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Radiographic Quality Assurance is a course designed to equip students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles and practices essential for maintaining high standards in medical imaging. The course covers key topics such as quality control procedures, evaluation of imaging equipment performance, image quality assessment, and radiation safety protocols. Emphasis is placed on regulatory requirements, routine testing methods, troubleshooting common issues, and documentation processes necessary to ensure diagnostic accuracy and patient safety. Through theoretical knowledge and practical applications, students learn to implement and monitor effective quality assurance programs in radiology departments.
Recommended Textbook
Workbook for Radiographic Image Analysis 4th Edition by Kathy McQuillen Martensen
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12 Chapters
558 Verified Questions
558 Flashcards
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33703
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the marker placement for the projection of PA oblique vertebrae?
A) Laterally on the side being identified
B) Anteriorly, identifying the side positioned closer to the IR
C) Anywhere within the exposure field
D) Laterally, identifying the side situated closer to the IR
Answer: D
Q2) Good collimation practices will do all of the following except
A) decrease the radiation dosage.
B) affect the amount of scatter radiation that reaches the IR.
C) reduce the visibility of recorded details.
D) reduce digital radiography histogram analysis errors.
Answer: C
Q3) A postprocessing manipulation that can be added to digital projections as a means of helping the viewer to better evaluate contrast resolution in the selected area is a A) collimation.
B) contrast mask.
C) dimensional annotation.
D) projection mask.
Answer: B
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about display station resolution, except that
A) it refers to the maximum number of pixels that the screen can demonstrate.
B) full display resolution is only possible if the digital and display systems have equal pixel capability.
C) the technologist's display monitor has superior resolution compared with that used by the radiologist's.
D) large matrix sizes produce better resolution than small matrix sizes.
Answer: C
Q2) The anode heel affect
1)should be considered when the structure of interest is more than 43 inches long.
2)is a variation in photon intensity across the exposure field.
3)occurs because the heel of the anode absorbs more photons than the toe.
4)is best used with the thinner body toward the cathode.
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: B
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For an AP chest projection obtained with a mobile x-ray unit,
1)the IR is positioned parallel with the midcoronal plane.
2)the image is obtained without the use of a grid.
3)the manubrium is superimposed over the fourth thoracic vertebra.
4)10 or 11 posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: B
Q2) The last rib is attached to the ____ vertebra.
A) eleventh
B) tenth
C) twelfth
D) ninth
Answer: C
Q3) The IR is positioned ____ for a PA chest projection of a hypersthenic patient.
A) crosswise
B) lengthwise
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) A properly positioned tangential projection of the wrist will demonstrate which of the following?
1)Flexor retinaculum anteriorly and the capitate posteriorly
2)Scaphoid and trapezium laterally
3)Scaphoid and trapezoid medially
4)Pisiform and hamate medially
5)Flexor retinaculum posteriorly and the capitate anteriorly
6)Pisiform and hamate laterally
A) 1, 3, and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 3, 5, and 6 only
D) 3, 4, and 5 only
Q2) What is the degree of central ray angulation that should be used for an ulnar-deviated PA axial (scaphoid) wrist projection being obtained to demonstrate a proximal scaphoid fracture?
A) Use a 10-degree angle if the first metacarpal and ulna are aligned.
B) Use a 25-degree angle if the first metacarpal and ulna are not aligned.
C) Use a 15-degree angle if the first metacarpal and ulna are aligned.
D) Use a 20-degree angle if the first metacarpal and ulna are not aligned.
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An optimal AP scapula projection demonstrates all of the following except the A) lateral scapular border without thoracic superimposition.
B) superior scapular angle about 0.25 inch (0.6 cm) inferior to the clavicle.
C) humeral shaft at 90 degrees of abduction.
D) glenoid cavity in profile.
Q2) A poorly positioned AP shoulder projection demonstrating most of the articulating surface of the glenoid cavity
A) will also demonstrate the medial clavicular end superimposing the vertebrae.
B) will also demonstrate longitudinal foreshortening of the scapular body.
C) was obtained because the upper midcoronal plane was tilted posteriorly.
D) was obtained because the patient was rotated toward the affected shoulder.
Q3) Accurate alignment of the central ray and glenoid cavity on an inferosuperior axial shoulder projection
A) is unaffected by the degree of humeral abduction.
B) is affected by the alignment of the humeral epicondyle with the floor.
C) is obtained when the humerus is abducted to 60 degrees and the central ray to lateral body surface angle is set at 30 degrees.
D) will demonstrate the lateral edge of the coracoid process base aligned with the inferior glenoid cavity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pertains to a lateral foot projection that demonstrates the lateral talar dome distal to the medial talar dome?
1)The patient was imaged with the distal tibia elevated.
2)More than 0.5 inch (1 cm) of the cuboid is demonstrated posterior to the navicular.
3)The lateral talar dome is also anterior to the medial talar dome.
4)The fibula would be situated too far posterior to the tibia.
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) If the patient is unable to extend the knee fully, an open femorotibial joint is accomplished by aligning the central ray perpendicular to the anterior surface of the lower leg and then
A) decreasing the angle 3 to 5 degrees and centering to the femorotibial joint.
B) increasing the angle 3 to 5 degrees and centering to the femorotibial joint.
C) centering to the femorotibial joint.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When obtaining an axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection of the hip on patients with ample lateral soft-tissue thickness, the
A) IR is positioned superior to the iliac crest.
B) central ray is centered inferior to the femoral head.
C) IR is positioned inferior to the iliac crest.
D) IR is positioned at the iliac crest.
Q2) How is the patient positioned for an AP projection (modified Cleaves method) of the pelvis to demonstrate the femoral neck without foreshortening?
A) Abduct the femurs to a 45-degree angle with the IR.
B) Abduct the femurs until they are placed as close to the imaging table as possible.
C) Abduct the femurs to 20 to 30 degrees from vertical.
D) This cannot be accomplished in this projection.
Q3) An optimal axiolateral (inferosuperior) hip projection demonstrates all of the following except the
A) lesser trochanter in profile posteriorly.
B) femoral neck with partial foreshortening.
C) greater trochanter superimposed by the femoral shaft.
D) lesser and greater trochanters at approximately the same transverse level.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A left lateral thoracic vertebrae projection demonstrating more than 0.5 inch (1.25 cm) of space between the posterior ribs
A) was obtained with the patient's right side rotated posteriorly.
B) will require the patient's right side to be rotated posteriorly to obtain an optimal projection.
C) will require the vertebral column to be positioned parallel with the IR to obtain an optimal projection.
D) was obtained with the midsagittal plane aligned perpendicular to the IR.
Q2) For an AP atlas and axis projection,
1)the mandibular angles and the shoulders are positioned at equal distances from the IR.
2)the acanthiomeatal line is aligned parallel with the IR.
3)a 5-degree cephalad angulation is used.
4)an imaginary line connecting the upper occlusal plane and posterior occiput's inferior edge is aligned perpendicular to the IR.
A) 1 and 4 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a spot lateral L5-S1 projection, 1)the vertebral column is aligned parallel with the imaging table.
2)a high kVp is used to penetrate the hips and pelvis.
3)the shoulders and ASISs are positioned at equal distances from the imaging table.
4)the knees are flexed.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) A lateral sacral projection with accurate positioning demonstrates
1)the long axis of the sacrum aligned with the long axis of the collimated field. 2)near-superimposition of the greater sciatic notches.
3)an open L5-S1 intervertebral disk space.
4)the median sacral crest in profile.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a PA oblique sternal projection (RAO position) with accurate positioning, the 1)manubrium is demonstrated to the left of the heart shadow.
2)posterior ribs are magnified.
3)sternum is demonstrated within the heart shadow.
4)lung markings are blurred.
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only
Q2) A less than optimal lateral sternum projection that does not demonstrate the sternum in profile and visualizes the superior heart shadow extending anterior to the sternum
A) resulted because the central ray was centered too posteriorly.
B) resulted because of poor costal breathing technique.
C) could be improved by rotating the right thorax anteriorly.
D) also would demonstrate the left thorax rotated posteriorly.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of an SMV cranial projection (Schueller method) obtained with the vertex of the patient's head tilted toward the right side?
A) The mandibular mentum will be turned toward the right side.
B) The distance from the left mandibular ramus to the lateral cranial cortex is greater than the distance from the right ramus to the lateral cranial cortex.
C) The mandibular mentum is demonstrated anterior to the ethmoid sinuses.
D) The distance from the right mandibular ramus to the lateral cranial cortex is greater than the distance from the left ramus to the lateral cranial cortex.
Q2) An AP axial cranium projection (Towne method) demonstrating the dorsum sellae superimposing the atlas's posterior arch
A) was obtained with the patient's face rotated toward the right side.
B) will require the central ray angle to be adjusted caudally until it forms a 30-degree angle with the OML.
C) will require the patient's chin to be elevated to obtain an optimal projection.
D) will also demonstrate elongation of the dorsum sellae.
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Sample Questions
Q1) For an AP-PA large intestine projection (lateral decubitus position),
1)uniform density is obtained by positioning the thick end of the compensating filter toward the imaging table.
2)an arrow or word marker is placed on the IR to indicate the side positioned adjacent to the imaging table.
3)the shoulders, posterior ribs, and posterior pelvis are positioned at equal distance to the imaging table.
4)the central ray is centered to the midsagittal plane at the level of the iliac crest.
A) 1 and 4 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q2) Adequate large intestine distention and mucosal covering has been obtained when A) the mucosal folds are demonstrated.
B) a thin coating of barium covers the mucosal surface.
C) the barium pool is limited to half the intestinal diameter.
D) the barium is pooled in the dependent surface.
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