Radiography for Allied Health Professionals
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides allied health professionals with a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles and techniques of radiography. Covering topics such as radiation safety, image acquisition, anatomy recognition, and interpretation of radiographic images, the course emphasizes practical skills for positioning patients and operating radiographic equipment. Students will also gain an understanding of the role of radiography within multidisciplinary healthcare teams, patient communication, and ethical considerations related to imaging procedures. By the end of the course, participants will be equipped with essential knowledge to support clinical decision-making and promote high standards of care in radiographic practice.
Recommended Textbook
Radiography Essentials for Limited Practice 4th Edition by Bruce W. Long
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1134 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Role of the Limited X-Ray Machine Operator
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Sample Questions
Q1) To determine the credentials needed for you to practice limited radiography,you should contact the:
A) American Registry of Radiologic Technologists.
B) U.S. Office of Health and Human Services.
C) State Department of Health.
D) National Council on Radiation Protection.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following are within the scope of practice for a limited operator?
1) Use of contrast media
2) Basic radiographic examination
3) Explanation of procedure
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Introduction to Radiographic Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common computed radiography sizes used for general examinations?
1) 5 × 5 in.
2) 10 × 12 in.
3) 14 × 17 in.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C
Q2) X-rays that leave the x-ray tube exit via the:
A) tube housing.
B) tube port.
C) patient.
D) image receptor system.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Basic Mathematics for Limited Operators
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a satisfactory AP shoulder radiograph is made on a patient measuring 12 cm using 100 mA,0.15 sec,70 kVp,and 40 inches SID,which of the following techniques will provide the most similar radiograph of a patient whose shoulder measures 16 cm?
A) 100 mA, 0.20 sec, 70 kVp, 40 inches SID
B) 100 mA, 0.25 sec, 70 kVp, 40 inches SID
C) 100 mA, 0.25 sec, 78 kVp, 40 inches SID
D) 300 mA, 0.15 sec, 70 kVp, 40 inches SID
Answer: B
Q2) What is the decimal form oF \( \frac{1}{1000} \) second?
A) 0.1
B) 0.01
C) 0.001
D) 1.000
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Basic Physics of Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following transformers would have more windings on the primary side?
A) High-tension transformer
B) Step-up transformer
C) Step-down transformer
D) Autotransformer
Q2) The quantity of matter that makes up any physical object is called its:
A) chemical identity.
B) nucleus.
C) atomic number.
D) mass.
Q3) The frequency of a sine wave is measured by the:
A) number of times per minute that a crest passes a given point.
B) number of times per second that a crest passes a given point.
C) velocity multiplied by the wavelength.
D) velocity minus the wavelength.
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary advantage of x-ray beam filtration?
A) Increases the heat capacity of the x-ray tube
B) Improves image quality
C) Lowers patient dose
D) Provides a more even density along the length of a part
Q2) Which of the following are the types of radiation produced in the anode?
A) Thermionic emission and heat
B) Electromagnetic and thermal
C) Characteristic and bremsstrahlung
D) Remnant and scatter
Q3) Filtration ______ the average wavelength of the x-ray beam.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) does not affect
D) has no relation to
Q4) The anode heel effect is a phenomenon of x-ray production that results in:
A) dissipation of anode heat.
B) filtration of long wavelengths from the x-ray beam.
C) uneven distribution of radiation within the field.
D) the production of characteristic radiation.
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Chapter 6: X-Ray Circuit and Tube Heat Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are types of automatic exposure control (AEC)devices?
1) Phototimers
2) Ionization chambers
3) Synchronous tubes
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) A series of warm-up exposures is made on a cold x-ray tube to:
A) heat the filament.
B) prevent damage to the anode from sudden heating.
C) bring the anode rotor up to speed.
D) check that the machine is working properly.
Q3) The autotransformer is primarily used for:
A) variable kVp selection.
B) variable mA selection.
C) exposure time selection.
D) automatic exposure control.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Exposure and Image Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following,if increased,will result in increased radiographic density?
1) Increased mA
2) Increased exposure time
3) Increased kVp
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Fog is primarily caused by:
A) a kVp that is too high.
B) a kVp that is too low.
C) scattered radiation.
D) patient size.
Q3) When an image demonstrates little or low difference between the densities,the image is described as:
A) poor quality.
B) high quality.
C) poor contrast.
D) low contrast.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Digital Image Receptor Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Window width" controls which aspect of the radiographic image?
A) Shuttering
B) Noise
C) Density
D) Contrast
Q2) The system used to view and store digital x-ray images is called a ______ system.
A) CR
B) DR
C) PACS
D) postprocessing
Q3) How many times can the phosphor in the CR plate be used?
A) 1,200 times
B) 5,000 times
C) 8,000 times
D) 10,000 times
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Chapter 9: Scatter Radiation and Its Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The device that is placed between the patient and the IR to absorb scatter radiation is called a:
A) grid.
B) filter.
C) gonad shield.
D) cassette.
Q2) The photoelectric effect occurs when an incoming photon from the primary beam interacts with which part of the atom in a patient's body?
A) Inner shell electron
B) Outer shell electron
C) Nucleus-protons
D) Nucleus-neutrons
Q3) As a general rule,a grid should be employed when the part thickness is greater than:
A) 4 cm.
B) 10 cm.
C) 18 cm.
D) 12 in.
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11
Chapter 10: Formulating X-Ray Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which radiographic quality characteristic is primarily affected by kVp?
A) Density
B) Contrast
C) Spatial resolution
D) Distortion
Q2) How does one determine if the mA station is obtainable at the desired kVp without exceeding the capacity of the x-ray tube?
A) Consult the technique chart.
B) Consult the tube rating chart.
C) Consult the generator maximum ratings.
D) Consult the equipment manufacturer's engineer.
Q3) Technique charts are based on patient-body part measurements obtained using an x-ray caliper. These measurements are expressed as:
A) circumference in inches.
B) part thickness in centimeters.
C) diameter in centimeters.
D) part thickness and width in inches.
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Chapter 11: Radiobiology and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not be a mutation as a result of radiation to the gonads?
A) Cleft palate
B) Spina bifida
C) Polydactyly
D) Leukemia
Q2) Personnel monitors should be worn whenever radiation workers are likely to risk receiving ____% or more of the annual effective dose limit.
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 15
Q3) A declared pregnant radiation worker should wear a second personnel monitor. This monitor should be positioned at the:
A) collar.
B) waist level.
C) sleeve closest to the radiation.
D) the sleeve farthest from the radiation.
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Anatomy, positioning, and Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An axial projection is achieved when the:
A) patient is in a recumbent position.
B) CR "skims" the profile of the part.
C) CR is angled longitudinally more than 10 degrees.
D) CR is horizontal.
Q2) Which disease classification refers to those diseases acquired within the hospital?
A) Iatrogenic
B) Idiopathic
C) Endogenous
D) Nosocomial
Q3) The study of diseases or abnormal conditions of the body is termed:
A) anatomy.
B) pathology.
C) physiology.
D) psychology.
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Chapter 13: Upper Extremity and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the large,rounded projection that can be felt on the superior,lateral surface of the shoulder?
A) Coracoid process
B) Lateral epicondyle
C) Acromion
D) Inferior angle of the scapula
Q2) Which positioning strategy places the wrist in closer contact with the IR for the PA projection of the wrist?
A) Flexing the wrist joint
B) Ulnar deviation
C) Radial deviation
D) Flexing the fingers into a loose fist
Q3) Where does a Colles fracture occur?
A) In the scaphoid carpal bone
B) In the fifth metacarpal
C) In the AC joints
D) In the distal radius
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Chapter 14: Lower Extremity and Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small,flat,oval bones in the region of the first metatarsophalangeal joint are called:
A) phalanges.
B) tarsals.
C) metatarsals.
D) sesamoid bones.
Q2) Which bones are located in the lower leg?
A) Tibia and femur
B) Fibula and femur
C) Tibia and fibula
D) Tibula and fibia
Q3) Where should the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the knee?
A) \( \frac{1}{2} \) inch below the apex of the patella
B) inch below the base of the patella
C) 1 inch distal to the medial epicondyle of the femur
D) 1 \( \frac{1}{2} \) inch proximal to the medial epicondyle of the femur
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Chapter 15: Spine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which portion of the "Scottie dog" represents the pars interarticularis?
A) Ear
B) Front leg
C) Back leg
D) Neck
Q2) When using a 30 × 35 cm IR,where should the CR enter the patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine?
A) At the level of the iliac crest in the midline of the patient
B) At a level 1 \( \frac{1}{2} \) inches superior to the iliac crest in the midline of the patient
C) At the level of the sacrum along the coronal plane of the patient
D) This size IR is not appropriate for lumbar spine images
Q3) What are the CR angle and direction for the AP axial projection of the coccyx?
A) 10 degrees cephalad
B) 10 degrees caudad
C) 15 degrees cephalad
D) 15 degrees caudad
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Bony Thorax, Chest, and Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) When taking a PA projection of the chest,the recommended SID is ______ inches.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 60
D) 72
Q2) What is the purpose of the 72-inch SID used for chest radiography?
A) Allows more room for accurate patient positioning
B) Reduces patient dose
C) Minimizes magnification of the heart shadow
D) Minimizes demonstration of the scapula in the lungs
Q3) Routine positions for the left tenth posterior rib are:
A) prone and RAO.
B) supine and RPO.
C) supine and LPO.
D) prone and LAO.
Q4) What is the primary function of the small intestine?
A) Produce bile
B) Store digestive enzymes
C) Store bile
D) Digestion and absorption
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Chapter 17: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is contained within the petrous pyramids?
A) Air cells
B) Middle and inner ear structures
C) Pituitary gland
D) Spinal cord
Q2) What is the name of the structure that holds the roots of the teeth?
A) Petrous pyramids
B) Gonion
C) Alveolar process
D) Sella turcica
Q3) Which cranial bone is most anterior?
A) Occipital bone
B) Frontal bone
C) Parietal bone
D) Temporal bone
Q4) A blow-out fracture involves the:
A) occipital bone.
B) mandible.
C) nasal bones.
D) floor of the orbit.
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Chapter 18: Radiography of Pediatric and Geriatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the meaning of the term geriatrics?
A) Specialized care of the elderly
B) Specialized care of the feet
C) Specialized care of the GI tract
D) Specialized care of joints
Q2) What is the proper medical term for bedsores?
A) Diverticulitis
B) Osteopenia
C) Ischemic ulcers
D) Decubitus ulcers
Q3) A valid choice is one in which both alternatives are:
A) acceptable to the patient.
B) acceptable to you.
C) inconsequential.
D) very similar.
Q4) An exaggerated sense of modesty is most typical of which population group?
A) Infants and toddlers
B) Children aged 4 to 7
C) Children aged 8 to 11
D) Young teens
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Image Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes an unexposed area at the top or bottom of a radiographic image?
A) Scatter radiation
B) Patient not aligned to the IR
C) CR not aligned to the IR
D) CR not centered to anatomy of interest
Q2) How can Figure 19-8 be corrected?
A) Decrease mAs by at least 50%.
B) Remove artifact from patient.
C) Decrease collimation.
D) Decrease kVp.
Q3) What is the first step in a systematic image review?
A) Check for accurate and complete image identification markers.
B) Check for pertinent and complete anatomy in the proper position.
C) Check for appropriate density and contrast.
D) Check for aesthetic quality.
Q4) What is the proper method to hang an AP projection of the foot?
A) With the toes pointing toward the floor
B) With the toes pointing toward the ceiling
C) With the toes pointing toward the right
D) With the toes pointing toward the left
21
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Chapter 20: Ethics, Legal Considerations, and Professionalism
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly patient is scheduled for an x-ray examination. After she arrives,she states that she does not want to have any x-rays and that she is going to go home. You should:
A) first, talk with the patient to clarify any misunderstandings.
B) prevent the patient from leaving while you call the physician.
C) contact the patient's daughter and ask her what to do.
D) use restraints and take the x-rays.
Q2) A document that sets forth standards of correct behavior within a profession is called:
A) a code of ethics.
B) professional limited liability standard.
C) a code of morals and values.
D) a legal conduct standard.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of appropriate assertiveness by a radiographer?
A) "Someone has got to help with this case."
B) "You take this case; I've already done my share."
C) "I hate cases like this!"
D) "Please come now. I need help with this case."
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Chapter 21: Safety and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate method to assist a patient with back pain from a supine position into a seated position?
A) Pull the patient's arms to help the patient lift the upper body from the supine position.
B) Roll the patient into a recumbent lateral position, then assist the patient into a seated position.
C) Roll the patient into a prone position, then have the patient push up onto his or her hands and knees.
D) Support the patient's head and neck while lifting the upper body into a seated position.
Q2) Which of the following are the most common infractions of fire safety rules as stated by fire marshals?
1) Improper use of extension cords
2) Fire doors blocked open
3) Improper storage of flammable materials
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 22: Assessing Patients and Managing Acute Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hot,dry skin is often an indication of:
A) pain.
B) fever.
C) lack of oxygen.
D) loss of blood.
Q2) The term for the bottom number of a blood pressure measurement is:
A) systolic.
B) diastolic.
C) rate pressure.
D) pulse pressure.
Q3) What is the normal range of temperature when measured orally?
A) 90° to 98° F
B) 96.8° to 99.6° F
C) 98.6° to 99.0° F
D) 100.4° to 101.4° F
Q4) What is the most common site to palpate the pulse?
A) Over the instep on the inside of the foot
B) At the femoral artery in the groin area
C) On the side of the neck at the carotid artery
D) On the lateral aspect of the anterior wrist at the radial artery
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Chapter 23: Medications and Their Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When used for intramuscular injections,which of the following sites results in pain at the time of injection and persists afterwards?
A) Deltoid muscle of the upper arm
B) Gluteal muscles in the hip area
C) Muscles of the anterior thigh
D) Vastus lateralis muscle of the lateral thigh
Q2) The sublingual administration of nitroglycerin for angina pectoris is an example of:
A) topical administration.
B) parenteral administration.
C) intradermal injection.
D) subcutaneous injection.
Q3) Chloral hydrate is to be administered orally for the sedation of a child weighing 20 kg. The prescribed dose is 50 mg per kg and the drug is supplied in 100 mg/mL strength. How many mL of chloral hydrate should be given?
A) 0.25 mL
B) 250 mL
C) 1 mL
D) 10 mL
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Chapter 24: Medical Laboratory Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the collection tube fails to fill with blood during the venipuncture procedure,the most likely cause is which of the following?
A) Damage to the tube
B) Damage to the needle
C) Failure to secure the tourniquet correctly
D) Failure to place the tip of the needle correctly within the vein
Q2) What type of skin cleansing is required when performing venipuncture for blood culture or blood-alcohol testing?
A) Seventy percent isopropyl alcohol preps
B) Povidone-iodine (Betadine) preps
C) Dry gauze or cotton balls
D) Skin cleansing is not recommended in this case.
Q3) The physician should be notified before urine is discarded if it is more than slightly hazy or tests positive for:
A) glucose.
B) fat.
C) alcohol.
D) chlorine.
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Chapter 25: Additional Procedures for Assessment and Diagnosis
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the most commonly used diagnostic tools in the assessment of heart disease?
A) Ishihara test
B) Snellen chart
C) Electrocardiography
D) FVC test
Q2) What is the purpose of measuring a patient's weight as a part of patient assessment?
1)To help determine proper medication dosage
2)To monitor growth and development of children
3)Weight gain or loss can be significant diagnostic information
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) On an ECG tracing,the QRS complex represents:
A) atrial recovery.
B) atrial contraction.
C) ventricular recovery.
D) ventricular contraction.
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Chapter 26: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two basic types of bone?
A) Cortical and trabecular
B) Cortical and compact
C) Trabecular and cancellous
D) Trabecular and os calcis
Q2) Each operator should do a precision assessment after he or she has performed how many scans?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
Q3) What is the preferred region of interest when analyzing a forearm DXA scan?
A) Ultra-distal ulna
B) Ultra-distal radius
C) One-third (33%) ulna
D) One-third (33%) radius
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