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Radiologic Physics is a foundational course that explores the principles and applications of physics as they pertain to medical imaging and radiation therapy. The course covers key topics such as the nature and production of ionizing radiation, interactions of radiation with matter, X-ray generation and detection, dosimetry, and radiation safety. Through an understanding of these concepts, students will gain insight into the technological and physical aspects that underlie various radiologic modalities including diagnostic radiography, computed tomography (CT), and fluoroscopy. Emphasis is placed on the safe and effective use of radiation in medicine, preparing students for more advanced studies and clinical practice in radiologic sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Imaging and Exposure 3rd Edition by Terri L. Fauber
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12 Chapters
345 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) X-rays carry a negative charge that causes ionization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The distance between two successive crests of a sine wave is known as:
A) an angstrom.
B) frequency.
C) the Greek letter nu.
D) wavelength.
Answer: D
Q3) X-rays have which of the following properties?
A) Electrical properties
B) Magnetic properties
C) Chemical properties
D) a and b
Answer: D
Q4) X-ray photons travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) Which of the following types of filtration produces a more uniform density on the radiograph?
A) Compensating
B) Half-value
C) Inherent
D) Spatial
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following could be defined as the production of an x-ray photon by a collision between the incident electron and a K-shell electron of the tungsten atom?
A) Photoelectric interaction
B) Bremsstrahlung interaction
C) Characteristic interaction
D) Pair production interaction
Answer: C
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Q1) The interaction between x-ray photons and tissue that results in the production of a secondary x-ray photon is the:
A) coherent interaction.
B) Compton interaction.
C) photoelectric interaction.
D) characteristic interaction.
Answer: C
Q2) The photoelectric effect is dependent on both the energy of the x-ray photon and the composition of the anatomic tissue.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Interactions of low energy x-rays (energies below the diagnostic range) with tissue include:
A) pair production.
B) coherent scattering.
C) photodisintegration.
D) a and c
Answer: B
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Q1) What is the primary controller of image contrast?
A) kVp
B) mA
C) Seconds
D) None of the above
Q2) Generally speaking, what do additive pathologic conditions require?
A) Increased focal spot size
B) Increased mA
C) Increased kVp
D) Increased SID
Q3) A 3-year-old comes in for a hand radiograph. If the fixed kVp technique chart recommends 4 mAs for an average adult hand, how much mAs would the 3-year-old require?
A) 1 mAs
B) 3 mAs
C) 5 mAs
D) 16 mAs
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the selection of the focal spot size, the radiographer is really determining the:
A) angle of the anode used.
B) actual size of the filament used.
C) number of electrons available for tube current.
D) distance the electrons travel from cathode to anode.
Q2) The pinhole camera is a device that is used to measure:
A) SID.
B) OID.
C) focal spot size.
D) resolution.
Q3) SID indicators should be accurate within ______ of the SID.
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 5%
D) 10%
Q4) What effect will using a slower speed imaging system have on recorded detail?
A) Increased recorded detail
B) Decreased recorded detail
C) No effect on recorded detail
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) If the height of the lead strips increases and the space between the grid strips decreases, the grid will be more effective at scatter removal.
B) If the height of the lead strip decreases and the space between the grid strips increases, the grid will be more effective at removing scatter radiation.
C) A high ratio grid removes little scatter.
D) A grid decreases scatter production.
Q2) What type of grid error is seen as a loss of density at the periphery of the image?
A) Stationary grid
B) Upside-down focused grid
C) Off-focus
D) Off-level
Q3) Why does the air-gap technique work?
A) The scatter photons increase in energy as a result of the distance to the image receptor.
B) The scatter photons are more likely to miss the image receptor.
C) Less scatter is produced.
D) a and c
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Q1) Which of the following may influence the presence of quantum mottle?
A) Screen speed
B) mAs
C) Phosphor type
D) All of the above
Q2) Which layer of the intensifying screen is closest to the film?
A) Protective layer
B) Base
C) Phosphor layer
D) Emulsion
Q3) What influences the speed of radiographic film?
A) The amount of silver halide crystals in the emulsion
B) The color of the dye added to the film base
C) The size of the silver halide crystal
D) a and c
Q4) How much of the x-ray beam do calcium tungstate phosphors absorb?
A) 5%
B) 30%
C) 60%
D) 90%

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Q1) Silver recovery is the removal of silver from the:
A) developer solution.
B) wash.
C) fixer solution.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is a minus-density artifact not due to processing chemicals?
A) Static
B) Fog
C) Half-moon mark
D) Fingerprints
Q3) What removes excess moisture from the film prior to its entrance into the dryer?
A) Planetary roller
B) Solar roller
C) Squeegee roller
D) Guide shoe
Q4) Radiographs should be dried to remove at least 95% of their moisture.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Where does the area of the characteristic curve known as a solarization occur?
A) Prior to the shoulder
B) After the shoulder
C) Along the slope
D) Before the toe
Q2) _____ is controlled by the design and manufacturing of the film components and the effect of processing.
A) Film contrast
B) Subject contrast
C) Dynamic range
D) Average gradient
Q3) The range of exposures that produces optical densities within the straight line region of the sensitometric curve describes:
A) solarization.
B) exposure latitude.
C) average gradient.
D) film contrast.
Q4) The lower the speed exposure point, the faster the film speed.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The technique chart will provide information as to how to recognize and compensate for additive pathology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Accurate patient measurement is most critical for the:
A) variable kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
B) variable kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
C) fixed kVp/variable mAs technique chart design.
D) fixed kVp/fixed mAs technique chart design.
Q3) Departmental standards, such as the SID or whether an exam is done table-top or Bucky, should be determined:
A) prior to the development of technique charts.
B) after the development of technique charts.
C) at the same time as the development of technique charts.
D) whenever the department can come to an agreement.
Q4) Optimal kVp values for each anatomic area have been established.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following terms does not belong in the list?
A) Photodiode
B) Ion chamber
C) Ionization chamber
D) mAs readout
Q2) What would happen if a film-screen radiographic exam required an exposure time faster than the minimum response time of the AEC sensors?
A) Image density would be optimal.
B) Image density would be excessive.
C) Response time has nothing to do with AEC.
D) Image contrast would be high.
Q3) The most common cause for repeating images done with film-screen and AEC is inaccurate:
A) kVp selection.
B) back-up mAs selection.
C) centering.
D) alignment of the tube and image receptor.
Q4) AEC can typically be used with table-top exams.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The basic unit of information in a computer is a(n):
A) bit.
B) byte.
C) word.
D) algorithm.
Q2) What is the device that changes into digital data the electrical signal created from the light released from the CR imaging plate?
A) Laser
B) Photomultiplier tube
C) Analog-to-digital converter
D) CRT
Q3) _____ is the computer standard for medical information and _____ is the communication standard for medical imaging.
A) HIS, RIS
B) DICOM, HL7
C) RIS, HIS
D) HL7, DICOM
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