Radiographic Procedures
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Radiographic Procedures is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and techniques involved in producing diagnostic medical images using radiographic equipment. The course covers the proper positioning of patients, image acquisition protocols, radiation safety measures, and quality control procedures essential for accurate imaging of the human body. Students learn to apply anatomical knowledge to optimize image quality while minimizing patient exposure, and develop proficiency in performing routine procedures for the chest, abdomen, extremities, and specialized examinations. Emphasis is placed on clinical competence, patient care, communication skills, and adherence to professional and ethical standards in the radiology environment.
Recommended Textbook
Radiographic Imaging and Exposure 3rd Edition by Terri L. Fauber
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Chapter 1: Radiation and Its Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first Nobel Prize for physics was received in 1901 by:
A) Marie Curie.
B) Crookes.
C) Wilhelm Roentgen.
D) Einstein.
Answer: C
Q2) X-ray photons travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) X-rays carry a negative charge that causes ionization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) X-rays have which of the following properties?
A) Electrical properties
B) Magnetic properties
C) Chemical properties
D) a and b
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The X-Ray Beam
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the focal spot size measured directly under the anode target?
A) Actual focal spot
B) Target focal spot
C) Filament focal spot
D) Effective focal spot
Answer: D
Q2) What is the base material of the rotating anode?
A) Molybdenum
B) Tungsten
C) Rhenium
D) Beryllium
Answer: A
Q3) mA is a measure of _____ that flows from cathode to anode.
A) filament current
B) tube current
C) space charge
D) thermionic emission
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Radiographic Image Formation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imaging of the movement of internal structures is known as:
A) image intensification.
B) digital imaging.
C) the photoelectric effect.
D) fluoroscopy.
Answer: D
Q2) Interactions of low energy x-rays (energies below the diagnostic range) with tissue include:
A) pair production.
B) coherent scattering.
C) photodisintegration.
D) a and c
Answer: B
Q3) The x-ray beam that leaves the patient in the direction of the image receptor is often referred to as:
A) primary radiation.
B) exit radiation.
C) absorbed radiation.
D) scattered radiation.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Radiographic Image Quality: Photographic Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the primary controller of radiographic density, which film has the greatest density?
A) 300 mA, 0.2 second
B) 400 mA, 0.2 second
C) 100 mA, 1 second
D) 800 mA, 0.001 second
Q2) What is the primary controller of image contrast?
A) kVp
B) mA
C) Seconds
D) None of the above
Q3) Assuming all produce appropriate density images, which of the following would be the best exposure technique choice when performing a chest radiograph on an infant?
A) Use 40 ms exposure time.
B) Use 60 ms exposure time.
C) Use 200 ms exposure time.
D) Use at least 80 kVp.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Radiographic Image Quality: Geometric Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using a small focal spot size may be prohibited due to the:
A) amount of heat produced by x-ray exposure.
B) amount of exposure time used.
C) SID used.
D) speed of the film-screen system.
Q2) The misrepresentation of the size of an object is:
A) shape distortion.
B) magnification.
C) foreshortening.
D) elongation.
Q3) What effect will increasing SID have on recorded detail?
A) Increased recorded detail
B) Decreased recorded detail
C) No effect on recorded detail
Q4) The ability of the system to differentiate between two small objects that have similar subject contrast refers to:
A) contrast resolution.
B) spatial resolution.
C) geometric unsharpness.
D) distortion.
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Chapter 6: Scatter Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the height of the grid strip is 16 mm, the distance between the strips is 2 mm, and the strip is 3 mm wide, what is the grid ratio?
A) 8:1
B) 10:1
C) 12:1
D) 16:1
Q2) What type of grid error is seen as a loss of density at the periphery of the image?
A) Stationary grid
B) Upside-down focused grid
C) Off-focus
D) Off-level
Q3) A radiograph that has a fogged appearance has most likely been exposed to which of the following?
A) Scatter radiation
B) Primary radiation
C) Coherent radiation
D) Photoelectric radiation
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Chapter 7: Image Receptors
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a film has the emulsion coated on both sides of the base versus one side of the base, the film is referred to as:
A) single emulsion film.
B) duplicating film.
C) double emulsion film.
D) a or b
Q2) What influences the speed of radiographic film?
A) The amount of silver halide crystals in the emulsion
B) The color of the dye added to the film base
C) The size of the silver halide crystal
D) a and c
Q3) Which layer of the intensifying screen is closest to the film?
A) Protective layer
B) Base
C) Phosphor layer
D) Emulsion
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Chapter 8: Radiographic Film Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the component of the developer solution responsible for the gray areas on the image?
A) Phenidone
B) Water
C) Hydroquinone
D) Thiosulfate
Q2) A safelight fog quality control test should be performed:
A) daily.
B) weekly.
C) quarterly.
D) semi-annually.
Q3) Darkrooms should be protected from:
A) chemical exposure.
B) heat.
C) ionizing radiation.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Radiographs should be dried to remove at least 95% of their moisture.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sensitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the optical density increases by 0.3, the percentage of light transmitted through the film:
A) decreases by a factor of 2.
B) increases by a factor or 2.
C) increases by a factor of 4.
D) remains the same.
Q2) What is the device used to measure radiographic density?
A) Sensitometer
B) Densitometer
C) Step wedge
D) a and c
Q3) What area of the sensitometric curve includes the maximum level of density present on the film?
A) Toe
B) Shoulder
C) Slope
D) b and c
Q4) The lower the speed exposure point, the faster the film speed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Exposure Factor Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are true regarding development of an effective technique chart?
A) The processor(s) must be consistent.
B) The equipment must be calibrated.
C) The equipment must be from the same manufacturer.
D) a and b
Q2) A variable kVp/fixed mAs chart may be most effective with:
A) geriatric patients.
B) trauma patients.
C) patients imaged with mobile equipment.
D) pediatric patients.
Q3) If a technique chart is being used and the resultant image is overexposed, the technologist should assume the chart is inaccurate and come up with his or her own exposure factors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Optimal kVp values for each anatomic area have been established.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Automatic Exposure Control
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Q1) What describes the shortest exposure time required for the AEC device to operate?
A) Backup time
B) Minimum response time
C) Master density time
D) a and c
Q2) AEC eliminates the need for the radiographer to select the actual _____ the examination will require.
A) kVp
B) SID
C) time
D) focal spot size
Q3) A good time to use AEC is when the radiographer is not sure where the structure to be radiographed is located.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When exposure factors are selected using APR, the variables should not be adjusted.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Digital Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following systems is NOT associated with direct digital radiography (DR)?
A) Flat panel digital
B) Charge-coupled device
C) Indirect conversion detector
D) Computed radiography
Q2) As compared to CR, a disadvantage of direct digital radiography is:
A) increased image processing time.
B) lower dynamic range.
C) incompatibility with existing equipment.
D) increased spatial resolution.
Q3) What serves the same purpose in conventional radiography as the imaging plate used in computed radiography?
A) Grid
B) Cassette
C) Film
D) View box
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