treating which of the following cancers?
A) ovarian
B) cervical
C) vaginal
D) vulvar
Q4) What is the common name for the female external genitalia?
A) vulva
B) mons pubis
C) labia
D) perineum
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Male Reproductive and Genitourinary Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common form of bladder cancer?
A) adenocarcinoma
B) transitional cell carcinoma
C) squamous cell carcinoma
D) renal cell carcinoma
Q2) Which of the following is least likely to be used in the management of a patient with prostate cancer?
A) watchful waiting
B) hormone therapy
C) radiation therapy
D) chemotherapy
Q3) Bladder cancer is more common in men than in women.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cancer of which urinary organ is most common?
A) kidney
B) ureter
C) bladder
D) urethra
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Chapter 38: Breast Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) External beam radiotherapy for breast cancer irradiates the entire breast regardless of the tumor size.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 7-cm tumor in the upper outer quadrant with extension to the skin?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
Q3) What is the medial treatment border when the internal mammary lymph nodes are to be included in the tangential field?
A) midline
B) 1 cm beyond midline to the contralateral side
C) 3 cm beyond midline to the contralateral side
D) 3 cm beyond midline to the ispalateral side
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Chapter 39: Pediatric Solid Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children are most likely to develop which type of cancer?
A) retinoblastoma
B) primary brain
C) osteosarcoma
D) Hodgkin's disease (HD)
Q2) Children are most likely to develop which type of leukemia?
A) ALL
B) AML
C) CLL
D) CML
Q3) Secondary brain lesions are common in children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) This pediatric cancer is closely associated to nephroblastomatoses.
A) Ewing sarcoma
B) medulloblastoma
C) rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Wilms tumor
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Chapter 40: Skin Cancers and Melanoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) What form of skin cancer has the highest mortality rate?
A) basal cell carcinoma
B) squamous cell carcinoma
C) melanoma
D) Kaposi sarcoma
Q2) Which of the following is the correct order to the layers of the skin from deep to superficial?
A) stratum granulosum,stratum spinosum,stratum lucidum,stratum basale,stratum corneum
B) stratum corneum,stratum lucidum,stratum granulosum,stratum spinosum,stratum basale
C) stratum basale,stratum granulosum,stratum spinosum,stratum corneum,stratum lucidum
D) stratum basale,stratum spinosum,stratum granulosum,stratum lucidum,stratum corneum
Q3) Smoking is the leading cause of skin cancer.
A)True
B)False
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