Radiographic Quality Control
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Radiographic Quality Control is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices required to maintain and enhance the quality of radiographic images in diagnostic imaging departments. Students will learn about the various technical factors and equipment components that influence image quality, including exposure parameters, image receptors, and processing systems. The course emphasizes routine quality assurance testing, evaluation of image artifacts, and corrective actions for suboptimal images. It also covers regulatory standards, documentation requirements, and the role of technologists in ensuring consistent, safe, and high-quality radiographic services. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical applications, students develop the skills necessary to implement and manage quality control programs in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) F = Gm<sub>1</sub>m<sub>2</sub>/r<sup>2</sup>; solve for m<sub>1</sub>.
Answer: Fr<sup>2</sup>/Gm<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Consider the following proportional relationship: x = ay/bd.Assuming all other quantities remain constant, what happens to the value of x when the product of bd increases?
A)increases
B)decreases C)remains the same D)cannot be determined
Answer: B
Q3) Convert 113°F to °C.
A)20.3°C
B)62.8°C
C)81°C
D)235°C
Answer: B
Q4) P<sub>1</sub>V<sub>1</sub>/T<sub>1</sub> = P<sub>2</sub>V<sub>2</sub>/T<sub>2</sub>; solve for V<sub>2</sub>.
Answer: P<sub>2</sub>V<sub>2</sub>T<sub>1</sub>/P<sub>1</sub>V<sub>1</sub>
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Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of the substance glucose (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>) EXCEPT:
A)The smallest subdivision of this molecule is glucose.
B)It is a compound.
C)It consists of three elements.
D)It may be broken down into one atom of glucose.
Answer: D
Q2) the product of frequency and wavelength
A)infrared energy
B)gamma rays
C)radio waves
D)ultraviolet energy
E)excitation
F)lambda
G)amplitude
H)velocity
Answer: H
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Chapter 3: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The charge on each of two objects is doubled, and they are moved twice as far apart.The force between them is
A)increased by a factor of 4.
B)increased by a factor of 2.
C)increased by a factor of 1/2.
D)unchanged.
Answer: D
Q2) The current flow from a dry cell battery source would be A)direct current.
B)alternating current.
C)variable current.
D)oscillating current.
Answer: A
Q3) Electric insulators
A)convert electrical energy into heat.
B)consist of materials like silicon.
C)inhibit movement of electrical charge.
D)permit movement of electrical charge.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a simple AC generator, the value of the induced voltage in the armature loop is maximum when the orientation of the armature as compared to the magnetic field is A)at a node.
B)45 degrees.
C)90 degrees.
D)180 degrees.
Q2) The process of electrons being emitted from heated metallic surfaces is called A)thermionic emission.
B)electrolysis.
C)electroplating.
D)potential difference.
Q3) The design of an x-ray tube requires that electron flow through it is in a single direction or phase.If alternating current were supplied to the x-ray tube at high voltage, what would be the result?
Q4) How many times does an AC current change direction in a single minute?
A)30
B)60
C)120
D)7,200
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nearly all types of x-ray equipment operate from an incoming line of
A)210 V.
B)120 AC.
C)120 Hz.
D)210 A.
Q2) Radiographing a thin body part using automatic exposure control (AEC)
A)requires a longer minimum reaction time.
B)is recommended in order to reduce dose.
C)may produce inconsistent images due to AEC timer errors.
D)requires higher kVp values in order to reduce motion.
Q3) When using AEC at 80 kVp, backup times
A)must not exceed 600 mAs.
B)are of no concern due to the AEC reliability.
C)may range from 600 to 2000 mAs.
D)should be manually set at 300% of the expected manual mAs.
Q4) High frequency generators
A)use invertors to increase pulse frequency.
B)produce similar output to three-phase with a single phase source.
C)achieve peak kVp faster than single- or three-phase generators.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exact point on the anode where the x-ray beam emanates is the A)focusing cup.
B)focal spot.
C)stator.
D)rotor.
Q2) All of the following are part of the cathode assembly EXCEPT A)filament.
B)stator.
C)focusing cup.
D)associated wiring.
Q3) List the three primary functions of the x-ray tube's protective housing.
Q4) The function of the cathode is to produce
A)a focal point.
B)an electrical connection to the rectifier.
C)a thermionic cloud.
D)a grounding effect.
Q5) In which direction should the anode be placed for an AP projection of the femur?
Q6) Metal envelope x-ray tubes are gaining in popularity.Explain some key advantages to a metal housing x-ray tube.
Q7) List the three parts of the anode assembly.
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy of a bremsstrahlung photon is
A)equal to the kinetic energy of the entering electron.
B)equal to the kinetic energy of the exiting electron.
C)the sum of the entering and exiting kinetic energy of the incident electron.
D)the difference between the entering and exiting kinetic energy of the incoming electron.
Q2) results from electrons interacting with the nuclear force field
A)9.6 keV
B)20 keV
C)binding energy
D)kinetic energy
E)thermal energy
F)electromagnetic energy
G)bremsstrahlung radiation
H)characteristic interactions
Q3) At the end of the characteristic cascade, the ____ shell is missing an electron.
A)innermost
B)K
C)outermost
D)characteristic
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Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following would be recorded on a radiation dosimetry report EXCEPT
A)body mass index (BMI).
B)control badge exposure.
C)lifetime equivalent dose.
D)radiation quality.
Q2) Factors that influence the effect of exposure to ionizing radiation include
A)the total dose received.
B)the type of radiation.
C)cell sensitivity.
D)all of the above
Q3) sum of weighted equivalent doses
A)Gray (Gy)
B)Sievert (Sv)
C)Roentgen (R)
D)somatic damage
E)genetic damage
F)Curie (Ci)
G)Equivalent Dose (HT)
H)Effective Dose
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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a radiographic grid when performing a femur radiograph will result in
A)a small decrease in patient dose.
B)an increase in patient dose.
C)no change to the patient dose.
D)a large decrease in patient dose.
Q2) Protective aprons and gloves are usually made of lead-impregnated vinyl within the range of ____ lead equivalency.
A)0.25-1.0 mm
B)0.25-1.0 cm
C)0.1-0.25 mm
D)0.1-0.25 cm
Q3) If the distance between the individual and the source of radiation is doubled, the exposure to the individual will be reduced by a factor of
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Filtration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The half-value layer is typically expressed in A)Kerma.
B)Gray (Gy).
C)Al/Eq.
D)Pb/Eq.
Q2) In general, low-energy x-ray photons
A)improve image quality by affecting contrast.
B)are absorbed by the image receptor.
C)penetrate the patient and detector.
D)are absorbed by the patient.
Q3) How many half-value layers must be added to the primary beam to reduce its intensity to less than 20 percent of its original value?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
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Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) An x-ray exposure of 200 mR is recorded at a distance of 40 inches.If the same technical factors are used, what will the exposure be if the distance is increased to 72 inches?
Q2) A radiograph is produced using 25 mAs at 80 kVp.To cut the exposure in half, how much should the kVp be increased?
Q3) The density maintenance formula is a
A)reciprocity law.
B)inverse square law.
C)direct square law.
D)15 percent rule.
Q4) In order to increase radiographic film density by 40%, the radiographer would
A)change the mAs from 15 to 21 mAs.
B)decrease the kVp by 40%.
C)increase the mAs by 20%.
D)decrease the distance by 40%.
Q5) Given an exposure time of 0.06 second and a milliamperage of 400, calculate the mAs.
Q6) An acceptable radiograph was taken using 12 mAs at 80 kVp at a distance of 72 inches.To reduce the image density by 50%, the new distance should be what?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an electron from an outer shell fills a vacancy in an inner shell,
A)the total energy of the electron increases.
B)the electron increases its mass.
C)a photon is released.
D)all of the above
Q2) An interaction that occurs between very low energy x-ray photons and matter is called ____ scatter.
A)coherent
B)classical
C)unmodified
D)all of the above
Q3) yield photons with each transition
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
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Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) 45 mR ESE
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q2) To reduce patient exposure, the __________ consistent with image quality should be selected.
A)highest mAs
B)highest kVp
C)shortest distance
D)highest mAs and lowest kVp
Q3) Patient entrance skin exposure decreases as
A)source-to-image receptor distance (SID) decreases.
B)SID increases.
C)source-to-object distance (SOD) decreases.
D)object-to-image receptor distance (OID) increases.
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Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specialized cells of the retina convert the visual image to A)the perceived image.
B)aqueous humor.
C)nervous impulses.
D)light.
Q2) commonly used in forensic radiography
A)rods
B)veil glare
C)retina
D)Mach effect
E)scotopic vision
F)cones
G)edge enhancement
H)Grenz rays
Q3) Which type of specialized photoreceptor cells are found in the retina?
A)lens
B)corneal
C)pupil
D)cones
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is placed between the patient and the image receptor to absorb scatter radiation?
A)radiographic grid
B)AEC detector
C)collimator
D)cylinder
Q2) The diameter of the lower rim of a cone is 5 inches.The bottom of the cone is placed at a distance of 15 inches from the focal spot.What will be the size of the projected image at a 40-inch SID?
Q3) A key factor that affects the amount of scatter produced is A)kilovoltage.
B)milliamperage.
C)time.
D)anode composition.
Q4) A diaphragm is placed 6 inches from the focal spot.The diameter of the opening in the aperture is a 3-inch circle.What would be the projected image size if the SID were 40 inches?
Q5) Automatic collimators are known as positive beam limitation (PBL) devices.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subject distortion can be reduced by accurately positioning the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the least attenuator of the x-ray beam?
A)pneumonated lung
B)pericardial fat
C)psoas muscle
D)perirenal fat
Q3) With the patient in the posterior-anterior projection of the abdomen (prone),
A)renal stones would have high resolution.
B)the lumbar vertebrae would have high resolution.
C)the psoas muscles would have high resolution.
D)the anterior ribs would have high resolution.
Q4) The primary source of radiation exposure for occupational personnel is due to
A)Compton scatter.
B)classical scatter
C)photoelectric effect.
D)coherent scatter.
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18
Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Q1) Which pathologic condition involves the filling of the interstitial lung tissues and is commonly associated with congestive heart failure?
A)cardiomegaly
B)pulmonary embolus
C)pulmonary edema
D)bronchiectasis
Q2) Which pathologic condition involves a collapse of part or the entire lung?
A)atelectasis
B)pleural effusions
C)hemothorax
D)hydrothorax
Q3) pus in the thoracic cavity
A)additive conditions
B)Paget's disease
C)gout
D)hyperparathyroidism
E)empyema
F)destructive conditions
G)atrophy
H)pneumonia
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Chapter 18: The Grid
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Q1) increased OID
A)grid frequency
B)grid ratio
C)contrast improvement factor
D)focussed grid
E)air-gap technique
F)Moire effect
G)grid cut-off
H)convergence point
I)Hollis Potter
J)Gustav Bucky
Q2) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at 85 kVp without a grid.A second film is requested using a 16:1 grid with a conversion factor of 6.75.What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph?
Q3) The number of grid lines per inch is the grid
A)focus.
B)ratio.
C)frequency.
D)speed.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each crystal is a cubic lattice of each of the following atoms EXCEPT
A)silver.
B)potassium.
C)bromide.
D)iodine.
Q2) invisible, undeveloped image
A)Gurney-Mott theory
B)sensitivity speck
C)film base
D)supercoat
E)latent image
F)panchromatic film
G)duplicating film
H)orthochromatic film
I)manifest image
J)30-60%
K)halation theory
L)68 95%
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21
Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reducing agents ____ positive silver ions.
A)neutralize
B)develop
C)fix
D)activate
Q2) If silver halide crystals have more than three silver atoms on their sensitivity specks, the crystal will be able to be
A)ripened.
B)developed.
C)washed away.
D)cleared.
Q3) Which automatic processor solution is most affected by contamination?
A)developer
B)fixer
C)wash
D)replenisher
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Q1) The amount of radiographic density a film produces for a given amount of exposure is termed the A)gamma.
B)reciprocity.
C)speed.
D)resolution.
Q2) The difference between adjacent densities on a radiograph is the A)resolution.
B)speed.
C)definition.
D)contrast.
Q3) a measure of the straight line portion of the H & D curve
A)speed point
B)gamma
C)step wedge
D)densitometer
E)characteristic curve
F)latitude
G)average gradient
H)sensitometer
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Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of the latent image is formed by x-ray photons?
A)100 percent
B)99 percent
C)50 percent
D)1 percent
Q2) non-clinical, extraneous information on the final image
A)CaWO<sub>4</sub>
B)gadolinium oxysulfide:terbium activated
C)fluorescence
D)conversion efficiency
E)RS 100
F)MTF
G)artifact
H)phosphorescence
I)increases quantum mottle
J)line spread function
K)RS 400
L)lp/mm
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Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Q1) An eight-bit word is called a A)byte.
B)RAM.
C)bit.
D)ROM.
Q2) In digital image processing, the digital data set is arranged into a histograph distribution in order to determine the A)display matrix.
B)exposure index.
C)values of interest (VOI).
D)both b and c
Q3) In digital imaging, the limiting factor in spatial resolution is the A)pixel depth.
B)pixel size.
C)bit depth.
D)pixel pitch.
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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Q1) The ____ includes image storage, image query, image retrieval, image print, storage resource, and examination.
A)service class
B)object class
C)object pair
D)service provider
Q2) The acronym PACS stands for
A)pixel and computed system.
B)picture and communication system.
C)picture archiving and communication system.
D)portable archival computer system.
Q3) When images are sent from a CR workstation to a radiologist viewing station for interpretation, the workstation and viewing station become a SOP.In this case,
A)the workstation is provider class and the viewing station is user class.
B)the workstation and viewing station are both user class.
C)the workstation and viewing station are both provider class.
D)the workstation is user class and the viewing station is provider class.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Q1) After a radiograph of the lumbar spine (AP) is completed, the final image reveals a S# of 758.Your correct image analysis leads you to
A)increase the mAs by 10% and repeat the image.
B)increase the kVp by 4 kVp and repeat the image.
C)decrease the SID to 36" and repeat the image.
D)none of the above
Q2) Generally speaking, the primary cause of increased patient radiation dose is A)extended fluoroscopy.
B)higher grid ratios than necessary.
C)inadequate beam restriction.
D)repeat images.
Q3) The acceptance limit curve is often skewed to the ____ side.
A)low-contrast
B)high-contrast
C)light
D)none of the above
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Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) If a satisfactory density is obtained with 20 mAs at 40 in., what mAs is required to maintain the same density at 72 in.?
Q2) direct relationship between mAs and distance
A)mAs
B)kVp
C)density maintenance formula
D)radiographic grids
E)15% rule
F)anode heel effect
G)focal spot size
H)recorded detail
I)EI value
J)visibility of detail
Q3) Because of the "heel effect," x-ray beam intensity
A)is greater under the cathode side of the tube.
B)is greater under the anode side of the tube.
C)is equal across the beam long axis.
D)changes with patient position.
Q4) A radiograph of the forearm is produced using 4 mA at 55 kVp.What kVp would be required to double the exposure?
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Chapter 27: Contrast
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Q1) A fluoroscopic examination that uses barium as a contrast material would typically produce images with
A)long scale contrast.
B)short scale contrast.
C)low contrast.
D)both a and c
Q2) high contrast
A)average gradient
B)long scale contrast
C)Compton interactions
D)low contrast
E)short scale contrast
F)high contrast
G)photoelectric interactions
H)subject contrast
Q3) Image receptor contrast is expressed as the ____ of the D log E curve.
A)slope
B)toe
C)shoulder
D)straight line
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Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Q1) Which measures the accuracy of an image compared to the original object on a scale of 0 to 1?
A)line spread function
B)modulation transfer function
C)point spread function
D)noise reduction function
Q2) For general radiography, an MTF value of 1 is A)average.
B)suboptimum.
C)theoretically impossible.
D)a function of mAs.
Q3) Penumbra decreases as A)focal spot decreases.
B)OID decreases.
C)SID increases.
D)all of the above
Q4) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 1 in.
Q5) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 6 in.
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Chapter 29: Distortion
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Q1) As size distortion decreases, the resolution of recorded detail
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)is not affected.
D)is lost.
Q2) inherently magnified in AP projection
A)kidneys
B)SID SOD
C)elongation
D)SOD
E)object size
F)scapula
G)foreshortening
H)patella
Q3) Performing a routine chest radiograph in the anterior-posterior (AP) projection will
A)decrease heart size on the image.
B)demonstrate higher resolution of the anterior ribs.
C)produce improved resolution of the thoracic spine.
D)decrease breast exposure.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Q1) Static marks on a film radiographic image represent
A)a procedural factor problem.
B)a recorded detail problem.
C)a visibility of detail problem.
D)an equipment malfunction problem.
Q2) image receptor alignment problem
A)improper patient preparation
B)an S# of 50
C)film-screen contact problem
D)consistently low contrast images
E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette
F)presence of grid lines on image
G)white specks on final images
H)hypothesis
Q3) An optimal diagnostic quality radiograph
A)is always within acceptable limits.
B)is always the same as a diagnostic image.
C)always shows cues or patterns of underlying problems.
D)may warrant an ALARA violation.
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Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Q1) Most AECs utilize ____ ion chambers in various combinations.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Q2) Input for the purchase of new radiographic equipment should include the A)radiologists.
B)radiographers.
C)administrators.
D)all of the above
Q3) Digital detectors with a higher DQE will A)require more dose to image adequately.
B)produce better images of small objects with low subject contrast.
C)produce a higher S:N ratio.
D)are not preferred for mammography due to dose.
Q4) A common device to measure display monitor quality and characteristics is a/an A)screen contact test tool.
B)kVp test tool.
C)ABC resolution phantom.
D)SMPTE pattern.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Q1) When establishing technique charts, clinical trials precede phantom testing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Variable kVp systems
A)produce higher contrast images than other systems do.
B)enhance the visibility of detail.
C)increase the perception of resolution.
D)all of the above
Q3) When viewing phantom images, professionals are not asked to select the A)single best image.
B)images outside acceptance limits.
C)images within acceptance limits.
D)all of the above
Q4) Fixed kVp systems
A)increase the consistency of image density.
B)increase the consistency of image contrast.
C)lengthen exposure latitude.
D)all of the above
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34
Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Q1) Ionization chamber AECs are usually used in a ____ chamber configuration.
A)one-
B)two-
C)three-
D)four-
Q2) When an AEC is used for a PA chest, which ionization chambers are utilized?
A)the center cell
B)the left and right outer cells
C)all three cells
D)the right outer cell only
Q3) A new high frequency radiographic system is being released to a customer for first clinical use.The applications person states that the AEC density controls are in 20% increments.If a normal AEC exposure of the hip is 24 mAs, a repeat exposure at +2 would yield a mAs value of
A)26 mAs.
B)29 mAs.
C)34 mAs.
D)48 mAs.
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Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Q1) An acceptable radiographic image is taken under the following conditions: single phase-2p, 400 mA, 75 ms, 1.2 mm fs, 82 kVp, 44" SID, 400 RS receptor, 8:1 grid.
What change would need to take place with the exposure conditions below, in order to maintain image quality?
HF generator, 1.0 mm fs, 94 kVp, 44" SID, 300 RS receptor, 12:1 grid
A)Change the exposure to 300 mA , 46 ms.
B)Switch to a RS 200 receptor with no compensation.
C)Change to 20 mAs.
D)Decrease the SID to 40" with no compensation.
Q2) A radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at a 40 in.distance.Calculate the new mAs at a 72 in.distance.
Q3) A radiographic examination has been taken using the following exposure conditions: 400 mA, 70 ms, 80 kVp, 1,2 mm fs, 200 RS receptor, 12: grid, 44" SID
To increase the contrast, the most appropriate choice would be to
A)increase the mA to 500 and decrease time to 56 ms.
B)switch to the 0.8 mm focal spot.
C)switch to a 400 RS receptor and decrease the mAs.
D)switch to a 16:1 grid and increase mAs.
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Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) With current, state-of-the-art portable units, A)kVp is used to compensate for insufficient mAs.
B)it is safe to stand behind the unit for protection.
C)the batteries provide power for exposures and travel.
D)higher ratio grids are necessary.
Q2) If a chest radiograph requires 4 mAs at 72", the new mAs to use at 56" would be
A)3 mAs.
B)2.4 mAs.
C)2.0 mAs.
D)1.5 mAs.
Q3) During optimal mobile radiography of the chest, the recommended SID is ____ inches.
A)72
B)56
C)40
D)36
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Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) output phosphor material
A)input phosphor
B)1-3 R/min
C)10 R/mn
D)fluoroscopic carriage
E)brightness gain
F)primary barrier
G)output phosphor
H)CsI
I)photocathode
J)ZnS-CdS:Ag
K)vignetting
L)TFT resolution
Q2) Mobile fluoroscopic systems are different from fixed systems in that they
A)do not have a primary barrier.
B)do not use video displays.
C)have separate fluoroscopy and radiographic tubes.
D)have a minimum SOD of 12 inches.
Q3) What is the minification gain for an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 5 in.and an output diameter of 1 in.?
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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Q1) Tomography causes the blurring of nearly all recorded detail of objects outside the A)area above the fulcrum.
B)area below the fulcrum.
C)focal plane.
D)amplitude.
Q2) Common mA stations found on dedicated tomographic machines may include all of the following EXCEPT
A)10
B)30
C)40
D)100
Q3) Which tomographic motion produces the thinnest section?
A)8 degrees
B)12 degrees
C)25 degrees
D)40 degrees
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39
Chapter 38: Mammography
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Q1) The disadvantage to using low kVp in mammography is its ability to produce
A)a very low-energy x-ray beam.
B)high radiographic contrast.
C)a soft x-ray beam.
D)an increased patient dose.
Q2) Breast compression
A)reduces magnification.
B)increases tissue thickness.
C)increases radiation exposure.
D)increases motion unsharpness.
Q3) To engage the small focal spot in a dedicated mammography tube, ____ focusing must be used.
A)convex
B)dual
C)biased
D)concave
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Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) General radiography is ineffective in measuring bone loss since as much as ______ of bone mass must be lost to be radiographically detected.
A)15%
B)30%
C)40%
D)60%
Q2) DXA scanning relies on the assessment of BMD for an individual and compares this value to
A)similar persons in the same age group.
B)persons with peak bone mass in their twenties.
C)persons with similar lifestyles and ethnicity.
D)the BMD value from early childhood.
Q3) In healthy adults, peak bone mass occurs
A)following menopause.
B)at puberty.
C)in their twenties and mid-thirties.
D)at the onset of menarche.
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Q1) The amount of heat an anode can tolerate during a fluoroscopic exposure is known as ____ loading ability.
A)short-term
B)continuous-heat
C)pulsed fluoro
D)intermittent fluoro
Q2) Most angiographic studies are produced at what kVp range?
A)30 to 40
B)40 to 50
C)50 to 100
D)75 to 110
Q3) The contrast medium warming device on the pressure injector is intended to
A)bring the contrast medium to room temperature.
B)maintain the temperature of the contrast medium.
C)bring the contrast medium to body temperature.
D)increase contrast viscosity through warming.
Q4) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 70 kVp, 300 mA, 0.20 sec.on a three-phase, 6-pulse unit?
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Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Q1) The CT radiation beam is collimated
A)at the tube exit.
B)at the detector entrance.
C)pre-patient and post-patient.
D)all of the above
Q2) A ____ artifact is caused by the presence of metal in the patient.
A)beam-hardening
B)ring
C)star
D)streak
Q3) The process of modifying pixel values by a mathematical formula is called A)convolution.
B)deconvolution.
C)calculus.
D)interpolation.
Q4) The smaller the scan field size, the A)better the resolution.
B)faster the scan time.
C)less the risk of motion.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) The time required after precessing spins have aligned at an angle to the external field due to an RF pulse losing 63% of their coherence is
A)spin density (\(\rho\)).
B)spin-spin relaxation time (T<sub>2</sub>).
C)echo time (TE).
D)spin-lattice relaxation time (T<sub>1</sub>).
Q2) To produce magnetic field gradients in MRI, electromagnetic coils are oriented in A)one dimension.
B)two dimensions.
C)three dimensions.
D)four dimensions.
Q3) The RF signal strength determines
A)brightness.
B)field strength.
C)section thickness.
D)spatial resolution.
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Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) performed to evaluate heart functionality
A)hot lab
B)MUGA
C)alpha emission
D)NRC
E)bone scan
F)elution
G)gamma emission
H)V/Q scan
I)PET scanning
J)wipe testing
K)beta emission
L)uptake probe
Q2) The biological half-life of a radionuclide takes into account its
A)physical decay scheme.
B)physical half-life.
C)metabolism within the human body.
D)effective half-life.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Q1) creates 3-D images that pinpoint the exact size, location, and coordinates of the treatment isocenter
A)Clarence Dally
B)isocenter
C)isodose curve
D)simulation
E)contouring
F)Emil Grubbe
G)radiotherapist
H)palliative
I)fusion imaging
J)IGRT
K)curative
L)beam angles
M)radiation oncologist
N)cone beam CT
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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Q1) frequency of sound is related to direction of echo relative to source
A)B-mode
B)rayls
C)damping material
D)decibels
E)Doppler
F)acoustic coupler
G)PZT
H)matching layer
I)M-mode
J)Huygen's principle
Q2) Sound waves are unlike electromagnetic waves in that sound waves cannot be transmitted through A)water.
B)air.
C)a vacuum.
D)a sphere gap.
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Page 47