Radiologic Science
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Radiologic Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental principles and applications of medical imaging technologies such as X-rays, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Students learn the physics behind image production, anatomy and physiology as visualized through various imaging modalities, patient care and safety, radiation protection, and the ethical and legal responsibilities of radiologic technologists. The course also covers image interpretation basics, quality assurance, and recent advancements in radiologic techniques, preparing students for further study or professional roles in diagnostic imaging.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The equivalent term for optical density in digital imaging is:
A) contrast.
B) noise.
C) brightness.
D) window level.
Answer: C
Q2) In screen-film radiography, which term is defined as the degree of blackening?
A) Optical density
B) Contrast
C) Recorded detail
D) Distortion
Answer: A
Q3) Radiographers who are educated as "radiologist extenders" are known as:
1)physician assistants (PAs).
2)radiologist assistants (RAs).
3)radiology practitioner assistants (RPAs).
A) 1 and 2
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 2 and 3
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Sample Questions
Q1) A special-design Ferlic filter would provide an even image density for which of the following projections?
1)AP thoracic spine
2)Lateral C7-T1 (swimmer's method)
3)Lateral hip (Danelius-Miller method)
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following projections will always require a compensating filter to demonstrate all of the anatomy on one image?
1)AP shoulder
2)Lateral hip
3)Lateral C7-T1
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The longest lungs will be found in which type of body habitus?
A) Sthenic
B) Asthenic
C) Hyposthenic
D) Hypersthenic
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following terms are used to describe x-ray "projections"?
1)AP oblique
2)Transthoracic
3)Lateromedial
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lateral projection of the forearm should clearly demonstrate which of the following?
1)Elbow joint
2)Radius and ulna
3)Proximal row of carpal bones
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) If the IR and wrist are placed flat on the table for the PA axial projection of the wrist (Stecher method), the central ray must be angled _____ degrees.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 15 to 20
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Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which position of the hand will place the humerus in external rotation?
A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Palm against the thigh
D) Back of the hand against the thigh
Q2) Which of the following projections are improved significantly with the use of a compensating filter?
1)AP shoulder
2)Lateral scapula
3)PA oblique (scapular Y)
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) For an AP projection of the shoulder, the central ray should be directed:
A) 15 degrees.
B) 30 degrees.
C) 15 to 30 degrees.
D) perpendicular to the IR.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medial and lateral oblique projections of the ankle require the leg and foot to be rotated how many degrees?
A) 15
B) 20
C) 45
D) 15 to 20
Q2) Where is the IR centered for an AP projection of the knee?
A) \(1 / 2\) inch above the patellar apex
B) 1 inch above the patellar apex
C) \(1 / 2\) inch below the patellar apex
D) 1 inch below the patellar apex
Q3) The superior surface of the foot is termed the _____ surface.
A) dorsal
B) plantar
C) anterior
D) superior
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the central-ray entrance point for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the acetabulum?
A) 2 inches superior to the ASIS
B) 2 inches inferior to the ASIS
C) 3 inches superior to the ASIS
D) 3 inches inferior to the ASIS
Q2) The ilia articulate with the sacrum posteriorly at the:
A) hip joint.
B) pubic symphysis.
C) sacroiliac joint.
D) lumbar-5 and sacral-1 area.
Q3) The central ray for an AP pelvis is directed perpendicular to the center of the IR. The central-ray entrance point will be about _____ inches _____ to the pubic symphysis.
A) 2; superior
B) 3; superior
C) 2; inferior
D) 3; inferior
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9
Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Sample Questions
Q1) The articulations between the articular processes of the vertebral arches are called the _____ joints.
A) costovertebral
B) costotransverse
C) intervertebral
D) zygapophyseal
Q2) Which plane is centered to the midline of the grid when positioning for an AP oblique sacroiliac joint?
A) Midcoronal plane
B) Midsagittal plane
C) Longitudinal plane 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS
D) Longitudinal plane 2 inches medial to the elevated ASIS
Q3) How is the neck positioned for the AP axial projection of the vertebral arch (pillars)?
A) With the occlusal plane perpendicular to the image receptor
B) With the occlusal plane parallel to the image receptor
C) In hyperextension
D) In hyperflexion
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the top of the IR positioned for an AP oblique projection of the ribs?
A) At the level of T1
B) 1 inch above the upper border of the shoulder
C) 1 \(1 / 2\) inches above the upper border of the shoulder
D) 2 inches above the upper border of the shoulder
Q2) What degree of x-ray tube angulation is required to demonstrate the sternum on a patient whose thorax measures 30 cm?
A) 12 degrees
B) 16 degrees
C) 19 degrees
D) 22 degrees
Q3) Where should the patient's hands be positioned for an upright lateral sternum?
A) Locked behind the back
B) Straight down at the side
C) Locked above the head
D) Back of the hands against the thighs
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Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommended SID for a supine AP chest radiograph?
A) 40 inches
B) 48 inches
C) 72 inches
D) 120 inches
Q2) Where should the top of the IR be positioned for an AP oblique projection of the lungs?
A) 1 \(1 / 2\) inches above the relaxed shoulders
B) 1 \(1 / 2\) inches above the jugular notch
C) 1 \(1 / 2\) to 2 inches above the vertebral prominens or 2 inches above the jugular notch
D) 1 \(1 / 2\) to 2 inches above the vertebral prominens or 5 inches above the jugular notch
Q3) For AP oblique projections of the chest, the side of interest is generally the side _____ the IR.
A) closer to B) farther from
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) What patient positions may be used for a long bone measurement?
1)Standing
2)Prone
3)Supine
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following is currently the examination method of choice for long bone measurements because of its accuracy and reduced dose?
A) Conventional radiography
B) Magnetic resonance imaging
C) Computed tomography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q3) Long bone measurement is most frequently used on the:
A) spine.
B) upper limbs.
C) lower limbs.
D) femora only.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast?
A) Conscious sedation
B) Sterile saline
C) Local anesthetic
D) General anesthetic
Q2) The radiography examination in which a contrast medium is introduced into a joint space and radiographs are made of the joint is called:
A) arthrosis.
B) arthrography.
C) arthrogenesis.
D) arthroendoscopy.
Q3) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
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14
Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level I trauma centers?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Angiography
Q2) The trauma radiographer must ensure other team members are protected from unnecessary radiation. Which of the following practices will accomplish this?
1)Lead aprons for all personnel who remain in the room during exposures
2)Short exposure times
3)Announcement of impending exposure to allow nonessential personnel to exit the room
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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15
Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The salivary glands produce how much saliva each day?
A) 0.25 L
B) 0.50 L
C) 1 L
D) 1.5 L
Q2) Where does the submandibular duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q3) How many pairs of salivary glands are in the mouth?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q4) Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are techniques used during radiographic examination of the pharyngolaryngeal structures except:
A) swallowing.
B) phonation.
C) sneezing.
D) breathing.
Q2) Which of the following lies in the anterior neck?
1)Thyroid gland
2)Parathyroid glands
3)Thymus gland
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) For the AP projection of the pharynx and larynx, the central ray should be directed perpendicular to the:
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) laryngeal prominence.
C) cricoid cartilage.
D) jugular notch.
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are clearly shown on a lateral abdomen projection performed with the patient in the dorsal decubitus position?
1)Prevertebral space
2)Air-fluid levels
3)Urinary bladder
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) A three-way abdominal series may be ordered to rule out all of the following except: A) infection.
B) tumor mass.
C) bowel obstruction.
D) free air.
Q3) The most commonly performed abdominal examination is referred to as a(n):
A) KUB.
B) EXU.
C) IVP.
D) IVC.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following planes is positioned to the center of the grid for the lateral projection of the stomach and duodenum?
A) Midcoronal plane
B) A coronal plane passing 2 inches posterior to the median coronal plane
C) A coronal plane passing 2 inches anterior to the median coronal plane
D) A plane passing midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen
Q2) The stomach wall is composed of how many layers?
A) One
B) Two
C) Four
D) Five
Q3) The PA oblique projection of the colon done in the LAO position clearly demonstrates the:
A) ascending colon.
B) descending colon.
C) R colic flexure.
D) transverse colon.
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long is the urethra in the female?
A) 1 \(1 / 2\) inch
B) 1 inches
C) 2 inches
D) 2 \(1 / 2\) inches
Q2) The cluster of blood capillaries contained within the capsule of a nephron is called the:
A) cortex.
B) medulla.
C) Henle's loop.
D) glomerulus.
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding positioning of the abdomen for a lateral projection of the urinary system?
A) The midcoronal plane is centered to the grid.
B) A coronal plane 1 inch anterior to the midcoronal plane is centered to the grid.
C) A coronal plane 2 inches anterior to the midcoronal plane is centered to the grid.
D) A coronal plane 2 inches posterior to the midcoronal plane is centered to the grid.
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition of an undescended testis is termed:
A) ectopic testicle.
B) cryptorchidism.
C) testicular torsion.
D) cryptoscrotalism.
Q2) Radiographic examinations of the male reproductive structures are rarely performed as a result of advances in:
A) computed tomography.
B) nuclear medicine.
C) sonography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
Q3) What is the most common type of testicular tumor?
A) Cryptorchidism
B) Prostate cancer
C) Seminoma
D) Dermoid
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21
Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The posterior half of the base of the skull is formed by which bone?
A) Temporal
B) Sphenoid
C) Occipital
D) Parietal
Q2) Several methods area available to perform the axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible to demonstrate the symphysis, body, or ramus. What is the central-ray angulation for all of these projections?
A) 15 degrees cephalad
B) 15 degrees caudad
C) 25 degrees cephalad
D) 25 degrees caudad
Q3) The central-ray angulation for the reverse Waters method is:
A) 0 degrees.
B) 15 degrees.
C) 30 degrees to the acanthiomeatal line.
D) 37 degrees to the acanthiomeatal line.
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22
Chapter 21: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which projection is used when the lateral portion of the breast is not well seen on the standard CC projection?
A) Lateromedial (LM)
B) Lateromedial oblique (LMO)
C) Mediolateral oblique (MLO)
D) Exaggerated craniocaudal (XCCL)
Q2) In what year did mammography become the only x-ray examination regulated by the federal government?
A) 1990
B) 1994
C) 1996
Q3) For which projections of the breast would minimal compression be used?
A) All postsurgery projections
B) All magnification projections
C) CC and MLO with displaced implant
D) CC and MLO with full implant
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest part of the brain is the:
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) brainstem.
D) medulla oblongata.
Q2) Which of the following projections are performed during myelography?
1)PA
2)PA obliques
3)Lateral (decubitus)
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) How many fluid-containing cavities make up the ventricular system of the brain?
A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight
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24
Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following has been identified as a major predictor of increased complication risk from a cardiac catheterization?
A) Cardiomyopathy
B) Diabetes
C) Deep vein thrombosis
D) Renal insufficiency
Q2) What is the most common arterial site of catheterization for selective angiography?
A) Brachial
B) Femoral
C) Axillary
D) Carotid
Q3) Why is an introducer sheath used in many angiographic procedures?
A) To position guidewires
B) To reduce vessel trauma
C) For use only with angioplasty
D) For stent placement
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Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Q1) All of the following are universal approaches to working with children except:
A) setting limits.
B) addressing their fears.
C) being authoritative and firm.
D) making eye contact.
Q2) According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), commonly recognized signs of autism are:
1)difficulty with social interaction.
2)problems with verbal and nonverbal communication.
3)repetitive behaviors or narrow, obsessive interests.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Idiopathic scoliosis is most common in:
A) male infants.
B) adolescent females.
C) male toddlers.
D) utero, between 3 to 6 weeks' gestation.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is inappropriate to address elderly patients as "honey" or "dear."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would be common sites for decubitus ulcers?
1)Heel
2)Knee
3)Elbow
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which of the following is a warning sign of emotional abuse of an older adult?
A) Sudden change in financial status
B) An increase in insomnia
C) Sudden change in alertness
D) Development of decubitus ulcers
Q4) Aging and disease are considered synonymous.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) What will result if the grid IR is leaning on a mobile lateral decubitus examination of the chest or abdomen?
A) Increased scatter
B) Distortion
C) The distal anatomy will not be demonstrated
D) The proximal anatomy will not be demonstrated
Q2) Mobile radiographic units can have direct digital capability with wired to the unit or wireless.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During mobile radiography, the radiographer ideally should be standing at what degree of angle from the primary beam?
A) 0 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) 45 to 90 degrees
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28
Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following surgical procedures require the C-arm to be positioned between the patient's legs?
A) Tibia nailing
B) Operative cholangiography
C) Hip pinning
D) Antegrade femoral nailing
Q2) What should be done if the sterile field is compromised?
A) Determine if the area is important.
B) Don't tell anyone.
C) Call your manager.
D) Tell OR staff immediately.
Q3) What should the radiographer do after removing the cover from the IR?
A) Quickly take it to be processed.
B) Give it to a nonsterile team member.
C) Put it on the floor.
D) Remove gloves before handling it.
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) All of the following are methods of 3D reconstruction techniques in CT except:
A) volume rendering.
B) maximum intensity projection.
C) shaded surface display.
D) pixel-voxel reregistration.
Q2) The most common reporting method of dose reporting on the present scanners is:
A) Multiple Scan Average Dose (MSAD).
B) Computed Tomography Dose Index (CTDI).
C) Dose-length product (DLP).
D) Computed Tomography Dose Index Volume (CTDIvol).
Q3) CT is able to differentiate between tissues with similar densities compared with conventional radiography because of:
A) digital magnification.
B) the use of a computer for data processing.
C) improved contrast resolution.
D) axial slices.
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Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The MRI signal is generated in the receiving antenna by:
A) Lenz's law of induction.
B) a silicon detector.
C) Newton's first law of motion.
D) Faraday's law of induction.
Q2) Problems associated with installing MRI units are:
1)stray radio waves.
2)weight.
3)effects on electronics.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) When the RF pulse is applied and the protons absorb the energy, the result is the protons orient to:
A) a plane perpendicular to the main field.
B) a plane parallel to the main field.
C) different precessional frequencies.
D) their original state in the nucleus.
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Page 31
Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) Routine obstetric screening exams are usually requested between _____ gestational weeks.
A) 8 and 12
B) 12 and 16
C) 16 and 24
D) 24 and 30
Q2) The echo pattern of a cyst can be referred to as:
A) echogenic.
B) anechoic.
C) hyperechoic.
D) hypoechoic.
Q3) A full bladder is used for imaging the female pelvis as a sonic window and to also:
A) flatten the vagina.
B) reposition the intestines laterally.
C) distend the uterus.
D) flatten the ovaries.
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) An array of photomultiplier tubes (PMTs) is located:
A) in front of the crystal.
B) to the back of the crystal.
C) after the pulse height analyzer.
D) after the collimator.
Q2) Half-life (T \(1 / 2\) ) is described as the time required for:
A) half the nuclide to leave the body.
B) half the nuclide to disappear.
C) the nuclide to decay to half its original activity.
D) the original activity to increase by one half.
Q3) Positron-emitting radionuclides have a:
1)neutron-deficient nucleus.
2)proton-deficient nucleus.
3)similar size to electrons.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient positioning should be exactly the same for all scans because:
A) the images need to look the same over time.
B) the results will be more precise, reflecting a true biologic change.
C) that will allow scans from different manufacturers to be comparable.
D) radiologists want the same positioning to read the images.
Q2) A BMD measurement from a patient is most useful when it can be compared statistically to:
A) the same patient age population.
B) a population living in the same area.
C) multiple scans on the same patient.
D) an appropriate sex-matched reference population.
Q3) The Z-score is used to determine:
A) the reference population.
B) fracture risk for the patient.
C) if the measured BMD is reasonable.
D) patient age and bone loss.
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Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) The accurate calculation and measurement of radiation dose for treatment of a therapy patient is referred to as:
A) brachytherapy.
B) simulation.
C) dosimetry.
D) linear energy transfer.
Q2) The goal of radiation oncology is to:
A) destroy all tissue in the portion of the body where the cancer is located.
B) deliver a cancericidal dose to the tumor but limit the dose to normal tissue.
C) limit dose to the cancer and normal tissue to avoid toxicity.
D) deliver a large dose all at once to the cancer.
Q3) One way to treat cancer but minimize the toxic effects of radiation is to use:
A) fractionation.
B) differentiation.
C) palliation.
D) conformal radiation.
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