Radiologic Procedures Lab
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Radiologic Procedures Lab provides students with hands-on experience in fundamental radiographic techniques and protocols. Through practical exercises in a simulated clinical environment, students develop competencies in patient positioning, equipment operation, image acquisition, radiation safety, and quality assurance. Emphasis is placed on mastering procedural steps for imaging various anatomical regions, applying principles of radiologic science, and adhering to ethical standards in patient care. This lab is designed to reinforce theoretical knowledge and prepare students for clinical practice within the radiologic technology field.
Recommended Textbook
Bontragers Textbook of Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy 9th Edition by John Lampignano
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20 Chapters
2119 Verified Questions
2119 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles
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199 Verified Questions
199 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the ARRT Code of Ethics, radiologic technologists must participate in continuing education activities throughout their professional career.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is the name of the dense fibrous membrane that covers bone?
A)Cancellous portion
B)Periosteum
C)Diploë
D)Medullary portion
Answer: B
Q3) Elbow
A)One projection
B)Two projections
C)Three projections
Answer: C
Q4) PACS permits simultaneous viewing of images at multiple locations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Chest
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heart is located in the anterior chest at the level of:
A)T10-12.
B)the thymus gland.
C)the arch of the aorta.
D)T5-8.
Answer: D
Q2) The xiphoid process is a reliable positioning landmark for determining the lower margin of the lungs for chest positioning.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior?
A)Larynx
B)Esophagus
C)Trachea
D)Hyoid bone
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Abdomen
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92 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-year-old female patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible kidney stone.She complains of pain in the right lower pelvis region.Which of the following options should be taken in regard to gonadal shielding?
A)Do not use it.
B)Use it on all projections if correctly placed.
C)Use it on the preliminary projection only.
D)Ask the patient or her parents for their permission to not shield the gonads.
Answer: A
Q2) A patient is in the intensive care unit after abdominal surgery.The surgeon is concerned about a possible perforated bowel.The patient cannot stand or sit.Which of the following positions will best demonstrate any possible intra-abdominal free air?
A)Right lateral decubitus
B)Dorsal decubitus
C)Ventral decubitus
D)Left lateral decubitus
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiograph of a PA projection of the hand reveals that the distal radius and ulna and the carpals were cut off.What should the technologist do to correct this problem?
A)Accept the radiograph.Carpals and distal radius and ulna are not part of a hand study.
B)Make sure the carpals, distal radius, and ulna are included on the lateral projection.
C)If the injury to the patient did not involve the carpal region and distal forearm, do not repeat it.
D)Repeat the PA projection to include all the carpals and about 1 inch (2.5 cm) of the distal radius and ulna.
Q2) Nuclear medicine is generally more sensitive than radiography for assessing bones of the upper limb for either metastatic bone lesions or stress fractures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bursitis
A)Increase (+)
B)Decrease (-)
C)No change (0)
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Chapter 5: Humerus and Shoulder Girdle
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) AP oblique, glenoid cavity projection
A)Clements modification
B)Neer method
C)Fisk modification
D)Hobbs modification
E)Garth method
F)Grashey method
Q2) An orthostatic (breathing) technique can be performed for the AP projection of the scapula.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where is the CR centered for the AP oblique (Grashey method) position for the glenoid cavity?
A)Acromion
B)2 inches (5 cm) medial and inferior to the superolateral border of shoulder
C)Coracoid process
D)1 inch (2.5 cm) superior to the coracoid process
Q4) The affected arm should not be abducted for an AP scapula projection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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110 Verified Questions
110 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sprains and/or fractures involving the bases of the first and second metatarsals
A)Chondrosarcoma
B)Joint effusion
C)Osgood-Schlatter disease
D)Reiter's syndrome
E)Lisfranc joint injury
F)Ewing's sarcoma
G)Gout
H)Paget's disease
I)Bone cyst
J)Exostosis
Q2) Which projection of the knee will best demonstrate the neck of the fibula without superimposition of the tibia?
A)AP
B)Lateral
C)AP oblique with medial rotation
D)AP oblique with lateral rotation
Q3) Grids are required for studies of the adult ankle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Femur and Pelvic Girdle
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cephalopelvimetry is still commonly performed in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fractures that occur in adolescent athletes who experience sudden, forceful, or unbalanced contraction of the tendinous and muscular attachments on the bony pelvis
A) Metastatic carcinoma
B) Ankylosing spondylitis
C) Congenital dislocation of hip
D) Chondrosarcoma
E) Pelvic ring fracture
F) Osteoarthritis
G) Avulsion fracture
Q3) A patient enters the emergency department (ED) having sustained trauma to the pelvis.The patient's main complaint is about her left hip.Which of the following projections should be taken first to rule out fracture or dislocation?
A)AP pelvis
B)AP projection of the left hip
C)Axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection of the left hip
D)Lateral frog-leg projection of the left hip
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cervical and Thoracic Spine
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84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much rotation of the body is required for an LAO projection of the thoracic spine (from the plane of the table)?
A)20°
B)45°
C)50° to 60°
D)70°
Q2) A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the cervical spine reveals that the intervertebral joints are not open.The following analog factors were used for this projection: 5° cephalad angle, 40-inch (100-cm) SID, grid, slight extension of the skull, and the CR centered to the thyroid cartilage.Which of the following modifications should be made during the repeat exposure?
A)Keep the CR perpendicular to the image receptor.
B)Increase the SID to 72 inches (183 cm).
C)Center the CR to the gonion.
D)Increase the CR angulation.
Q3) The PA projection (Judd method) is intended to demonstrate the atlantoaxial joints between C1 and C2.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Lumbar Spine, Sacrum, and Coccyx
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average degree of rotation required to demonstrate the L3-4 zygapophyseal joints is:
A)50°.
B)30°.
C)20° to 25°.
D)45°.
Q2) A radiograph of an AP axial coccyx reveals that the symphysis pubis is superimposed over the distal end of the coccyx.Which of the following modifications will correct this problem during the repeat exposure?
A)Decrease the CR angulation.
B)Increase the CR angulation.
C)Slightly oblique the patient.
D)Ask the patient to empty her bladder.
Q3) The anterior oblique (RAO and LAO) positions of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints closest to the image receptor.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Bony Thoraxsternum and Ribs
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67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiograph of an RAO projection of the ribs demonstrates the left axillary ribs are foreshortened, whereas the right side is elongated.Which of the following is the most likely reason for this radiographic outcome?
A)The patient requires more rotation to the right.
B)An LAO was performed rather than the RAO position.
C)The technologist should have performed a PA projection to demonstrate the left axillary ribs, not an RAO.
D)CR angulation was incorrect.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about floating ribs?
A)They do not possess a head.
B)They do not possess a costovertebral joint.
C)They do not possess costocartilage.
D)They are ribs 8 through 12.
Q3) What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic (thin-chested) type of patient?
A)20°
B)15°
C)30°
D)10°
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cranium, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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181 Verified Questions
181 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pituitary gland (hypophysis cerebri) is associated with and protected by the ____ bone.
A)temporal
B)ethmoid
C)palatine
D)sphenoid
Q2) Which bone is involved with a tripod fracture?
A)Maxilla
B)Ethmoid
C)Temporal
D)Zygomatic
Q3) Which cranial bone articulates with the other seven cranial bones?
A)Parietal
B)Ethmoid
C)Sphenoid
D)None of the above
Q4) The proper name for the parieto-orbital oblique projection is the Schuller method.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Biliary Tract and Upper Gastrointestinal System
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of HPS.Which of the following imaging modalities will best demonstrate this condition?
A)CT
B)Nuclear medicine
C)Ultrasound
D)Upper GI series
Q2) What is the most common radiographic procedure performed to diagnose GERD?
A)Endoscopy
B)Esophagogram
C)Upper GI series
D)CT
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection?
A)Time
B)Distance
C)Intensity
D)Shielding
Q4) Digital fluoroscopy does not require the use of an image intensifier.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Lower Gi System
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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions may lead to an adynamic ileus?
A)Small bowel tumor
B)Scar tissue within the jejunum
C)Peritonitis
D)Stricture of ileum due to an inguinal hernia
Q2) Which part of the small intestine is the shortest?
A)Duodenum
B)Ileum
C)Jejunum
D)Pylorus
Q3) Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon?
A)Left colic flexure
B)Right colic flexure
C)Sigmoid colon
D)Cecum
Q4) For an average adult, the amount of barium ingested is one 16-oz cup for a small-bowel-only series.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If both procedures are ordered on the same day, a barium enema must be performed before an IVU.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which level of contrast media reaction has occurred when the patient develops moderate urticaria?
A)Normal side effect
B)Mild reaction
C)Moderate reaction
D)Severe reaction
Q3) Large stone that grows and completely fills the renal pelvis
A)Horseshoe kidney
B)Ectopic kidney
C)Vesicocolonic fistula
D)Staghorn kidney stone
E)Urinary incontinence
F)BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)
Q4) All reactions, regardless to their severity, must be documented.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following projections will best demonstrate an intracranial air-fluid level with the patient recumbent?
A)Reverse Caldwell
B)AP axial
C)Horizontal beam lateral
D)AP 30°
Q2) Electrohydraulic shock wave used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system is the definition for:
A)shock therapy.
B)heat-induced shock.
C)lithotripsy.
D)DHS.
Q3) Postreduction projections of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest to the fracture site.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Only sterile items are allowed within the sterile field.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Pediatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mummifying technique is highly effective for immobilization of the lower limbs of children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ImageGently.org campaign is designed to use minimal immobilization techniques and measures when imaging a young child.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following radiographic structures are evaluated to best determine tilt on a lateral pediatric skull projection?
A)Top of ear attachments (TEAs)
B)Orbital floors
C)External acoustic/auditory meatus (EAMs)
D)Orbital plates or roofs
Q4) A radionuclide VCUG may be performed rather than a fluoroscopic VCUG. A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Angiography and Interventional Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which two vessels unite to form the hepatic portal vein?
A)Hepatic and superior mesenteric veins
B)Superior mesenteric and splenic veins
C)Splenic and renal veins
D)Hepatic and splenic veins
Q2) How long should solid food be withheld prior to angiography?
A)1 hour
B)4 hours
C)8 hours
D)12 hours
Q3) Stenosis/occlusion of the celiac or mesenteric arteries
A)Abdominal angiography
B)Angiocardiography
C)Cerebral angiography
D)Rotational angiography
E)Peripheral angiography
F)Thoracic angiography
G)Pulmonary angiography
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Chapter 18: Computed Tomography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the cerebral nuclei or basal ganglia?
A)Thalamus
B)Caudate nucleus
C)Lentiform nucleus
D)Claustrum
Q2) Another term for topogram is:
A)CT scan.
B)CAT scan.
C)MPR.
D)scanogram.
Q3) Fat
A)+50
B)+40
C)+20
D)-100
E)-200
F)-1000
G)+1000 or higher
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Special Radiographic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an indication for knee arthrography?
A)Injury or tears to rotator cuff
B)Evaluate for Baker's cyst
C)Injury or tears to collateral or cruciate ligaments
D)Injury or tears to menisci
Q2) Imaging for a hysterosalpingography includes centering of the CR and image receptor (IR) to:
A)4 inches (10 cm) superior to the symphysis pubis.
B)the symphysis pubis.
C)the level of the ASIS.
D)2 inches (5 cm) superior to the symphysis pubis.
Q3) During an arthrogram, why is the knee flexed following injection of contrast media before imaging?
A)To reduce the viscosity of the contrast media
B)To force the contrast media outside of the joint if there is a tear
C)To coat the soft tissue structures with contrast media
D)None of the above; the knee should not be flexed during an arthrogram after injection of contrast media.
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Chapter 20: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Estrogen replacement therapy is given primarily to:
A)stimulate new bone growth.
B)reduce bone loss.
C)promote healing of stress fractures of the hip.
D)increase blood flow to bone.
Q2) Reproducibility as applied for DXA systems is also termed:
A)quality assessment.
B)system reliability.
C)accuracy.
D)precision.
Q3) Which of the following techniques or methods provides bone mineral density (BMD) measurements for both trabecular and cortical bones?
A)Quantitative ultrasound
B)Quantitative computed tomography
C)Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
D)All of the above
Q4) Compression should not be used on a breast with an implant.
A)True
B)False
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